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Question 1
Correct
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You have been requested to visit a 42-year-old woman who has a medical history of multiple sclerosis and is experiencing painful spasticity in both arms. Despite trying various medications such as baclofen, gabapentin, and amitriptyline, none have been successful in managing her symptoms. Recently, it has been suggested by the multiple sclerosis society that cannabis extract spray can effectively treat spasticity and pain. The patient is interested in starting this treatment.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Discuss with the neurologist as you are unable to prescribe this as a GP
Explanation:To prescribe unlicensed cannabis-based products, doctors must be on the General Medical Council Specialist Register and should only do so for disorders within their specialty with clear evidence or published guidelines. As a GP, you are unable to prescribe this for spasticity in multiple sclerosis. It is recommended to discuss with a neurology consultant who would be an appropriate doctor to prescribe this.
Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products
Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.
Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.
Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.
It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.
Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her parents. They are concerned about uncharacteristic behaviour since she left home to attend university. They ask whether she could have developed schizophrenia.
Which of the following symptoms in this patient would be most concerning for schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Low mood
Correct Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Understanding Schneider’s First-Rank Symptoms in Schizophrenia
Schneider’s first-rank symptoms are a set of symptoms that are highly indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are rare in other psychotic illnesses, making them a key diagnostic tool for identifying schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms include auditory hallucinations, such as hearing one’s own thoughts echoed or hearing voices referring to oneself in the third person. Other symptoms include thought removal, insertion, and interruption, thought broadcasting, somatic hallucinations, delusional perception, and feelings, thoughts, or actions being under external control.
In addition to the first-rank symptoms, there are also second-rank symptoms that can be present in schizophrenia. These include other disorders of perception, sudden delusional ideas, perplexity, low or euphoric mood changes, and feelings of emotional impoverishment. Schneider believed that even in the absence of first-rank symptoms, a diagnosis of schizophrenia could be made based on second-rank symptoms and a typical clinical appearance.
One unique symptom of schizophrenia is delusional perception, which occurs in two stages. First, the individual experiences a normal perception, such as seeing traffic lights turn red. Then, they interpret this perception in a delusional way, such as believing that the red traffic lights are a sign that they are the devil and someone is trying to kill them.
It’s important to note that cognitive impairment is a feature of dementia, not schizophrenia. Additionally, hyperactivity is more commonly associated with mania than schizophrenia. Understanding the specific symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly the first-rank symptoms, can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presented to A&E with malaise and fever. She was given advice about managing her symptoms and sent home. Unfortunately, the girl's condition deteriorated whilst at home and she had a cardiac arrest. Despite attempts by her family to resuscitate her, she sadly died.
You later discover that she had pneumococcal meningitis. Her past medical history reveals that she should have been immunised against pneumococcus.
As per the NHS vaccination programme, which of the following patient populations should receive the pneumococcus vaccine?Your Answer: Coeliac Disease
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Vaccination Recommendations for Specific Patient Groups
According to The Green Book, certain patient groups have specific vaccination recommendations. For example, individuals with coeliac disease and absent or dysfunctional spleens should be fully vaccinated according to the national schedule, with a particular emphasis on vaccination against pneumococcal infection and annual influenza vaccine. Patients with immune suppression due to infections such as HIV, those receiving chemotherapy or oral steroids, and those with cochlear implants may also have increased risks of contracting bacterial infections and should be vaccinated accordingly. However, patients with thyroid disease alone or those who have received a contraceptive implant are not listed on the NHS vaccination schedule. Pregnant patients are advised to wait until after giving birth to receive the pneumococcal vaccine, unless the benefits outweigh the risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these recommendations for routine immunisation and to consider them in the context of specific patient populations. This knowledge can also be useful for conducting audits in practice, such as assessing the pneumococcal vaccination rates among patients with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in his vision over the past month. He reports difficulty reading small print and noticing that straight lines appear distorted. Additionally, he has noticed a grey spot in the center of his vision. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes. Ophthalmoscopy reveals choroidal neovascularization. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:If an individual experiences a combination of age, gradual loss of vision, blurring of small words, and straight lines appearing ‘curvy’, it is important to consider the possibility of age-related macular degeneration. It is possible for visual acuity to remain normal in this case. Wet age-related macular degeneration is characterized by neovascularization.
Acute closed angle glaucoma is typically accompanied by pain, headache, red eye, and the classic symptom of ‘halos around objects’. Retinal artery occlusion is an acute event that usually results in dense central visual loss (if the central retinal artery is occluded) or a sectional visual field defect (if a branch retinal artery is occluded). Diabetic retinopathy is typically seen in individuals with a known diagnosis of diabetes. They may be asymptomatic for a significant period before experiencing symptoms such as floaters, blurring, and distortion. A macular hole presents similarly to age-related macular degeneration, with slow onset central visual loss and sometimes distortion. However, ophthalmoscopy would reveal a well-defined round or oval lesion in the macula with yellow deposits at the base. Choroidal neovascularization is not a characteristic symptom in the scenario described.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has recently been seen by the dermatologists.
She had some scalp scrapings and hair samples sent to the laboratory for analysis following a clinical diagnosis of tinea capitis. The laboratory results confirmed the diagnosis of tinea capitis and the dermatologists faxed through a letter asking you to prescribe griseofulvin suspension at a dose of 12 mg/kg once daily.
The child weighs 20 kg. Griseofulvin suspension is dispensed at a concentration of 125 mg/5 ml.
What is the correct dosage of griseofulvin in millilitres to prescribe?Your Answer: 18 ml
Correct Answer: 9 ml
Explanation:Calculation of Griseofulvin Dosage
When calculating the dosage of Griseofulvin for a patient, it is important to consider their weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. For example, if a patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 15 mg/kg OD, then the total dosage would be 225 mg.
Griseofulvin is available in a concentration of 125 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 25 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, divide the total dosage (225 mg) by the concentration (25 mg/ml), which equals 9 ml. Therefore, the correct dosage for this patient would be 9 ml OD. It is important to carefully calculate and administer the correct dosage to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy comes to you complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right ear after recently having an ear infection. During examination, you notice a perforated eardrum. He has a soccer game next week and is eager to play. What advice would you give him regarding this situation?
Your Answer: She can swim as long as she uses antibiotic ear drops
Correct Answer: Avoid swimming until the perforation is completely healed
Explanation:It is recommended to refrain from swimming until a perforated tympanic membrane has fully healed, which typically takes longer than a week. Using a swimming cap may not offer adequate protection. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is an infection present, and oral antibiotics are preferred over drops.
Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management
A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.
In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.
If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A two-year-old girl is presented to the clinic by her mother due to complaints of abdominal pain for the past two weeks. She has also been experiencing a decreased appetite and difficulty with bowel movements. During the physical examination, a lump is palpable on the right side of her abdomen, although her abdomen is soft and non-tender.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Very urgent referral to paediatrics
Explanation:If a child has a noticeable mass in their abdomen or an unexplained enlargement of an abdominal organ, it is crucial to refer them for specialist assessment for neuroblastoma and Wilms’ tumour within 48 hours. This referral should be made urgently and not delayed by arranging imaging through general practice. Prescribing Movicol or Nitrofurantoin would not be appropriate as they do not address the underlying issue. Any child with a palpable abdominal mass should be referred to paediatrics for review as soon as possible.
Understanding Neuroblastoma in Children
Neuroblastoma is a type of cancer that affects children and is responsible for 7-8% of childhood malignancies. It develops from neural crest tissue found in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system. Typically, the disease is diagnosed in children around 20 months old and presents with a range of symptoms, including abdominal mass, weight loss, bone pain, and hepatomegaly. In some cases, paraplegia and proptosis may also occur.
To diagnose neuroblastoma, doctors will typically look for raised levels of urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA). Additionally, calcification may be visible on an abdominal x-ray, and a biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Overall, neuroblastoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic process, parents and caregivers can work with healthcare providers to ensure that children receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A fax from psychiatry regarding a 35-year-old man has been received, requesting that the patient be initiated on quetiapine. The patient has no significant medical history but has been referred due to experiencing psychotic symptoms. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, it is noted that a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and fasting blood glucose were conducted in the past two weeks after the patient complained of constant fatigue. What other tests should be performed as a baseline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting lipids, weight, blood pressure, prolactin
Explanation:While psychiatrists typically start antipsychotic treatment, it is not unusual for GPs to take over prescribing for stable patients or initiate therapy based on a recommendation from a psychiatrist. As such, it is important for us to have a fundamental understanding of the monitoring necessary for safe prescribing. Additionally, a cardiovascular risk assessment and ECG may be necessary depending on the patient’s medical history.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with painless vaginal bleeding for one month. She had her last period three years ago. What is a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:Polycystic ovarian syndrome is among the risk factors for endometrial cancer.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Symptoms of endometrial cancer include postmenopausal bleeding, which is usually slight and intermittent at first before becoming heavier, and changes in intermenstrual bleeding for premenopausal women. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness of less than 4 mm. Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for diagnosis. Treatment for localized disease typically involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may require postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy may be used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with oesophageal cancer is having difficulties with taking regular oral morphine medications. After consulting with the oncology team, it is decided to switch him to transdermal fentanyl patches. He is currently taking 50 mg twice daily of modified-release oral morphine which has been effectively managing his pain. You prescribe a fentanyl '25' patch which provides the same level of pain relief. What instructions do you give the patient when starting to use the patches?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue to use the oral modified-release morphine for 72 hours following patch initiation
Explanation:Considerations for Drug Delivery in Palliative Care
Drug delivery is a crucial aspect to consider in palliative care, as patients may have difficulties with certain formulations or preparations. For instance, some patients may have trouble swallowing medication due to dysphagia, while others may be intolerant to specific preparations. In such cases, transdermal fentanyl and buprenorphine can be used as alternatives.
However, it’s important to note that transdermal preparations may not be suitable for patients who require treatment for acute pain or those with variable pain relief needs. This is because the route of administration affects the pharmacokinetics, resulting in a delay in achieving a steady state.
When switching from oral morphine preparations to transdermal fentanyl, the British National Formulary (BNF) provides a section on equivalent doses. For example, 60 mg daily of oral morphine equates to the fentanyl ’25’ patch. However, if the opioid problem is hyperalgesia, it’s recommended to cut the dose of the new opioid by one quarter to one half of the equivalent dose.
It’s essential to consult the palliative care section in the BNF for further details on other dose equivalencies. Fentanyl patches should be applied every 72 hours, and patients may require extra analgesia for up to 24 hours after the patch is started due to its slow onset of action. Doses of the patch can be adjusted at 72-hour intervals.
If a patient is taking a long-acting 12-hourly morphine, the patch should be applied when the last dose is given. On the other hand, if a patient is taking a short-acting morphine, it should be continued four hourly for the first 12 hours of patch use. By considering these drug delivery factors, healthcare professionals can provide effective pain relief for patients in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and mesalazine use presents with a fever and sore throat lasting for a week. What is the primary investigation that should be conducted initially?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:If a patient is taking aminosalicylates, they may experience various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a full blood count promptly if the patient presents with symptoms such as fever, sore throat, fatigue, or bleeding gums.
While C-reactive protein may be a part of the overall management plan, it is not the most critical initial investigation and is unlikely to alter the management plan.
Although the monospot test for glandular fever may be useful if glandular fever is suspected, it is not the primary investigation that needs to be conducted urgently.
Similarly, while a throat swab may be necessary as part of the overall management plan, it is not the most crucial initial investigation that needs to be performed urgently.
Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.
Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A visit is requested for a 49-year-old man with Huntington’s dementia who is unwell, with a 3-month history of progressive weight loss, lethargy and cough. The patient made an advance decision to refuse treatment (ADRT) nine years ago when he was diagnosed with Huntington’s, refusing hospital treatment. Chest X-rays and intravenous antibiotics are included as treatments he would refuse in his ADRT. He is now uncommunicative, but his sister who is his next of kin is present and says that the advance directive is not valid as he was depressed and emotional when he made it and begs for acute admission as she feels her brother is uncomfortable and should not be left like this.
What is the most appropriate course of action to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient to the community palliative care team
Explanation:Understanding the Importance of Advanced Decisions in Medical Care
When a patient loses capacity to make decisions about their medical care, it is important to have a plan in place to guide decision-making. One such plan is an Advanced Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT), which is a legal document that sets out a patient’s wishes for medical treatment in the event that they are unable to make decisions for themselves.
It is important to note that an ADRT is legally binding and cannot be overruled. This means that healthcare professionals must respect the patient’s wishes as set out in the ADRT, even if family members or others disagree with those wishes.
In cases where there is doubt over the validity of an ADRT or where there is conflict between family members, it may be helpful to seek advice from a medical defence union or an Independent Medical Capacity Advocate (IMCA). However, ultimately, the patient’s wishes as set out in the ADRT must be the guiding principle in decision-making.
By understanding the importance of advanced decisions in medical care, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the care they want and deserve, even when they are no longer able to make decisions for themselves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Her full blood count and liver function tests are being monitored. What other aspects of her treatment should be monitored?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood pressure
Explanation:Hypertension can be a possible side effect of taking leflunomide.
Leflunomide: A DMARD for Rheumatoid Arthritis
Leflunomide is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. It is important to note that this medication has a very long half-life, which means that its teratogenic potential should be taken into consideration. As such, it is contraindicated in pregnant women, and effective contraception is essential during treatment and for at least two years after treatment in women, and at least three months after treatment in men. Caution should also be exercised in patients with pre-existing lung and liver disease.
Like any medication, leflunomide can cause adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include gastrointestinal issues such as diarrhea, hypertension, weight loss or anorexia, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and pneumonitis. To monitor for any potential complications, patients taking leflunomide should have their full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and blood pressure checked regularly.
If a patient needs to stop taking leflunomide, it is important to note that the medication has a very long wash-out period of up to a year. To help speed up the process, co-administration of cholestyramine may be necessary. Overall, leflunomide can be an effective treatment option for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman is brought to the practice by her mother who is extremely concerned.
For the past three months, she has been low in mood and over the last three weeks is increasingly withdrawn. She has stopped going to work and her evening fitness classes, has lost weight and has eaten nothing for two days. She is not sleeping and is unable to concentrate for any length of time. She had expressed feelings of guilt and hopelessness to her mother but is now barely speaking at all.
She is usually bright and cheerful. Her father has a history of severe depression. Her engagement was broken off about four months ago. She doesn't have any children.
How should this situation be managed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a counsellor for CBT
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Severe Depression
This patient is experiencing severe depression, with probable psychomotor retardation and an inability to function normally. There is also a family history of severe depression, putting her at risk of harm through self-neglect. Primary care is not equipped to manage this situation adequately, and urgent assessment and probable inpatient treatment are necessary.
In cases where there is a risk to life, severe self-neglect, severe symptoms, or severe impairment, urgent referral is required. Taking the patient to the Emergency department may cause unnecessary delays, and the best course of action is to refer directly to psychiatry. By doing so, the patient can receive the specialist input needed for treatment and further management. It is crucial to act quickly in situations like this to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old HGV driver presents to you seeking sickness certification. He was recently hospitalized after experiencing a loss of consciousness. During his inpatient stay, he was diagnosed with a single isolated seizure, but no clear underlying cause was identified. He has not been prescribed any anti-seizure medication and has been referred to a neurologist for further evaluation, which is currently pending. He has not driven since the seizure and plans to inform the DVLA. He is uncertain about the duration of time he will need to abstain from driving HGVs and seeks your advice.
What advice should you provide him regarding the potential impact on his ability to operate an HGV?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He must cease driving for 6 months
Explanation:Driving Regulations for Group 2 Drivers
There are stricter driving regulations for group 2 drivers, which include HGV drivers. In the event of a first unprovoked seizure, group 1 drivers typically have their driving privileges suspended for 6 months (or 12 months if there is an underlying issue that may increase seizure risk). However, group 2 drivers must cease driving for 5 years. This extended period of time can have a significant impact on employment. It is important to have a thorough understanding of the regulations for group 2 drivers, particularly for common medical conditions such as seizures/epilepsy, diabetes, and cerebrovascular disease. As a result, you may be asked to provide advice on the impact of these conditions on driving for those with a group 2 license.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 16
Incorrect
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During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 2 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused the urinary retention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Urinary retention may be caused by tricyclic antidepressants, particularly Amitriptyline, due to its anticholinergic effects. This can result in symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, mydriasis, and urinary retention. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are not typically associated with these side effects, with dry mouth and urinary retention being rare occurrences. Unlike Amitriptyline, Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, doesn’t have anticholinergic effects.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with painless macroscopic haematuria. He works in an industrial paint plant. He is normally fit and well and takes no regular medications. He is a smoker.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the bladder
Explanation:Common Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview
Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. It can be a sign of a variety of conditions, ranging from benign to potentially life-threatening. Here, we will discuss some of the common causes of haematuria.
Carcinoma of the bladder is a type of cancer that commonly presents with painless haematuria in those over the age of 60. Occupational exposure to aromatic amines is a risk factor for this condition.
Renal-cell carcinoma is another type of cancer that can cause haematuria. It is associated with smoking and obesity and typically presents with vague symptoms such as fatigue or weight loss.
Membranous nephropathy is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome, but it is rarely associated with haematuria.
Renal stones can cause painful haematuria, along with other symptoms such as loin pain, dysuria, and nausea.
Urinary tract infections can also cause haematuria, but they are typically associated with urinary frequency, dysuria, and abdominal pain.
It is important to note that haematuria should always be evaluated by a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment. During the consultation, she is advised to visit her GP for vaccination but cannot recall which vaccines were recommended. She has received all her childhood and school immunizations but has not had any vaccinations since becoming pregnant.
What vaccines should be offered to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pertussis and influenza vaccine
Explanation:Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should receive both influenza and pertussis vaccines. The pertussis vaccine is typically part of the diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccination and is important for preventing severe illness and death in newborns. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to you with dizziness, fatigue and shortness of breath. She has a history of asthma for which she takes salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler and salbutamol PRN. Most recently she was started on allopurinol tablets for gout. You also increased her hypertension medication at her last appointment.
On examination her BP is 140/80 mmHg, she is tachycardic with a heart rate of around 110.
Investigations show:
Hb 110 g/L (120 - 160)
WCC 6.2 ×109/L (4 - 11)
PLT 200 ×109/L (150 - 400)
Na 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Cr 140 µmol/L (60 - 110)
ECG shows sinus tachycardia, no acute changes.
Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Theophylline Toxicity and Drug Interactions
The scenario presented here is typical of theophylline toxicity, with symptoms such as headaches, nausea and vomiting, palpitations, and hypokalaemia. However, the cause of this toxicity is due to an increase in theophylline levels caused by allopurinol. Other drugs that can increase theophylline levels include carbimazole, cimetidine, erythromycin, and many others. It is important to note that calcium channel blockers may also increase theophylline levels, but not as much as allopurinol. Therefore, it is crucial to reduce theophylline dose when starting allopurinol. Questions about drug safety and significant interactions are common in the AKT exam, so it is essential to stay updated on important drug safety notifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with progressively worsening shortness of breath and a daily morning cough productive of off-white phlegm. He feels intermittently wheezy. He has smoked 20 cigarettes a day and has done so since the age of 20.
A chest x ray shows hyperinflated lung fields and spirometry demonstrates an obstructive picture with a forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) of 50% of predicted. He takes no regular medication and has no other known medical problems.
His mother also had chest problems and died after she developed liver failure. Looking at some recent blood tests you can see he has abnormalities of his liver function.
Which of the following blood investigations is most likely to yield useful diagnostic information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Consideration of Alpha 1-Antitrypsin Deficiency in a Young Smoker with COPD
This patient’s young age, symptoms, chest x-ray findings, and spirometry results suggest the possibility of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can cause pulmonary disease and liver disease. As a smoker, this patient is at increased risk for COPD, but the early onset of the disease raises suspicion for an underlying genetic cause. Additionally, the family history supports the consideration of alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
To confirm the diagnosis, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin levels would be the most appropriate blood investigation. Other blood tests, such as ACE levels for sarcoidosis, copper and ceruloplasmin levels for Wilson’s disease, ferritin levels for hemochromatosis, and rheumatoid factor for rheumatoid arthritis, are not likely to be helpful in this case.
It is important to consider alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency in young patients with COPD, especially those with a family history of the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further lung and liver damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You want to advise an elderly patient on a new treatment for angina; she brought a newspaper cutting about it and you have looked up the original paper.
The paper discusses the benefit of the new treatment in terms of number needed to treat (NNT).
What is the meaning of the term number needed to treat for a drug therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The number of patients that need to be treated with a therapy for one to benefit
Explanation:Understanding NNT: A Measure of Treatment Effectiveness
The NNT, or Number Needed to Treat, is a measure of treatment effectiveness that indicates the number of patients who need to be treated over a certain period of time in order for one patient to benefit from the treatment. A low NNT indicates a more effective treatment, as fewer patients need to be treated for one to benefit.
In other words, the NNT helps healthcare professionals and researchers understand the impact of a treatment on a group of patients. It is a useful tool for evaluating the effectiveness of different treatments and comparing their benefits and risks. By calculating the NNT, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about which treatments to recommend to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic after four weeks of starting fluoxetine treatment for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior history of taking antidepressants and has no other medical conditions. During the assessment, she denies any suicidal thoughts and has good support from her partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She reports no adverse effects from fluoxetine but has heard positive feedback about St John's Wort from a friend. What would be the most appropriate action to take for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Change to a tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs
When a patient has been taking a Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.
There are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, it is important to note that switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics requires great caution as it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.
Although there is some evidence of the benefit of St John’s Wort, it is not recommended that doctors prescribe or advocate its use due to the lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and antiepileptics.
For moderate depression, Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication. It is important to monitor the patient’s response to treatment and adjust accordingly to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old worker in a care home returns from a camping trip with diarrhoea. A stool specimen is sent which is positive for Campylobacter.
Select the single correct statement regarding management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should stay off work until 48 hours after the diarrhoea has settled
Explanation:Campylobacter: Causes, Management, and Prevention
Campylobacter is the most commonly reported bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in England and Wales. The disease is usually contracted from animals farmed for meat and poultry, but person-to-person transmission can also occur due to poor personal hygiene. The primary management approach is rehydration. Infected healthcare workers or food handlers should not work, and antibiotics may be prescribed to reduce the duration of excretion and manage severe or prolonged illness, especially in pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals. Erythromycin and azithromycin are the most effective antibiotics for treating Campylobacter. Anti-motility drugs should not be used routinely, but may be considered for adults in special circumstances. The disease is typically self-limiting, and cultures are rarely positive after two weeks. For work or school, individuals should be excluded for 48 hours from the last episode of diarrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You encounter a 49-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes by your GP colleague. The patient has been prescribed gliclazide and has experienced one instance of mild hypoglycaemia since commencing this medication. The patient inquires about driving his vehicle. What guidance should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Must contact DVLA if has two episodes of severe hypoglycaemia in 12 months
Explanation:If a Group 1 driver with diabetes is taking oral medication that may cause hypoglycemia, they do not need to inform the DVLA as long as they are being regularly monitored and have not experienced more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year. However, Group 2 drivers must notify the DVLA and adhere to stricter guidelines. If they have had even one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year, they will not be permitted to drive. Both groups must inform the DVLA if they experience any impairment in their ability to detect hypoglycemia.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. What characteristic indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate 26/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their usual best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack.
According to BTS guidance, pulsus paradoxus is not an adequate indicator of the severity of an acute asthma attack and should not be used. A pulse of 101/min would not be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater. However, a respiratory rate of 26/min is clearly above the threshold advised by BTS and would be a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, then the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A physician needs a Home Office license to prescribe which of the following controlled substances to a minor drug addict?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pethidine
Explanation:Prescribing Controlled Drugs to Addicts
A doctor must obtain a Home Office licence to prescribe diamorphine, dipipanone, and cocaine to addicts. These drugs are classified as class A drugs under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971, which means they are highly addictive and subject to strict control to prevent illegal misuse. However, non-addicts can receive these drugs without a licence if it is clinically appropriate.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 outlines the authorised individuals who can supply and possess controlled drugs. It is important to note that prescribing these drugs to addicts requires a special licence due to the potential for misuse and addiction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes in for a medication review. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, and heart failure. Which of the following medications should be prescribed using brand names only?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modified-release verapamil
Explanation:To ensure effective symptom control, it is important to prescribe modified release calcium channel blockers by their specific brand names, as their release characteristics can vary. Therefore, it is necessary to maintain consistency in the brand prescribed.
Prescribing Guidance for Healthcare Professionals
Prescribing medication is a crucial aspect of healthcare practice, and it is essential to follow good practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidance on prescribing medication, including the recommendation to prescribe drugs by their generic name, except for specific preparations where the clinical effect may differ. It is also important to avoid unnecessary decimal points when writing numbers, such as prescribing 250 ml instead of 0.25 l. Additionally, it is a legal requirement to specify the age of children under 12 on their prescription.
