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  • Question 1 - Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Procainamide

      Explanation:

      Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer: Is the square root of standard deviation

      Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      When statistically comparing data sets, researchers estimate the population of each sample and examine them to see whether they are identical. The standard error of the mean (SEM) – not the standard deviation (SD), which represents the variation in the sample – is used to estimate the population mean. Via this process, researchers conclude that the sample used in their studies appropriately represents the population within the error range specified by the pre-set significance level.
      The SEM is smaller than the SD, as the SEM is estimated usually with the SD divided by the square root of the sample size. For this reason, researchers are tempted to use the SEM when describing their samples. It is acceptable to use either the SEM or SD to compare two different groups if the sample sizes of the two groups are equal; however, the sample size must be stated in order to deliver accurate information. For example, when a population has a large amount of variation, the SD of an extracted sample from this population must be large. However, the SEM will be small if the sample size is deliberately increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression....

    Correct

    • A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression. She has no past medical history of interest but is known to smoke Cannabis. She had similar episodes in the past winter. Which condition does this signify?

      Your Answer: Seasonal affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that’s related to changes in seasons. SAD begins and ends at about the same time every year. For most people with SAD, the symptoms start in the fall and continue into the winter months, sapping the person’s energy and making him feel moody. Less often, SAD causes depression in the spring or early summer.

      Treatment for SAD may include light therapy (phototherapy), medications and psychotherapy.

      Signs and symptoms of SAD may include:
      Feeling depressed most of the day, nearly every day
      Losing interest in activities you once enjoyed
      Having low energy
      Having problems with sleeping
      Experiencing changes in your appetite or weight
      Feeling sluggish or agitated
      Having difficulty concentrating
      Feeling hopeless, worthless or guilty
      Having frequent thoughts of death or suicide.

      Seasonal affective disorder is diagnosed more often in women than in men. And SAD occurs more frequently in younger adults than in older adults.

      Factors that may increase your risk of seasonal affective disorder include:
      Family history. People with SAD may be more likely to have blood relatives with SAD or another form of depression.
      Having major depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms of depression may worsen seasonally if you have one of these conditions.
      Living far from the equator. SAD appears to be more common among people who live far north or south of the equator. This may be due to decreased sunlight during the winter and longer days during the summer months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student nurse was admitted after her third collapse in recent months. She was noted to have a blood sugar of 0.9 mmol/l on finger-prick testing and responded well to intravenous glucose therapy. Venous blood taken at the same showed a markedly raised insulin level, but her C-peptide levels were normal. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Insulinoma

      Correct Answer: Self-administration of a short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycaemia, but her C-peptide levels are normal. This is strongly suggestive of the fact that she is self-administering insulin.
      In Insulinoma, common diagnostic criteria include:
      – blood glucose level < 50 mg/dl with hypoglycaemic symptoms,
      – relief of symptoms after eating
      – absence of sulfonylurea on plasma assays.
      The classic diagnostic criteria include the demonstration of the following during a supervised fast:
      Increased plasma insulin level
      Increased C peptide level
      Increased proinsulin level
      However, the patient has normal C-peptide levels.
      In type-1 diabetes mellitus, insulin and C-peptide levels are low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?

      Your Answer: Increase in IL-2 production

      Correct Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels

      Explanation:

      The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
      increased B2-microglobulin
      decreased IL-2 production
      polyclonal B-cell activation
      decreased NK cell function
      reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Choose the correct formula to calculate the negative predictive value of a screening...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct formula to calculate the negative predictive value of a screening test:

      Your Answer: TN / (TN + FN)

      Explanation:

      NPV = TN / FN+TN

      = TN (true negative) / FN+TN (false negative + true negative)

