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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with a painful red right...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with a painful red right eye and reduced visual acuity. He complains of watery eyes and photophobia. Upon examination, inflammatory cells are found in the anterior chamber. The patient is typically healthy, but has been receiving treatment from the Physiotherapy Team for back pain. What investigation would be most useful in identifying the underlying cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor

      Correct Answer: MRI pelvis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Workup of Anterior Uveitis with Back Pain

      Anterior uveitis is a condition characterized by an acutely red painful eye with blurred vision, eye watering, and photophobia. In young men, it is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, which presents with lower back pain. Definitive diagnosis requires evidence of sacroiliitis, which can take years to show up on plain X-rays. However, changes can be seen earlier on MRI of the sacroiliac joints. Patients may also have raised ESR, normochromic anemia, and mildly raised alkaline phosphatase. HLA-B27 may also be raised.

      An ESR test may be useful as part of the workup, but it would not help determine the specific underlying cause of the symptoms. Increased intraocular pressure is seen in patients with glaucoma, which may present with an acutely painful red eye, but it would not explain the presence of inflammatory cells or back pain. An MRI brain may be used in the workup of optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. However, multiple sclerosis does not explain the back pain. Positive rheumatoid factor would indicate an underlying diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, which can be associated with scleritis but not uveitis. Back pain is also less likely in rheumatoid arthritis, as it typically affects the smaller joints first and would be less common in someone of this age.

      Therefore, an MRI of the pelvis is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient with anterior uveitis and back pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5-year-old girl is referred to the optometrist by her GP due to...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is referred to the optometrist by her GP due to her mother's concern about a squint. The optometrist diagnoses her with exotropia and offers treatment options, including intermittent eye patching. However, before any treatment can be started, the family moves to a different area and misses their follow-up appointments. The mother does not seek further attention for her daughter's exotropia.

      What potential future health risks may this child be more susceptible to due to the lack of treatment for her exotropia?

      Your Answer: Amblyopia

      Explanation:

      If childhood squints are not corrected, it may result in amblyopia, also known as ‘lazy eye’. This condition is more likely to occur if the child has exotropia, where one eye deviates outward. However, it can be treated with patching. There is no increased risk of developing esotropia, hypermetropia, hypertropia, or hypotropia due to non-compliance with exotropia treatment, as these are different forms of squint.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes in with redness in his eye, accompanied by mild sensitivity to light and slight tearing. He denies any discomfort or soreness, and his vision remains unaffected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Episcleritis is the only cause of red eye that is typically not accompanied by pain. Other causes listed are associated with pain, as well as blurred or decreased vision. While episcleritis may cause mild tenderness, it is generally not painful and can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories or steroids if necessary.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.4
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen left eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements.
      On examination, visual acuity is 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The periorbital area of the left eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the left eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the left. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the left eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows some opacities in the ethmoid sinuses.
      Vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 bpm
      Respiratory rate 18 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 98% on air
      Temperature 37.9 °C
      What is the definitive treatment for this eye problem?

      Your Answer: Cefuroxime and metronidazole IV

      Correct Answer: Drainage of the ethmoid sinuses

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ethmoidal Sinusitis and Orbital Cellulitis

      Ethmoidal sinusitis is a common cause of orbital cellulitis, which requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. The most effective treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis is surgical drainage of the sinuses to remove the pus and debris. Antibiotics are also necessary to aid recovery, but they should be administered after the drainage procedure.

      While there are several antibiotics that can be used to treat orbital cellulitis, such as cefuroxime, metronidazole, co-amoxiclav, and Tazocin®, they are not sufficient to address the underlying cause of the condition. Therefore, drainage of the ethmoid sinuses is the definitive treatment for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis.

