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Question 1
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with a sudden worsening of his asthma symptoms. His heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate 30/min, and his oxygen saturations are 88% on room air. He is feeling fatigued, and his breathing sounds weak, with no audible sounds in his chest. He has already received two consecutive nebulizers of salbutamol, 40 mg, one nebulizer of ipratropium bromide, and 40 mg of prednisolone orally. The ICU outreach team has been notified and will arrive soon.
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer while waiting for the ICU outreach team to arrive?Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate
Explanation:This patient exhibits signs of potentially life-threatening asthma. In adults, acute severe asthma is characterized by a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate over 110 beats per minute, and an inability to complete sentences in one breath. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a PEF below 33% of the best or predicted value, a blood oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 92%, a partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) below 8 kPA, a normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) within the range of 4.6-6.0 kPa, a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, exhaustion, altered consciousness, and hypotension.
To address acute asthma in adults, the recommended drug doses include administering 5 mg of salbutamol through an oxygen-driven nebulizer, delivering 500 mcg of ipratropium bromide via an oxygen-driven nebulizer, providing 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally, administering 100 mg of hydrocortisone intravenously, and infusing 1.2-2 g of magnesium sulfate intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
According to the current Advanced Life Support (ALS) guidelines, it is advisable to seek senior advice before considering the use of intravenous aminophylline in cases of severe or life-threatening asthma. If used, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg should be given over 20 minutes, followed by a continuous infusion of 500-700 mcg/kg/hour. To prevent toxicity, it is important to maintain serum theophylline levels below 20 mcg/ml.
In situations where inhaled therapy is not feasible, intravenous salbutamol can be considered, with a slow administration of 250 mcg. However, it should only be used when a patient is receiving bag-mask ventilation.
It is worth noting that there is currently no evidence supporting the use of leukotriene receptor antagonists, such as montelukast, or Heliox in the management of acute severe or life-threatening asthma.
For further information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty in breathing. You observe that the patient was diagnosed with mitral regurgitation a year ago. Which arrhythmia is commonly seen in individuals with chronic mitral regurgitation?
Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:People with chronic mitral regurgitation often experience atrial fibrillation.
Mitral Stenosis:
– Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
– Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
– Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
– Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valveMitral Regurgitation:
– Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
– Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
– Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
– Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
– Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient has been feeling sick for the past day. The patient's daughter suspects she may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What antidote should be readily accessible in the emergency department for the treatment of digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer: Digoxin specific antibody fragments
Explanation:Digoxin-specific antibody fragments, known as Digibind or Digifab, are utilized for the treatment of digoxin toxicity. These antibody fragments should be readily available in all hospital pharmacies across the UK and accessible within a maximum of one hour.
Further Reading:
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.
ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 4
Correct
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A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department with a painful swollen right arm that has developed over the past 24 hours. On examination there is erythema over most of the upper arm and forearm on the right side which is tender and hot to touch. The patient's observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 130/90 mmHg
Pulse 100 bpm
Respiration rate 18 bpm
Temperature 38.2ºC
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Admit for IV antibiotic therapy
Explanation:Patients who have Eron class III or IV cellulitis should be hospitalized and treated with intravenous antibiotics. In this case, the patient is experiencing cellulitis along with symptoms of significant systemic distress, such as rapid heart rate and breathing. This places the patient in the Eron Class III category, which necessitates admission for intravenous antibiotic therapy.
Further Reading:
Cellulitis is an inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by an infection, usually by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is characterized by symptoms such as erythema, pain, swelling, and heat. In some cases, there may also be systemic symptoms like fever and malaise.
The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification to determine the appropriate management of cellulitis. Class I cellulitis refers to cases without signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities. Class II cellulitis involves either systemic illness or the presence of a co-morbidity that may complicate or delay the resolution of the infection. Class III cellulitis is characterized by significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromise. Class IV cellulitis involves sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection like necrotizing fasciitis.