      = Probability (patient not having disease when test is negative)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following: Na+ 142 mmol/L, K+ 4.8 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L, Urea 10.1 mmol/L, Creatinine 176 µmol/L, Hb 10.4 g/dL, MCV 90 fl Plt 91 * 109/L, WBC 14.4 * 109/L, Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Correct Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 yr. old man presented with palpitations and shortness of breath on exertion. On examination his lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. There was a left sided parasternal heave. His electrocardiogram (ECG) revealed atrial fibrillation with right axis deviation. Echocardiography showed dilated right heart chambers. Left and right heart catheterisation study revealed the following: Inferior vena cava Oxygen saturations 63 %, Superior vena cava Oxygen saturations 59 %, Right atrium Oxygen saturations 77 %, Right ventricle Oxygen saturations 78 %, Pulmonary artery Oxygen saturations 82 %, Arterial saturation Oxygen saturations 98 %. What is the most likely diagnosis from the following answers?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Right ventricular volume overload is indicated by a parasternal heave and right axis deviation. Oxygen saturation in right atrium is higher than oxygen saturation of the inferior and superior vena cavae. So the most probable diagnosis is atrial septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer: Constitutional short stature

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.
      Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.

      Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30 yr. old primigravida in her 23rd week of pregnancy presented with...

    Correct

    • A 30 yr. old primigravida in her 23rd week of pregnancy presented with palpitations. Her ECG showed supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). 15 minutes after admission the SVT spontaneously reverted to sinus rhythm. She had two episodes of SVT later which were associated with palpitations. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Both long-acting calcium channel blockers and beta blockers improve symptoms of patients with SVT. Verapamil does not have adverse maternal or fetal side effects which would suggest that the use of verapamil in the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias in pregnancy is safe and effective. Beta blockers are associated with intrauterine fetal growth restriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen?

      Your Answer: Small intestine

      Correct Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Urobiligen is produced by the action of bacteria on bilirubin in the intestine. As a reminder, unconjugated bilirubin becomes conjugated in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin goes through enterohepatic circulation. About half of the urobiligen is reabsorbed and excreted by the kidneys in the urine. The rest is converted to stercobilinogen –> stercobilin, which is excreted in stool, giving it its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 63 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness of breath on exertion and a non-productive cough.   On examination there is clubbing, and crepitations heard at the lung bases. Lung function tests show a reduced vital capacity and an increased FEV1/FVC ratio.   What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a condition in which the lungs become scarred and breathing becomes increasingly difficult.
      The most common signs and symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are shortness of breath and a persistent dry, hacking cough. Many affected individuals also experience a loss of appetite and gradual weight loss.

      The clinical findings of IPF are bibasilar reticular abnormalities, ground glass opacities, or diffuse nodular lesions on high-resolution computed tomography and abnormal pulmonary function studies that include evidence of restriction (reduced VC with an increase in FEV1/FVC ratio) and/or impaired gas exchange (increased P(A-a)O2 with rest or exercise or decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is referred to the outpatient clinic with a 6-month history of diarrhoea. She has had intermittent loose normal-coloured stools 2-3 times a day. She also has up to 10 hot flushes a day but thinks she is entering menopause; her GP has recently started her on hormone replacement therapy. 15 years ago she had a normal colonoscopy after presenting with abdominal pain and intermittent constipation. She has asthma controlled by inhalers, hypertension controlled by ACE inhibitors and hypothyroidism controlled by thyroxine. She smoked 10 cigarettes a day for the last 30 years and drinks alcohol about 14 units/week. On examination, she looks hot and flushed. She is afebrile. Her pulse is regular 92bpm and her BP is 164/82 mmHg. Her respirator rate is 20 breaths/min at rest and she sounds quite wheezy. A widespread polyphonic expiratory wheeze can be heard on chest auscultation. Her abdomen is soft. Her liver is enlarged 4 cm below the right costal margin but not-tender. Results of blood tests show: Na 140 mmol/L, K 4.8 mmol/L, Glucose 9.8 mmol/L, Albumin 41 g/l, ALT 94 U/l, ALP 61 U/l, Bilirubin 18 mmol/L, Ca 2.47 mmol/L, WCC 10.1 × 109/L, Hb 12.2 g/dL, MCV 90.5 fl, Platelets 234 × 109 /l, PT 13 s. Chest X-ray is normal. Ultrasound of the liver shows an enlarged liver containing three ill-defined mass lesions in the right lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: VIPoma

