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  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of heartburn, nausea and a metallic taste in her mouth. She has a good appetite and has lost 2kg in the last month. She has a past medical history of hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. She takes amlodipine 5mg OD, risedronate 35 mg OD and lansoprazole 30 mg OD.

      On examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender and there are no palpable masses. Her observations are normal.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient from the following options?

      Your Answer: Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral is warranted when weight loss is a prominent symptom in dyspepsia.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old female with a past medical history of sickle cell anaemia complains...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female with a past medical history of sickle cell anaemia complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. A chest x-ray reveals infiltrates in both lung bases. On room air, arterial blood gases show the following results:
      pH 7.39
      pCO2 4.6 kPa
      pO2 8.2 kPa
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute sickle chest syndrome

      Explanation:

      This presentation is characteristic of acute sickle chest syndrome.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      59.7
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old female patient visits the clinic as she has not had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits the clinic as she has not had a menstrual period for 5 months. She has had regular periods since she was 12 years old. After conducting a negative urinary pregnancy test, the doctor ordered some blood tests. The results are as follows:
      FSH 4.2 IU/L (4.5 - 22.5)
      LH 0.5 IU/L (0.5 - 50.0)
      Oestradiol 110 pmol/L (100 - 1000)
      Testosterone 1.2 nmol/L (0.8-3.1)
      Prolactin 280 IU/mL (60-600)
      T4 11.5 pmol/l (9-18)

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      If a woman experiences secondary amenorrhoea and has low levels of gonadotrophins, it suggests that the cause is related to the hypothalamus. High levels of gonadotrophins would indicate premature ovarian failure, while high levels of LH and androgens would suggest polycystic ovarian syndrome. Normal levels of prolactin and thyroxine have been observed in this woman.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
      Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The British Thoracic Society recommends using macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin or erythromycin as empirical treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in both children and adults if first-line β-lactam antibiotics are ineffective or in cases of severe disease. Atypical infections are often diagnosed late in the illness, making early targeted therapy difficult. M. pneumoniae pneumonia tends to occur in outbreaks in the UK, so being aware of these outbreaks can help guide treatment. Benzylpenicillin is used to treat various infections, including throat infections, otitis media, and cellulitis. Cefuroxime is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat susceptible infections caused by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including respiratory tract infections, Lyme disease, and urinary tract infections. Rifampicin is used in combination with other drugs to treat brucellosis, Legionnaires’ disease, serious staphylococcal infections, endocarditis, and tuberculosis. Co-trimoxazole is used to treat Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and can be administered orally for mild-to-moderate pneumonia or intravenously in dual therapy with steroids for severe pneumonia. It can also be used for PCP prophylaxis in HIV-positive patients, with primary prophylaxis recommended for those with a CD4 count of <£200 and secondary prophylaxis essential after the first infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A father brings in his 3-week-old baby boy to the pediatrician's office as...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his 3-week-old baby boy to the pediatrician's office as he's noticed that the baby bruises very easily. This is his first child, who was born in Canada following an uncomplicated pregnancy by natural vaginal delivery. Exclusive breastfeeding was commenced immediately following delivery and the baby has been feeding well otherwise and gaining weight steadily. You order the following blood test.

      International normalised ratio (INR) 4

      What could be the possible reasons for the baby's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exclusive breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breastfed infants may be susceptible to vitamin K deficiency, as breast milk lacks sufficient amounts of this nutrient. The baby in question is likely experiencing idiopathic vitamin K deficiency, with breastfeeding being the only known risk factor. It is possible that the baby did not receive a vitamin K injection at birth, as they were born in Ukraine. Gender, age, vaginal delivery, and birth order are not associated with an increased risk of vitamin K deficiency.

      Haemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn: Causes and Prevention

      Newborn babies have a relatively low level of vitamin K, which can lead to the development of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn (HDN). This condition occurs when the production of clotting factors is impaired, resulting in bleeding that can range from minor bruising to intracranial haemorrhages. Breast-fed babies are particularly at risk, as breast milk is a poor source of vitamin K. Additionally, the use of antiepileptic medication by the mother can increase the risk of HDN in the newborn.

      To prevent HDN, all newborns in the UK are offered vitamin K supplementation. This can be administered either intramuscularly or orally. By providing newborns with adequate levels of vitamin K, the risk of HDN can be significantly reduced. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the risk factors for HDN and to take steps to prevent this potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.

      Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.

      Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis

      Explanation:

      For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of left...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of left leg weakness that started 2 hours ago. She reports no weakness in her face or upper limbs, and her speech is normal. She has no medical history and takes no regular medications.

      Upon examination, the emergency physician suspects a non-organic cause. The patient is placed in a supine position and asked to raise her right leg against resistance while keeping it straight. The physician places his hand under the left heel and feels pressure under his hand.

      What is the name of this clinical sign or test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoover's sign

      Explanation:

      Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool that can quickly differentiate between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when the unaffected leg is lifted against pressure. This is due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.