However, there are certain drugs that should be prescribed by their brand name, including modified release calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics, ciclosporin and tacrolimus, mesalazine, lithium, aminophylline and theophylline, methylphenidate, CFC-free formulations of beclomethasone, and dry powder inhaler devices. By following these prescribing guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective medication management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You visit Max, an 85-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease, hip osteoarthritis, and prostate cancer. He claims to be doing well, but his wife is worried because he has been unable to walk today. Upon examination while he is lying on his couch, you observe that he has decreased sensation on both sides and reduced strength (3/5 in both hips). There are no apparent injuries or traumas. He doesn't have any bowel or bladder issues. What is the proper course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit immediately
Explanation:The patient’s history is concerning for suspected metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) due to the bilateral loss of power and inability to walk. It is important to consider common cancers that typically spread to the bone, such as prostate, breast, lung, kidney, and thyroid cancers.
According to NICE guidance, urgent discussion with the local MSCC coordinator is necessary within 24 hours if a patient with a history of cancer experiences pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe and unrelenting lower spinal pain, spinal pain worsened by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain that prevents sleep. Immediate discussion with the local MSCC coordinator is necessary if a patient with known cancer experiences neurological symptoms such as radicular pain, limb weakness, difficulty walking, sensory loss, or bladder or bowel dysfunction, or neurological signs of spinal cord or cauda equina compression.
It is important to note that MSCC can be the initial presentation of cancer, so it should be considered as a differential diagnosis when seeing all patients, even if there is no previous history of cancer.
Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.
Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) detected during routine screening. He is asymptomatic and shows no signs of liver disease upon examination. Further blood tests reveal a positive hepatitis B envelope-antigen (HBeAg) result.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Current active hepatitis B infection
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different stages of the disease, and various tests can help diagnose and monitor it.
Active Hepatitis B Infection:
The presence of HBeAg in the blood indicates ongoing viral replication and is associated with large quantities of HBV DNA. Patients who have not developed anti-HBeAb are highly infectious and at greater risk of progressing to chronic liver disease.Chronic Hepatitis B in an Inactive State:
Patients in the inactive carrier state have cleared HBeAg and have low levels of HBV DNA. However, they will still test positive for surface antigen.Cirrhosis of the Liver:
Hepatitis B patients are at risk of developing cirrhosis, which is diagnosed clinically, on ultrasound, and with liver biopsy.Hepatitis E:
Hepatitis E is a different viral infection spread via the faecal-oral route and is tested for with hepatitis E antibodies.Previous Hepatitis B Vaccination:
Patients who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B will show antibodies to the surface antibody (anti-HBsAb) only. This doesn’t account for deranged LFTs.Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32 year old woman comes to your clinic 3 weeks after giving birth to a healthy baby girl. She is worried that her baby is not breastfeeding properly, unlike her previous two children. The baby seems to struggle with latching on and the mother experiences pain during attachment. You suspect that the baby may have tongue-tie. What is true about tongue-tie?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Division of the tongue-tie is usually performed without anaesthesia
Explanation:Understanding Tongue-Tie
Tongue-tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a congenital condition that is characterized by a short, thick lingual frenulum that restricts the movement of the tongue. The severity of the condition varies, with some cases being mild and others more severe. In mild cases, the tongue is only bound by a thin mucous membrane, while in more severe cases, the tongue is tethered to the floor of the mouth.
While some cases of tongue-tie are asymptomatic and can be managed with simple interventions such as breastfeeding advice and tongue exercises, others can cause significant problems with breastfeeding, speech, and oral hygiene. A tethered tongue can prevent the tongue from contacting the anterior palate, which can lead to open bite deformity and mandibular prognathism.
To prevent future problems with speech, swallowing, and feeding, many clinicians advocate for early surgical division of the lingual frenulum. This procedure, known as frenotomy, involves using sharp, blunt-ended scissors to divide the frenulum. In infants, the procedure is usually performed without anesthesia, although local anesthesia may be used in some cases. In older infants and children, general anesthesia is typically required.
Overall, understanding tongue-tie and its potential consequences is important for parents and healthcare providers alike. Early intervention can help prevent future problems and ensure that children are able to breastfeed, speak, and eat properly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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