      In summary, the treatment options for ethmoidal sinusitis and orbital cellulitis include surgical drainage of the sinuses followed by antibiotics. Antibiotics alone are not enough to treat the condition, and the choice of antibiotic may vary depending on the patient’s age and other factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his left eye. He has a medical history of recurring sinusitis and ankylosing spondylitis. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness around the left eye, and there is discomfort when testing eye movements. The pupils appear normal. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral steroids

      Correct Answer: IV antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for patients with orbital cellulitis is admission to the hospital for IV antibiotics. This is due to the potential risk of cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. The symptoms of ocular pain, pain on eye movements, redness, and swelling around the eye suggest this condition. IV acetazolamide, oral antibiotics, and oral steroids are not suitable treatments for orbital cellulitis as they are intended for different conditions.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      507.7
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of intense pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of intense pain in his left eye, particularly when exposed to light, and blurred vision. He has a medical history of Crohn's disease, which is being managed with azathioprine. Upon examination, there is conjunctival injection at the cornea-sclera junction, increased tearing, and a smaller pupil in the left eye compared to the right. What is the necessary treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pilocarpine and β-blocker drops

      Correct Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic drops

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment for anterior uveitis is a combination of steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops. This patient’s history of Crohn’s disease increases their risk of developing acute uveitis. Steroid drops are necessary to reduce inflammation, while cycloplegic drops prevent adhesions between the lens and iris and relieve spasms of the ciliary body. Antibiotic drops are not indicated for anterior uveitis, as they are used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis. Antihistamine drops are used for allergic conjunctivitis, topical NSAID drops for episcleritis, and pilocarpine and β-blocker drops for acute closed angle glaucoma.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      105
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of painful reduction in vision in her left eye. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36 with reduced color vision. Eye movements are normal, but the pain worsens. The swinging torch test reveals left pupil dilation when the torch light swings from the right eye to the left. Dilated fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in her left eye.

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Interferon beta

      Correct Answer: Intravenous methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Optic Neuritis in Multiple Sclerosis Patients

      Optic neuritis is a common symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) and can cause vision loss or pain. While the condition may improve on its own, treatment with steroids is often recommended. Intravenous methylprednisolone is the preferred route of administration for this medication, although it can cause side effects such as mood changes and weight gain.

      Glatiramer acetate and interferon beta are first-line treatments for MS, but are not typically used for isolated episodes of optic neuritis. Natalizumab is a second-line treatment option for MS, but may not be appropriate for all patients.

      It is important to note that oral prednisolone alone is not recommended for optic neuritis in MS patients due to an increased risk of recurrence. Overall, treatment options for optic neuritis in MS patients should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.9
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) with a complaint of redness, grittiness, and stickiness in both eyes for the past 5 days. She also reports experiencing whitish-yellow discharge on her lids, particularly in the morning. Upon examination, her vision is 6/6 in both eyes, and there is diffuse injection of the conjunctivae with mild chemosis. The cornea shows no fluorescein uptake. What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer: Topical steroid eye drops

      Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bacterial Conjunctivitis in Pregnant Women

      Bacterial conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that can occur during pregnancy. While topical antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment, certain options should be avoided or used with caution in pregnant women. Here are the treatment options for bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant women:

      Topical Fusidic Acid Eye Drops: These eye drops are typically a second-line choice for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but they are often the first-line treatment for pregnant women.

      Topical Steroid Eye Drops: These eye drops are not recommended for bacterial conjunctivitis, especially in pregnant women.

      Artificial Tears: While artificial tears can provide relief for dry eyes, they are not useful in treating bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Eye Shield: An eye shield is not necessary for bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Topical Chloramphenicol Eye Drops: Topical antibiotics are effective in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, but chloramphenicol should be avoided in pregnant women unless it is essential. The British National Formulary recommends avoiding topical chloramphenicol due to the risk of neonatal grey-baby syndrome with oral use in the third trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      111.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male with dry age-related macular degeneration is evaluated. Regrettably, his vision has worsened in the last six months. He has never smoked and is currently using antioxidant supplements. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Intravitreal ranibizumab

      Correct Answer: Explain no other medical therapies currently available

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      131.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old woman presented with a complaint of gradual loss of vision in...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presented with a complaint of gradual loss of vision in her right eye over the past 3 days. She reported a sensation of a 'curtain' coming from the right inferotemporal side towards the centre, along with flashes of lights at the right inferotemporal side and an increase in the number of floaters in her right eye. Upon examination, her vision in the right eye was measured at 6/18, while her left eye was 6/6. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Superonasal retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Different Locations of Retinal Detachment and their Corresponding Symptoms

      Retinal detachment can occur in different locations of the retina, and the symptoms experienced by the patient depend on the location of the detachment. For instance, a superonasal retinal detachment will cause a curtain-like vision from the right inferotemporal side towards the center, along with flashes at the right inferotemporal side. However, it is more common for retinal detachment to start at the upper temporal quadrant of the retina.

      On the other hand, an inferonasal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superotemporal side, while an inferior retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superior side. Similarly, an inferotemporal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the superonasal side, and a superotemporal retinal detachment will cause symptoms at the inferonasal side.

      Therefore, understanding the location of the retinal detachment is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition. Patients experiencing any of these symptoms should seek immediate medical attention to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      254
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right eye with photophobia for the past 2 days. He usually wears contact lenses but has been using glasses since the onset of pain. The patient has a medical history of allergic rhinitis and takes cetirizine daily.

      During the examination, the doctor observes dilated conjunctival and episcleral vessels, mild eyelid swelling, and increased tearing in the right eye. The left eye appears normal, and the patient's corrected visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe topical antihistamine drops and advise the patient to avoid contact lenses for the duration of treatment

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to eye casualty

      Explanation:

      If a person wearing contact lenses experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out the possibility of microbial keratitis.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of itching and watery discharge from both eyes.
      On examination, the vision is 6/9 in both eyes. Both pupils are equally reactive to light. The conjunctivae are both chemosed with mild diffuse injection. The eyelids are slightly oedematous.
      Her past medical history includes eczema. Her vital observations are as follows:
      Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 65 bpm
      Respiratory rate 12
      Temperature 36.7 °C
      Oxygen saturation 99% on air
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Allergic conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Different Types of Eye Infections: A Case Study

      Upon examination of a patient with eye symptoms, it was determined that the presentation pointed towards the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis. This was due to the patient’s history of itchiness, watery discharge, slightly swollen eyelids, and atopy. It was ruled out that the patient had bacterial conjunctivitis, as it typically presents with more purulent discharges bilaterally. Orbital cellulitis was also ruled out, as the eyelids and orbit would be very swollen and red with restriction and pain in eye movements, and the vital observations were normal. Preseptal cellulitis can present with oedematous eyelids, but the eye itself should be quiet and white. While viral conjunctivitis can present with watery discharges, the patient’s history of atopy and itchiness made allergic conjunctivitis the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      23.4
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  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old man with a history of glaucoma presents to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of glaucoma presents to the emergency department with sudden blurring and subsequent loss of vision in his left eye. He reports no pain or discharge. Fundoscopy reveals extensive flame haemorrhages and cotton wool spots, and there is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a history of glaucoma and experiences sudden, painless vision loss accompanied by severe retinal haemorrhages and RAPD, it is likely that they are suffering from central retinal vein occlusion. This is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.

      Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is characterized by brief episodes of sudden, painless vision loss that typically last for only a few seconds to minutes and resolve on their own. This condition is often indicative of underlying vascular disease.

      Central retinal artery occlusion also causes sudden, painless vision loss, but it is typically described as a descending curtain. On fundoscopy, a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the fovea centralis and atheromatous plaques are visible, and RAPD is also present.

      Lens subluxation, which is often caused by trauma, does not typically result in severe vision loss or changes in visual acuity unless the condition is severe.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46.2
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left eye pain and slightly blurred vision. He has no significant medical history and does not wear glasses or contact lenses. His family history includes type 2 diabetes and Crohn's disease.

      Upon examination, the patient is wearing sunglasses due to photophobia and his left eye appears red. Ophthalmoscopy is not possible due to the severity of his symptoms. A white fluid level is visible in the inferior part of the anterior chamber and his pupil is small and irregular. Based on these findings, ophthalmology is urgently consulted. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      The patient has a medical history of a systemic condition such as rheumatoid arthritis or ankylosing spondylitis, which can lead to recurrent episodes. Although he has a family history of IBD, his symptoms do not match the typical presentation, as he does not experience a gritty sensation in his eye and his pupil does not appear abnormal.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      128.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 44-year-old man with untreated tertiary syphilis is undergoing screening for complications of...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man with untreated tertiary syphilis is undergoing screening for complications of neurosyphilis. During questioning, he reports experiencing a decrease in visual acuity and color vision on his left side. He denies any headaches or changes in vision when coughing.

      Upon examination, there are no signs of gaze or eye movement abnormalities. However, a relative afferent pupillary defect is present, and fundoscopy reveals swelling of the optic disc on the left side. Based on this likely diagnosis, what other visual abnormality may be anticipated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central scotoma

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis is characterized by a central scotoma, which is a grey, black, or blind spot in the middle of the visual field. This condition is often associated with uveitis, but in rare cases, it can lead to optic papillitis, as seen in this patient. While the fundoscopy may suggest papilloedema, this is unlikely to be the case as it is typically bilateral and associated with other symptoms such as vision changes when coughing. Flashers, floaters, halos, and homonymous hemianopia are not associated with optic neuritis as they arise from different parts of the eye and visual pathway.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 31-year-old woman comes to the ophthalmology clinic with anisocoria. She was referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman comes to the ophthalmology clinic with anisocoria. She was referred by her primary care physician after visiting for a sinus infection 4 weeks ago.

      During the examination, it is observed that the left pupil is larger than the right and does not constrict during the light reflex test. The accommodation reflex is slow but still present. Eye movement testing shows no apparent abnormalities, and there is no change in vision. The doctor administers 0.125% pilocarpine drops to both eyes, resulting in the left pupil constricting while the right pupil remains unchanged.

      What is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Holmes-Adie pupil

      Explanation:

      The left pupil was affected by the pilocarpine drops, causing it to constrict, while the right pupil remained unaffected. Holmes-Adie pupil is a harmless condition that usually affects young women and may be caused by a viral or bacterial infection that affects the ciliary ganglion.

      Mydriasis, which is the enlargement of the pupil, can be caused by various factors. These include third nerve palsy, Holmes-Adie pupil, traumatic iridoplegia, pheochromocytoma, and congenital conditions. Additionally, certain drugs can also cause mydriasis, such as topical mydriatics like tropicamide and atropine, sympathomimetic drugs like amphetamines and cocaine, and anticholinergic drugs like tricyclic antidepressants. It’s important to note that anisocoria, which is when one pupil is larger than the other, can also result in the appearance of mydriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A parent brings her daughter in for surgery suspecting a squint. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings her daughter in for surgery suspecting a squint. She believes her left eye is 'turned inwards'. You conduct a cover test to gather more information. What result would indicate a left esotropia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: On covering the left eye the right eye moves laterally to take up fixation

      Explanation:

      Squints can be categorized based on the direction in which the eye deviates. If the eye turns towards the nose, it is called esotropia. If it turns towards the temporal side, it is called exotropia. If it turns upwards, it is called hypertropia, and if it turns downwards, it is called hypotropia. For instance, when the left eye is covered, the right eye may move laterally from its esotropic position towards the center to focus on an object.

      Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.

      To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.

      If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of severe...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of severe headache. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes Ramipril 10 mg and Amlodipine 10 mg. During the full workup, fundoscopy is conducted and reveals scattered cotton wool spots, tortuous vessels throughout, and AV nipping in both eyes. According to the Keith-Wagener classification, what stage of hypertensive retinopathy does this patient have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stage 3

      Explanation:

      Hypertensive retinopathy can be detected through fundoscopy, which may reveal end organ damage. This condition can progress through stages 1 to 3, and is often tested on as a final exam question. Diabetic retinopathy is also a commonly tested topic.

      Understanding Hypertensive Retinopathy: Keith-Wagener Classification

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes due to high blood pressure. The Keith-Wagener classification is a system used to categorize the different stages of hypertensive retinopathy. Stage I is characterized by narrowing and twisting of the blood vessels in the eyes, as well as an increased reflection of light known as silver wiring. In stage II, the blood vessels become compressed where they cross over veins, leading to arteriovenous nipping. Stage III is marked by the appearance of cotton-wool exudates, which are white patches on the retina caused by blocked blood vessels. Additionally, there may be flame and blot hemorrhages that can collect around the fovea, resulting in a ‘macular star.’ Finally, stage IV is the most severe stage and is characterized by papilloedema, which is swelling of the optic disc at the back of the eye. Understanding the Keith-Wagener classification can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage hypertensive retinopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. He complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which are quite restricted.
      On examination, the visual acuity is 6/18 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematosus. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva was chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right.
      Vital observations were as follows:
      Blood pressure 120/70 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 bpm
      Respiratory rate 18 per minute
      Oxygen saturation 98% on air
      Temperature 37.9 °C
      What is the most important step in your management plan to determine the cause of this patient’s eye problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Steps for Orbital Cellulitis: CT Scan of the Orbit, Sinuses, and Brain

      Orbital cellulitis is commonly caused by ethmoidal sinusitis and requires prompt diagnosis and management. While blood culture and normal blood tests can be helpful, they are not the most important steps in determining the cause of the infection. Instead, a CT scan of the orbit, sinuses, and brain is the most effective diagnostic tool. This scan can reveal diffuse orbital infiltrate, proptosis, sinus opacity, or even orbital abscesses. Once diagnosed, management often involves ENT assessment for sinus drainage and/or subperiosteal abscess. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole or flucloxacillin are necessary to control the infection, but do not aid in determining the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his optician for a check-up after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the examination, the doctor examines the back of his eye using a slit lamp and observes the presence of cotton wool spots. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal infarction

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina becomes separated from the normal structure of the eye, resulting in a large bullous separation in rhegmatogenous cases. On the other hand, retinal necrosis is an acute condition that causes an abrupt, one-sided, painful loss of vision. During a slit-lamp examination, multiple areas of retinal whitening and opacification with scalloped edges that merge together can be observed.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for nonproliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following does not predispose to cataract formation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not predispose to cataract formation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Cataract formation is more likely to occur due to hypocalcaemia rather than hypercalcaemia.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of seeing a curtain moving...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of seeing a curtain moving from the right inferonasal side towards the centre for the past 3 days. She reports seeing flashes of lights at the right inferonasal side and an increase in the number of floaters in her right eye. Her central vision is not affected, and her vision is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superotemporal macula-on retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Retinal Detachment Based on Symptoms

      Retinal detachment is a serious condition that can cause vision loss if not treated promptly. Differentiating between the types of retinal detachment based on symptoms is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

      In the case of symptoms located at the inferonasal side, the detachment is likely located at the superotemporal side of the eye, which is the most common location of retinal tears and detachment. This is also most likely a macula-on detachment because the vision in the affected eye remained at 6/6. Therefore, the correct diagnosis is a superotemporal macula-on retinal detachment.

      An inferonasal macula-off retinal detachment is unlikely because the vision is still 6/6. Similarly, an inferior or inferotemporal macula-off retinal detachment can be ruled out based on the location of symptoms and intact vision.

      A superonasal macula-on retinal detachment is also unlikely because it would cause symptoms at the inferotemporal side. Therefore, understanding the location of symptoms and vision status can aid in differentiating between the types of retinal detachment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with sudden vision loss, redness, and pain in her left eye. She reports experiencing some discomfort and redness earlier in the day, which worsened over the next two hours. She has no history of trauma or other visual problems. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis, left eye cataract surgery three days ago, and no significant family history.

      Upon examination, the left eye appears hyperemic with hypopyon, and eye movements are painful. Visual acuity is severely impaired, while the right eye appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endophthalmitis

      Explanation:

      Post-operative endophthalmitis is a rare but serious complication that can occur after cataract surgery and requires immediate treatment.