      Based on this scenario, the likely diagnosis is a conversion disorder, which is characterized by the loss of motor function in the leg without any organic cause. The positive result of Hoover’s sign supports this diagnosis.

      Babinski’s sign is a reflex that involves dorsiflexion of the big toe upon plantar stimulation. It is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion of the corticospinal tract.

      Brudziński’s sign is a reflex that involves the flexion of the hips with forced flexion of the neck. It is typically associated with meningitis but can also be present in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage and encephalitis.

      The glabellar tap sign, also known as Myerson’s sign, involves tapping the area above the nose and between the eyebrows (glabella) repeatedly. Healthy patients usually blink in response to the first 2-3 taps, but if a patient is unable to resist blinking beyond this, it can be indicative of early Parkinson’s disease.

      The straight leg raise test, also known as Lasègue’s sign, involves raising the straight leg to reproduce radiating leg pain. A positive result indicates a likely lumbar disc herniation.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - As a foundation year two doctor in general practice, you encounter a thirty-four-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year two doctor in general practice, you encounter a thirty-four-year-old priest who reports knee pain without any history of trauma. Upon examination, you note stable observations and slight swelling with pain and tenderness overlying the knee. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infrapatellar bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this gentleman’s condition is infrapatellar bursitis, which is often associated with kneeling, particularly in clergymen. Although prepatellar bursitis may also be a possible cause, it is more commonly observed in housemaids who kneel in a more upright position. Osteoarthritis, which is characterized by knee pain and a feeling of instability, is more prevalent in individuals over the age of forty-five, making it less likely for this patient. Cruciate ligament damage, meniscal tear, and ruptured bursa are also potential causes, but they are typically associated with a history of trauma.

      Knee problems are common among older adults, and it is important to be aware of the key features of each condition. Osteoarthritis of the knee is often seen in patients over 50 years of age who are overweight. This condition can cause severe pain, intermittent swelling, crepitus, and limited movement. Infrapatellar bursitis, also known as Clergyman’s knee, is associated with kneeling, while prepatellar bursitis, or Housemaid’s knee, is associated with more upright kneeling. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by twisting of the knee, and patients may have heard a popping noise. Rapid onset of knee effusion and a positive draw test are also common features. Posterior cruciate ligament injuries may be caused by anterior force applied to the proximal tibia, such as during a car accident. Collateral ligament injuries can cause tenderness over the affected ligament and knee effusion. Meniscal lesions may be caused by twisting of the knee and can cause locking and giving-way, as well as tenderness along the joint line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - A 76-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. He reports not having had a bowel movement or passed gas in the past 48 hours. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has experienced constipation and weight loss in recent weeks. After a CT scan, a mass is discovered in the hepatic flexure, leading the medical team to suspect a large bowel obstruction caused by cancer. What is the most suitable surgical treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right hemicolectomy

      Explanation:

      The appropriate surgical procedure for a patient with caecal, ascending or proximal transverse colon cancer is a right hemicolectomy. This involves removing the cecum, ascending colon, and proximal third of the transverse colon. If the cancer is located at the hepatic flexure, an extended right hemicolectomy may be necessary. Hartmann’s procedure is reserved for emergencies such as bowel obstruction or perforation and involves complete resection of the rectum and sigmoid colon with the formation of an end colostomy. A high anterior resection is used for upper rectal tumors, while a left hemicolectomy is used for distal two-thirds of the transverse colon and descending colon tumors. A low anterior resection is used for low rectal tumors, but none of these procedures are appropriate for a patient with a mass in the hepatic flexure.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old male came to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male came to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath during exertion. He had no medical history to report. During the examination, a midsystolic murmur was detected, which was most audible at the left lower sternal border. The murmur became louder when the Valsalva manoeuvre was performed. An echocardiogram revealed mitral regurgitation, asymmetric hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. What medication should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Patients with HOCM should avoid ACE-inhibitors.

      The correct answer is Ramipril. In patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) and left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction, ACE inhibitors are not recommended. This is because ACE inhibitors can decrease afterload, which may exacerbate the LVOT gradient. The patient in this case has echocardiographic evidence of HOCM, including asymmetric hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, and mitral regurgitation.

      However, amiodarone, atenolol, disopyramide, and verapamil are all viable treatment options for HOCM.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is estimated to have a prevalence of 1 in 500. The condition is caused by defects in the genes that encode contractile proteins.

      The management of HOCM involves several approaches. Amiodarone is a medication that can be used to treat the condition. Beta-blockers or verapamil may also be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. In some cases, a cardioverter defibrillator or dual chamber pacemaker may be necessary. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as nitrates, ACE-inhibitors, and inotropes, should be avoided in patients with HOCM. Additionally, endocarditis prophylaxis may be recommended, although the 2008 NICE guidelines should be consulted for specific recommendations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
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