According to the guidelines, patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. This also applies to patients with severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail individuals, immunocompromised patients, those with significant lymphedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild). Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the necessary facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The recommended first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin. For patients allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin or clindamycin is recommended. In cases where patients have failed to respond to flucloxacillin, local protocols may suggest the use of oral clindamycin. Severe cellulitis should be treated with intravenous benzylpenicillin and flucloxacillin.
Overall, the management of cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the presence of any systemic symptoms or complications. Prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications and promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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You assess a patient with a past medical history of ulcerative colitis. She expresses significant worry about the potential risk of developing colon cancer due to her condition.
Which ONE statement accurately addresses this concern?Your Answer: The longer that the patient has ulcerative colitis the greater the risk of colon cancer
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with ulcerative colitis face a significantly heightened risk of developing colon cancer. It is crucial for these individuals, especially those with severe or extensive disease, to undergo regular monitoring to detect any potential signs of colon cancer. The risk of developing colon cancer increases as the duration of ulcerative colitis progresses. After 10 years, the risk stands at 1 in 50. After 20 years, the risk increases to 1 in 12. And after 30 years, the risk further rises to 1 in 6. While Crohn’s disease also carries a risk of colonic carcinoma, it is comparatively smaller than that associated with ulcerative colitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 3 year old is brought into the emergency department by his father who is concerned as the child was bitten on the arm by his 6 year old sister whilst they were playing together. You examine the bite wound and measure the intercanine distance as 3.8cm. What is the significance of this?
Your Answer: No significance
Correct Answer: Patient should be referred to child protection team
Explanation:If the distance between the canines is less than 3 cm, it indicates that the bite was likely caused by a child. On the other hand, if the distance is greater than 3 cm, it suggests that the bite was likely caused by an adult. In this particular case, the intercanine distance does not support the mother’s explanation of the injury, indicating that a child is not responsible. Therefore, measures should be taken to ensure the safety of the child, as the story provided by the mother does not align with the injury. In most hospitals, the child protection team is typically led by paediatricians. It is usually possible to differentiate between dog bites and human bites based on the shape of the arch, as well as the morphology of the incisors and canines.
Further Reading:
Bite wounds from animals and humans can cause significant injury and infection. It is important to properly assess and manage these wounds to prevent complications. In human bites, both the biter and the injured person are at risk of infection transmission, although the risk is generally low.
Bite wounds can take various forms, including lacerations, abrasions, puncture wounds, avulsions, and crush or degloving injuries. The most common mammalian bites are associated with dogs, cats, and humans.
When assessing a human bite, it is important to gather information about how and when the bite occurred, who was involved, whether the skin was broken or blood was involved, and the nature of the bite. The examination should include vital sign monitoring if the bite is particularly traumatic or sepsis is suspected. The location, size, and depth of the wound should be documented, along with any functional loss or signs of infection. It is also important to check for the presence of foreign bodies in the wound.
Factors that increase the risk of infection in bite wounds include the nature of the bite, high-risk sites of injury (such as the hands, feet, face, genitals, or areas of poor perfusion), wounds penetrating bone or joints, delayed presentation, immunocompromised patients, and extremes of age.
The management of bite wounds involves wound care, assessment and administration of prophylactic antibiotics if indicated, assessment and administration of tetanus prophylaxis if indicated, and assessment and administration of antiviral prophylaxis if indicated. For initial wound management, any foreign bodies should be removed, the wound should be encouraged to bleed if fresh, and thorough irrigation with warm, running water or normal saline should be performed. Debridement of necrotic tissue may be necessary. Bite wounds are usually not appropriate for primary closure.
Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered for human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood, especially if they involve high-risk areas or the patient is immunocompromised. Co-amoxiclav is the first-line choice for prophylaxis, but alternative antibiotics may be used in penicillin-allergic patients. Antibiotics for wound infection should be based on wound swab culture and sensitivities.
Tetanus prophylaxis should be administered based on the cleanliness and risk level of the wound, as well as the patient’s vaccination status. Blood-borne virus risk should also be assessed, and testing for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man recently suffered a fracture in his right wrist. His cast has been taken off, and he visits you with worries about his right hand. Since the fracture, he has experienced tingling sensations in his thumb and has accidentally dropped items from his right hand a few times. These symptoms have not shown any improvement after the removal of the cast.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Trigger finger
Correct Answer: Ulnar neuritis
Explanation:Ulnar neuritis is characterized by hand clumsiness and can progress to muscle weakness and wasting in the ulnar nerve-supplied muscles. It may also cause numbness or tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger. This condition is caused by the narrowing of the ulnar groove at the elbow and is associated with risk factors such as osteoarthritis, trauma, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nerve conduction studies and surgical decompression may be necessary for diagnosis and treatment.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis occurs when there is inflammation of the thumb extensor and abductor tendon sheaths. This leads to pain over the radial styloid, which worsens with forced adduction and flexion of the thumb. Treatment options include anti-inflammatory medications, thumb splints, and steroid injections.
Dupuytren’s contracture occurs when the palmar fascia contracts, preventing finger extension. It commonly affects the fifth finger on the right hand and is more prevalent in men over the age of 65. Risk factors for this condition include male sex, family history, alcohol use, diabetes, smoking, trauma, and manual labor. Surgical release is necessary if the contracture affects daily activities or work.
Trigger finger occurs when a nodule becomes stuck in the tendon sheath, causing the affected finger to remain in a fixed flexed position. The ring and middle fingers are most commonly affected, and risk factors include rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes. Steroid injections or surgical removal can be used to treat this condition.
Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed under the flexor retinaculum, resulting in numbness, pain, and wasting of the thenar eminence in the lateral three and a half digits. Symptoms are often worse at night. While most cases are idiopathic, risk factors include obesity, oral contraceptive use, hypothyroidism, rheumatoid arthritis, pregnancy, diabetes, amyloidosis, acromegaly, tumors compressing the carpal tunnel, and previous wrist fractures. Tinel’s test and Phalen’s test can help diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome, and nerve conduction studies may be requested for further evaluation. Treatment options include splints, steroid injections, and surgical release if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old combat veteran, Sarah, has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
What is the most suitable treatment for her?Your Answer: Dynamic Psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Eye Movement Desensitisation and Reprocessing
Explanation:Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) and trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) are the primary treatment options for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). These therapies should be provided to individuals of all ages, including children, adolescents, and adults, regardless of the time that has passed since the traumatic event. The recommended number of sessions is typically 8-12, although additional sessions may be necessary in cases involving multiple traumas, chronic disability, comorbidities, or social difficulties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after ingesting 150 paracetamol tablets in a impulsive suicide attempt. The patient is now worried about the potential liver failure and other possible injuries associated with paracetamol overdose. What other organs or systems are at risk of injury in cases of paracetamol overdose?
Your Answer: Renal tubule
Explanation:When someone takes too much paracetamol, it can harm their liver cells and the tubules in their kidneys. This is because paracetamol produces a harmful substance called NAPQI, which is normally combined with glutathione. However, when there is too much NAPQI, it can cause damage and death to liver and kidney cells.
Further Reading:
Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.
Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.
The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.
In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.
The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You assess a 20-year-old woman who has ingested a combination of drugs 30 minutes prior to her arrival at the emergency department. You contemplate the use of activated charcoal to minimize the absorption of the ingested substances. Which of the following is not susceptible to the effects of activated charcoal?
Your Answer: Octreotide
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Activated charcoal is a useful treatment for many drug poisonings, but it is not effective against certain types of poisonings. To remember these exceptions, you can use the mnemonic PHAILS. This stands for Pesticides (specifically organophosphates), Hydrocarbons, Acids (strong), alkalis (strong), alcohols (such as ethanol, methanol, and ethylene glycol), Iron, Lithium, and Solvents.
Further Reading:
Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.
In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.
Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.
Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.
Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.
There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 11
Correct
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You assess a limping adolescent with hip discomfort. An X-ray is conducted, and a diagnosis of Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is confirmed.
Which ONE statement about this condition is NOT true?Your Answer: It typically presents later in girls
Explanation:Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), also referred to as slipped capital femoral epiphysis, is a rare but significant hip disorder that primarily affects children. It occurs when the growth plate slips at the epiphysis, causing the head of the femur to shift from its normal position on the femoral neck. Specifically, the femoral epiphysis remains in the acetabulum while the metaphysis moves forward and externally rotates.
SUFE typically presents later in boys, usually between the ages of 10 and 17, compared to girls who typically experience it between 8 and 15 years of age. Several risk factors contribute to its development, including being male, being overweight, having immature skeletal maturity, having a positive family history, being of Pacific Island or African origin, having hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, or hypogonadism.
Patients with SUFE commonly experience hip pain and a limp. In severe cases, a leg length discrepancy may be noticeable. While the condition may not be immediately apparent on an anteroposterior (AP) film, it is usually detectable on a frog-leg lateral film. A diagnostic sign is the failure of a line drawn up the lateral edge of the femoral neck (known as the line of Klein) to intersect the epiphysis during the acute stage, also known as Trethowan’s sign.
Surgical pinning is the most common treatment for SUFE. In approximately 20% of cases, bilateral SUFE occurs, prompting some surgeons to recommend prophylactic pinning of the unaffected hip. If a significant deformity is present, osteotomies or even arthroplasty may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 12
Correct
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A 78 year old female is brought from her nursing home to the emergency department with heightened confusion after a fall earlier today. A CT head scan is conducted and reveals a subdural hematoma. Which anatomical structure is most likely injured as a result?
Your Answer: Cortical bridging veins
Explanation:Subdural hematoma (SDH) occurs when the bridging veins in the cortex of the brain tear and cause bleeding in the space between the brain and the outermost protective layer. This is different from extradural hematoma (EDH), which is usually caused by a rupture in the middle meningeal artery.
Further Reading:
A subdural hematoma (SDH) is a condition where there is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater of the brain. It occurs when the cortical bridging veins tear and bleed into the subdural space. Risk factors for SDH include head trauma, cerebral atrophy, advancing age, alcohol misuse, and certain medications or bleeding disorders. SDH can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on its age or speed of onset. Acute SDH is typically the result of head trauma and can progress to become chronic if left untreated.
The clinical presentation of SDH can vary depending on the nature of the condition. In acute SDH, patients may initially feel well after a head injury but develop more serious neurological symptoms later on. Chronic SDH may be detected after a CT scan is ordered to investigate confusion or cognitive decline. Symptoms of SDH can include increasing confusion, progressive decline in neurological function, seizures, headache, loss of consciousness, and even death.
Management of SDH involves an ABCDE approach, seizure management, confirming the diagnosis with CT or MRI, checking clotting and correcting coagulation abnormalities, managing raised intracranial pressure, and seeking neurosurgical opinion. Some SDHs may be managed conservatively if they are small, chronic, the patient is not a good surgical candidate, and there are no neurological symptoms. Neurosurgical intervention typically involves a burr hole craniotomy to decompress the hematoma. In severe cases with high intracranial pressure and significant brain swelling, a craniectomy may be performed, where a larger section of the skull is removed and replaced in a separate cranioplasty procedure.
CT imaging can help differentiate between subdural hematoma and other conditions like extradural hematoma. SDH appears as a crescent-shaped lesion on CT scans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old individual presents with a sudden worsening of asthma symptoms. You conduct an arterial blood gas test, and their PaCO2 level is 6.3 kPa.
How would you categorize this asthma exacerbation?Your Answer: Mild asthma
Correct Answer: Near-fatal asthma
Explanation:This individual has presented with an episode of acute asthma. Their PaCO2 levels are elevated at 6.3 kPa, indicating a near-fatal exacerbation. According to the BTS guidelines, acute asthma can be classified as moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, or near-fatal.
Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate) of 50-75% of the best or predicted value. There are no features of acute severe asthma present in this classification.
Acute severe asthma can be identified by any one of the following criteria: a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate surpassing 110 beats per minute, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.
Life-threatening asthma is determined by any one of the following indicators: a PEFR below 33% of the best or predicted value, an SpO2 (oxygen saturation) level below 92%, a PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) below 8 kPa, normal PaCO2 levels (ranging from 4.6-6.0 kPa), a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension.
Near-fatal asthma is characterized by a raised PaCO2 level and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with elevated inflation pressures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Correct
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You have just performed rapid sequence induction using ketamine and rocuronium and placed an endotracheal tube under the guidance of a consultant. What category of medication does rocuronium belong to?
Your Answer: Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker
Explanation:Rocuronium is a type of neuromuscular blocker that does not cause depolarization.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with dysuria, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she shows tenderness in the left renal angle and has a temperature of 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the lab.
What is the MOST suitable antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Cefuroxime
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.
According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.
NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).
For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.
For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 16
Correct
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You evaluate a 32-year-old woman who is 14-weeks pregnant. During the examination, you observe a soft early systolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. Apart from this finding, the patient appears to be in good health, and the rest of the examination was unremarkable.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Functional murmur
Explanation:Functional murmurs, also referred to as physiological or flow murmurs, are frequently observed during pregnancy and other conditions associated with increased blood flow. These murmurs arise as a result of the heightened resting cardiac output and do not necessitate any additional examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 52 year old male is brought to the emergency department with severe head and chest injuries. As his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) continues to decline, it is determined that intubation is necessary. You begin preparing for rapid sequence induction (RSI). Before administering sodium thiopentone, the patient's blood pressure is measured and found to be 88/58 mmHg. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Use normal dose
Correct Answer: Use half normal dose
Explanation:In patients with pre-existing hypovolaemia, the amount of sodium thiopentone administered should be reduced by half. This is because sodium thiopentone can cause venodilation and myocardial depression, which can result in significant hypovolaemia. Alternatively, an induction agent that does not cause hypotension, such as Etomidate, can be used instead. It is important to note that both propofol and thiopentone are known to cause hypotension.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower back pain. Despite taking the maximum dose of ibuprofen, he is still experiencing discomfort and is seeking additional pain relief. What would be the most suitable next course of treatment? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Add low-dose codeine phosphate
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 19
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A 47 year old male visits the emergency department after injuring his knee. The patient explains that he extended his leg after tripping on a flight of stairs, but experienced intense pain around the knee when he landed on his foot. Walking has become challenging for the patient. The patient experiences tenderness above the patella and upon examination, the patella appears to be positioned lower than normal. An X-ray of the knee is requested. What is used to evaluate the accurate placement (height) of the patella on the X-ray?
Your Answer: Insall-Salvati ratio
Explanation:The Insall-Salvati ratio is determined by dividing the length of the patellar tendon (TL) by the length of the patella (PL). This ratio is used to compare the relative lengths of these two structures. A normal ratio is typically 1:1.
Further Reading:
A quadriceps tendon tear or rupture is a traumatic lower limb and joint injury that occurs when there is heavy loading on the leg, causing forced contraction of the quadriceps while the foot is planted and the knee is partially bent. These tears most commonly happen at the osteotendinous junction between the tendon and the superior pole of the patella. Quadriceps tendon ruptures are more common than patellar tendon ruptures.
When a quadriceps tendon tear occurs, the patient usually experiences a tearing sensation and immediate pain. They will then typically complain of pain around the knee and over the tendon. Clinically, there will often be a knee effusion and weakness or inability to actively extend the knee.
In cases of complete quadriceps tears, the patella will be displaced distally, resulting in a low lying patella or patella infera, also known as patella baja. Radiological measurements, such as the Insall-Salvati ratio, can be used to measure patella height. The Insall-Salvati ratio is calculated by dividing the patellar tendon length by the patellar length. A normal ratio is between 0.8 to 1.2, while a low lying patella (patella baja) is less than 0.8 and a high lying patella (patella alta) is greater than 1.2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals that she has normocytic anemia.
Which of the following is the LEAST probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Mixed iron and folate deficiency
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).
On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.
Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.
It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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