      If a patient experiences sudden pain, redness, and vision loss shortly after eye surgery, it may indicate post-operative endophthalmitis. This infection affects the aqueous and vitreous humor of the eye and is a rare complication of any eye surgery.

      While anterior uveitis can also cause a painful red eye, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history of cataract surgery. Additionally, there is no mention of an irregularly-shaped pupil or any systemic disease associated with anterior uveitis.

      A corneal ulcer is another possibility, but it typically presents with a sensation of a foreign body in the eye and discharge. It is also more common in contact lens wearers who have been exposed to water.

      Retinal detachment is less likely because it usually causes visual disturbances such as floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain descending over the peripheral visual field. Although ocular surgery is a risk factor for retinal detachment, it would not cause the intense redness and hypopyon seen in post-operative endophthalmitis.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of painless, gradual vision loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of painless, gradual vision loss in both eyes. During the examination, the GP observes bitemporal hemianopia. Where is the lesion located that is causing this visual field defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      Visual Field Defects and their Corresponding Lesions

      Visual field defects can provide important clues to the location of lesions in the visual pathway. A bitemporal hemianopia, for example, is typically caused by a lesion at the optic chiasm, such as a pituitary tumor or a craniopharyngioma. A left occipital visual cortex lesion, on the other hand, will cause a right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. Similarly, a left temporal lobe optic radiation lesion will result in a right superior quadrantanopia, while a right optic tract lesion will cause a left homonymous hemianopia. Finally, a right parietal lobe optic radiation lesion will produce a left inferior quadrantanopia. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Eye Casualty with a sudden onset of pain and reduced vision in her left eye over the past few hours. She denies any other symptoms.
      Upon examination, her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/6 while her left eye has a visual acuity of 6/36 with reduced colour vision. Eye movements are normal, but the pain worsens. The swinging torch test reveals left pupil dilation when the torch light is swung from the right eye to the left.
      A dilated fundoscopy shows normal optic discs in both eyes. An MRI scan of the head reveals white matter lesions in two different areas of the brain. An LP and CSF analysis show oligoclonal bands.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Optic Neuritis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the optic nerve, which can cause vision loss, pain, and other symptoms. When a patient presents with optic neuritis, there are several possible underlying diagnoses that could be considered.

      One of the most likely diagnoses is multiple sclerosis, which can cause optic neuritis as a secondary symptom. To confirm this diagnosis, another MRI should be done at a later time to show that there are white matter plaques that are disseminated in time and space. However, the signs and examination findings are consistent with multiple sclerosis. It’s worth noting that if the optic disc is spared from inflammation, it can result in retrobulbar neuritis, which would not involve optic disc swelling.

      Another possible diagnosis is giant-cell arthritis, which can cause a condition called anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AION). This can result in a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) and reduced visual acuity. However, the fundoscopy, MRI, and CSF findings are not consistent with AION.

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is an ophthalmic sign that can be found in multiple sclerosis, but it is not a diagnosis in and of itself. It occurs when there is an injury or dysfunction to the medial longitudinal fasciculus.

      Myasthenia gravis is another possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with variable diplopia or ptosis, which worsens in the evening or with exercise. There would not be any optic neuropathy signs.

      Finally, post-viral demyelination is a type of atypical optic neuritis that is often bilateral and occurs a few weeks after a viral illness or vaccination. However, there is no history of any viral illnesses in this patient, making this diagnosis less likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports gradual worsening of his vision over many years and struggles with night-time driving due to glare. He is put on the waiting list for surgical repair.
      What structure in the eye is affected by cataract formation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lens

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders

      The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.

      Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.

      Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.

      Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).

      Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.

      Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.

      Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old female visits her doctor with a vesicular rash on the right-side...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female visits her doctor with a vesicular rash on the right-side of her face and tip of her nose, and is diagnosed with herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO). What is the most probable complication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Hutchinson’s sign, which is characterized by vesicles that spread to the tip of the nose, is a strong indicator of shingles-related ocular involvement. As a result, the patient is at risk of developing anterior uveitis.
      Treatment for herpes zoster ophthalmicus typically involves the use of antivirals and/or steroids. Given the likelihood of ocular involvement in this case, an urgent ophthalmology review is necessary.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of vision problems that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of vision problems that have persisted for the past month. He reports difficulty reading words in books and blurry vision. The patient's visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes upon examination. He currently takes amlodipine and ramipril for hypertension and smokes 30 cigarettes per day. The patient is concerned about losing his vision, as his father experienced a similar issue.

      During fundoscopy, amber material deposits are observed under the retinal pigment epithelium in both eyes, without neovascularisation present. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test with Amsler grid

      Explanation:

      The Amsler grid test is a useful tool for assessing patients suspected of having age-related macular degeneration (AMD) as it checks for distortion of line perception. In this case, the patient has dry AMD, which is confirmed by the presence of drusen on fundoscopy. Patients with AMD typically see distorted lines instead of straight ones. Fluorescein angiography would not be appropriate for this patient as it assesses the vascular supply to the retina and choroid, which is not relevant in this case. Measuring intraocular pressure is also not useful in diagnosing AMD as it is associated with glaucoma. Similarly, a slit lamp examination of the anterior chamber is not relevant in diagnosing AMD as it is used to diagnose other eye conditions such as injuries, corneal infections, or cataracts.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of a painless red eye that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of a painless red eye that has been present for 2 days. She reports no other symptoms and has not experienced any vision changes. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any long-term medications. During the examination, both eyes appear red and injected. When applying light pressure with a cotton bud, the injected vessels appear to move. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      The vessels in episcleritis can be easily moved with gentle pressure on the sclera, while in scleritis, the vessels are deeper and do not move. Episcleritis is characterized by the absence of a decrease in visual acuity and mobile vessels, but the degree of pain can vary. Iritis, also known as anterior uveitis, is typically painful and causes photophobia and vision loss. Posterior uveitis often results in floaters and vision loss. Scleritis does not have mobile vessels due to the deeper location of the injected vessels.

      Understanding Episcleritis

      Episcleritis is a condition that involves the sudden onset of inflammation in the episclera of one or both eyes. While the majority of cases are idiopathic, there are some associated conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms of episcleritis include a red eye, mild pain or irritation, watering, and mild photophobia. However, unlike scleritis, episcleritis is typically not painful.

      One way to differentiate between the two conditions is by applying gentle pressure on the sclera. If the injected vessels are mobile, it is likely episcleritis. In contrast, scleritis involves deeper vessels that do not move. Phenylephrine drops may also be used to distinguish between the two conditions. If the eye redness improves after phenylephrine, a diagnosis of episcleritis can be made.

      Approximately 50% of cases of episcleritis are bilateral. Treatment for episcleritis is typically conservative, with artificial tears sometimes being used. Understanding the symptoms and differences between episcleritis and scleritis can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for their eye condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, was asked to attend the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, a known type 1 diabetic, was asked to attend the General Practice (GP) Surgery for her results in the diabetic retinopathy screening.
      You asked your GP supervisor if you can examine her eyes so that you can get signed off for using a direct ophthalmoscope. You found out that she had some dot-and-blot haemorrhages in her right eye with some venous looping and beading in the peripheral retina.
      What is the next step in management for this patient's eye condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management Plan for Pre-Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy

      Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy requires routine referral to ophthalmology as the appropriate management plan. The waiting time for this referral is usually less than 13 weeks. Observation every 4-6 months is the usual management plan, and pan-retinal photocoagulation is only necessary in selected cases, such as in the only eye where the first eye was lost to proliferative diabetic retinopathy or prior to cataract surgery. Referring to an optometrist for a regular eye test is not appropriate for any type of diabetic retinopathy. Annual screening is only appropriate if there is none or background retinopathy. Fast-track referral to ophthalmology is only necessary if there are signs of proliferative retinopathy. Pan-retinal laser photocoagulation is not necessary in pre-proliferative retinopathy and is not the immediate next step in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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