      Correct Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid tumours are of neuroendocrine origin and derived from primitive stem cells in the gut wall, especially the appendix. They can be seen in other organs, including the lungs, mediastinum, thymus, liver, bile ducts, pancreas, bronchus, ovaries, prostate, and kidneys. While carcinoid tumours tend to grow slowly, they have the potential to metastasise.
      Signs and symptoms seen in larger tumours may include the following:
      – Periodic abdominal pain: Most common presentation for a small intestinal carcinoid; often associated with malignant carcinoid syndrome.
      – Cutaneous flushing: Early and frequent (94%) symptom; typically affects head and neck.
      – Diarrhoea and malabsorption (84%): Watery, frothy, or bulky stools, gastrointestinal (GI) bleed or steatorrhea; may or may not be associated with abdominal pain, flushing, and cramps.
      – Cardiac manifestations (60%): Valvular heart lesions, fibrosis of the endocardium; may lead to heart failure with tachycardia and hypertension.
      – Wheezing or asthma-like syndrome (25%): Due to bronchial constriction; some tremors are relatively indolent and result in chronic symptoms such as cough and dyspnoea.
      – Pellagra with scale-like skin lesions, diarrhoea and mental disturbances.
      – Carcinoid crisis can be the most serious symptom of the carcinoid tumours and life-threatening. It can occur suddenly or after stress, including chemotherapy and anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      55.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is not a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor for primary open-angle glaucoma?

      Your Answer: Hypermetropia

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is associated with hypermetropia, whereas primary open-angle glaucoma is associated with myopia. Glaucoma is a group of eye disorders characterised by optic neuropathy due, in the majority of patients, to raised intraocular pressure (IOP). It is now recognised that a minority of patients with raised IOP do not have glaucoma and vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare two chemotherapy schemas for individuals with small cell lung cancer. Which of the following would you choose to compare survival time with in this particular study?

      Your Answer: Odds ratio

      Correct Answer: Hazard ratio

      Explanation:

      The hazard ratio describes the relative risk of the complication based on comparison of event rates.

      Hazard ratios have also been used to describe the outcome of therapeutic trials where the question is to what extent treatment can shorten the duration of the illness. However, the hazard ratio, a type of relative risk, does not always accurately portray the degree of abbreviation of the illness that occurred. In these circumstances, time-based parameters available from the time-to-event curve, such as the ratio of the median times of the placebo and drug groups, should be used to describe the magnitude of the benefit to the patient. The difference between hazard-based and time-based measures is analogous to the odds of winning a race and the margin of victory. The hazard ratio is the odds of a patient’s healing faster under treatment but does not convey any information about how much faster this event may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 52 year old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52 year old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrine and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?

      Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and begin inhaled corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l. You advise him to start fibrate therapy. Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?

      Your Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis

      Explanation:

      Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
      Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
      1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
      2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
      3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
      4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
      5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old waiter applies for a job at a cafeteria. He gives a...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old waiter applies for a job at a cafeteria. He gives a history of having had enteric fever 2 years ago. Which of the following investigations is most likely to indicate a chronic carrier status?

      Your Answer: Widal antigen test

      Correct Answer: Culture of intestinal secretions

      Explanation:

      The chronic asymptomatic carrier state is thought to be why there is continued appearance of the bacterium in human populations. As shedding of the organism is intermittent and sometimes at low levels, methods to detect it have been limited. The Salmonella typhi may be cultured from intestinal secretions, faeces or urine in chronic carriers and is recommended to confirm the diagnosis. Vi agglutination test can also be high in normal people in areas with typhoid endemic. Full blood count or blood culture would not be helpful to determine carrier status. Widal antigen test is unable to differentiate carriers from people with a hx of prior infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is at increased risk of cancer. Which one of the following cancers is NOT increased in HIV positive people?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer has a lower incidence in HIV positive patients. Seminoma, Hodgkin’s disease, anal cancer, and non-small cell lung cancer are all increased incidence. Memorize this breast cancer fact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/4) 25%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/4) 25%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed