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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has metastatic breast cancer in her bones. Pain has been well controlled with modified-release morphine and she is still quite mobile. A palliative care nurse has given her a National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) Distress Thermometer for Patients. This is a visual analogue scale that records subjective distress on a scale of 0-10. She records 7-8 and most of this is recorded as being due to emotional issues (depression, nervousness, worry, loss of interest). She is assessed to have moderate depression with significant functional impairment. She declines psychological intervention, but would be happy to take medication.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?
Your Answer: St. John’s wort
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Chlorine salicylate gel
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications has been linked to a higher likelihood of atypical stress fractures in the proximal femoral shaft?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:An elevated risk of atypical stress fractures is linked to the use of bisphosphonates.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A recently graduated nurse at the nearby hospital receives hepatitis B vaccination. After three months of completing the primary course, the following outcomes are observed:
Outcome Anti-HBs: 10 - 100 mIU/ml
Reference A protective immunity is indicated by an antibody level of >100 mIU/ml.
What is the best course of action to take?Your Answer: Repeat course (i.e. 3 doses) of hepatitis B vaccine
Correct Answer: Give one further dose of hepatitis B vaccine
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management
Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.
Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most common symptom observed in these individuals?
Your Answer: Gastrointestinal infection
Correct Answer: Respiratory infection
Explanation:Understanding Primary Antibody Deficiencies: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Primary antibody deficiencies refer to a group of rare disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens. These disorders may be caused by a mutation in a single gene or by multiple genetic factors, similar to diabetes. While primary antibody deficiencies are the most common forms of primary immune deficiency, other primary immune deficiencies involve defects in cellular immunity, phagocyte defects, and complement defects. It is important to distinguish primary antibody deficiencies from secondary immune deficiencies caused by factors such as malignancy, malnutrition, or immunosuppressive therapy.
Clinical history is crucial in identifying primary antibody deficiencies. Patients of any age who experience recurrent infections, particularly in the respiratory tract, should be investigated if the frequency or severity of infection is unusual or out of context. While most patients are under 20 years old, common variable immunodeficiency typically peaks in the second or third decade of life. A systematic review has found that respiratory and sinus infections are the most common presenting symptoms, followed by gastrointestinal and cutaneous infections. Meningitis, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis, and ophthalmic infections are much less common.
In summary, understanding primary antibody deficiencies is essential in diagnosing and managing patients with recurrent infections. Clinical history plays a crucial role in identifying these disorders, which can be caused by genetic factors and affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is a risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Acute ulceration
Explanation:Skin Damage and Other Factors Predisposing to Cancer
Certain types of skin damage, such as burns, scarring, ulceration, radiation, and chemical damage, can increase the risk of developing cancer. In addition, exposure to polycyclic hydrocarbons and coal by-products, which are found in certain situations, particularly in the United Kingdom, can also increase the risk of cancer. For example, chimney sweeps in the past were at a higher risk of developing scrotal cancer due to exposure to these substances.
Lichen sclerosis is another factor that can predispose individuals to cancer, specifically vulval cancer. Solar keratoses are also a common cause of cancer. However, psoriasis and lichen planus are not considered predisposing factors. While there is some controversy surrounding the risk of lichen planus, the consensus view is that it probably doesn’t increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), except for the ulcerative form of oral lichen planus, which may have an increased risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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An 87-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer who is in the last days of life is having difficulty drinking due to swallowing problems. Her main symptoms of pain and nausea are being managed with a syringe driver. She complains of thirst despite frequent mouth care.
Which is the most appropriate treatment option?Your Answer: Consider subcutaneous fluids
Explanation:Managing Thirst in a Dying Patient: Considerations and Options
As a patient approaches the end of life, their need for food and water decreases. However, thirst can still be a distressing symptom. When managing a dying patient’s hydration status, it is important to consider their wishes and preferences, as well as the potential risks and benefits of clinically assisted hydration. Here are some options to consider when a patient is complaining of thirst:
– Subcutaneous fluids: This can be a good option for providing symptomatic relief without overloading the patient with fluids.
– Increasing haloperidol in the syringe driver: While haloperidol can be helpful for managing nausea and vomiting, it is unlikely to improve thirst.
– Continuing mouth care and sips of water only: While this may be appropriate for some patients, it may not be enough to relieve thirst in others.
– Increasing morphine in the syringe driver: While morphine can be helpful for pain relief, it is unlikely to improve thirst.
– Inserting a nasogastric tube: If clinically assisted hydration is necessary, subcutaneous fluids are generally a more comfortable and less invasive option than a nasogastric tube.Ultimately, the goal of managing thirst in a dying patient is to provide comfort and relief, rather than to prolong life. Each patient’s situation should be evaluated on an individual basis, with their wishes and preferences taken into account.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash. During the examination, the doctor observes multiple distinct purple papules on the patient's forearms. The papules have thin white lines visible on them. The patient reports that the lesions are extremely itchy but not painful and wants to know if there is any treatment available to alleviate the symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Oral steroids
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:The first-line treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids.
This statement accurately reflects the recommended treatment for lichen planus, which is a rash characterized by itchy purple polygonal papules with white lines known as Wickham’s striae. While the condition can persist for up to 18 months, topical steroids are typically effective in relieving symptoms. Oral steroids may be necessary in severe cases, but are not typically used as a first-line treatment. No treatment is not recommended, as the symptoms can be distressing for patients. Topical retinoids are not indicated for lichen planus, as they are used for acne vulgaris.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a lump in his throat and increasing hoarseness that has been present for the past 3 weeks. He reports having a cold 4 weeks ago but denies experiencing heartburn, weight loss, nausea and vomiting, or difficulty swallowing. He is a non-smoker and drinks 12 units of alcohol per week. There is no significant medical history to note.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Correct Answer: Laryngopharyngeal reflux
Explanation:Laryngopharyngeal reflux may be the cause of globus and hoarseness in the absence of any red flags. This condition is often referred to as ‘silent’ reflux. While globus hystericus is a symptom of anxiety, it is unlikely to persist without other autonomic symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux, on the other hand, is characterized by retrosternal burning and regurgitation that worsens when lying down or leaning forward and is relieved by antacids. Post-nasal drip, which is commonly triggered by colds and flu, typically presents with an intractable cough or throat clearing that is worse at night.
Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.
Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.
In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You see a 26-year-old patient who is wondering about the duration of her Kyleena® coil for contraception. She currently has the 19.5mg levonorgestrel (LNG) IUS which was inserted 20 months ago.
What is the licensed duration of the Kyleena® coil for contraception in this patient's case?Your Answer: 8 years
Correct Answer: 5 years
Explanation:The Kyleena intrauterine system (IUS) is approved for use as a contraceptive for a period of 5 years. It contains 19.5mg of levonorgestrel (LNG) and is a relatively new option in the UK. Compared to the Mirena IUS, it has a smaller frame and insertion tube. The Mirena IUS, which contains 52mg of LNG, is also approved for 5 years of use as a contraceptive. The Jaydess IUS, which contains 13.5mg of LNG, is approved for 3 years of use. Copper coils typically have a contraceptive license for a period of 5 years or less.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with end-stage lung cancer is being evaluated. He is presently on MST 60 mg bd to manage his pain. Due to his inability to take oral medications, it has been decided to initiate a syringe driver. What would be the appropriate dosage of diamorphine to prescribe for the syringe driver?
Your Answer: 60 mg
Correct Answer: 40 mg
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but no accompanying aura. What is the estimated percentage of individuals with migraine who experience aura?
Your Answer: 55%
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of tremors and weight loss. Upon further inquiry, she reveals feeling more irritable than usual and intolerant of heat. During the examination, her heart rate is found to be 113 beats per minute, and she has a significant tremor in her outstretched hands. Blood tests reveal elevated thyrotropin receptor levels, but her thyroid peroxidase antibodies are normal.
What is the most effective treatment option for managing symptoms while awaiting more definitive treatment?Your Answer: Ivabradine
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can help manage symptoms in new cases of Graves’ disease. It is particularly effective in reducing tremors and palpitations associated with thyrotoxicosis.
Carbimazole is the primary treatment for inducing remission in most cases of Graves’ disease. However, it may take some time to take effect, and patients may require short-term symptomatic relief with a beta-blocker like propranolol.
Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure, but it is not typically used for Graves’ disease.
Ivabradine is a cardiac medication that targets the sino-atrial node to regulate heart rate. It is commonly used to treat angina and heart failure.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a chronic medical condition has had two recent upper respiratory tract infections that have been prolonged and complicated with sinusitis and bronchitis. His general practitioner is concerned that the patient may have a secondary immunodeficiency due to the chronic medical condition (rather than being caused by the medication used to treat his condition).
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a secondary immunodeficiency?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease
Explanation:Understanding Immunodeficiency in Various Medical Conditions
Immunodeficiency is a condition where the immune system is weakened, making individuals more susceptible to infections. While some medical conditions are directly associated with immunodeficiency, others are not. Chronic kidney disease, particularly end-stage disease requiring dialysis, is linked to secondary immunodeficiency, making patients vulnerable to infections such as sepsis, peritonitis, influenza, tuberculosis, and pneumonia. Similarly, some disease-modifying drugs used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis have immunomodulatory and immunosuppressive effects, increasing the risk of infection. Asthma and psoriasis are not typically associated with immunodeficiency, but long-term use of oral corticosteroids and certain medications used to treat severe psoriasis can increase the risk of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis is not a direct cause of immunodeficiency, but disease-modifying drugs used in its treatment can increase the risk. Overall, drug treatment is a common cause of secondary immunodeficiency, with cancer treatment being a significant concern. Other causes include HIV, surgery or trauma, and malnutrition. Understanding the relationship between various medical conditions and immunodeficiency is crucial in managing patient care and preventing infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man presents for a chest review after being discharged from the hospital a month ago due to an exacerbation of COPD. He reports feeling well with no cough or breathing issues. Over the past year, he has experienced four exacerbations that required steroid treatment, including his recent hospitalization. The patient inquires about any potential interventions to decrease the frequency of his exacerbations.
Currently, the patient is taking a combination inhaler of fluticasone furoate/umeclidinium/vilanterol and salbutamol.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Start him on long term corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Referral to secondary care for consideration of prophylactic antibiotic treatment
Explanation:Referral to secondary care for consideration of prophylactic antibiotic treatment is the recommended option for COPD patients who meet certain criteria and continue to have exacerbations. NICE suggests considering prophylactic oral macrolide therapy, such as azithromycin, for individuals who have had more than three exacerbations requiring steroid therapy and at least one exacerbation requiring hospital admission in the previous year.
Referral to secondary care for consideration of nebulisers is not appropriate for this patient as they are not experiencing distressing or disabling breathlessness despite maximal therapy using inhalers.
Referral to secondary care for consideration of phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors is not applicable for this patient as they do not have severe disease with persistent symptoms and exacerbations despite optimal inhaled and pharmacological therapy.
Starting the patient on long term corticosteroids is not recommended in primary care and requires referral to a respiratory specialist.
Starting the patient on oral mucolytic therapy is not necessary as they do not have a chronic cough productive of sputum.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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During a routine examination at 4-6 weeks, a male infant is discovered to have an undescended left testicle that cannot be felt in the scrotum or inguinal canal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Outpatient referral to urology to be seen within 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Review at 3 months
Explanation:If the testicle remains undescended after 3 months, it is recommended to consider referral for orchidopexy. For further information, please refer to the CKS guidelines.
Undescended testis is a condition that affects approximately 2-3% of male infants born at term, but is more common in premature babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, it is recommended to consider referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is important to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that has been black for a few weeks. He suspects that he may have injured the nail while working, but he expected the discoloration to have disappeared by now. Upon examination, you notice a dark stripe running along the length of the nail plate of his left thumb. The adjacent nail fold is also dark.
What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: Reassurance that nail trauma often takes several weeks to subside
Correct Answer: Urgent referral (2 week wait) to dermatology
Explanation:If a new pigmented line appears in a nail, especially if there is damage to the nail, it is important to be highly suspicious of subungual melanoma and seek urgent referral. Subungual melanoma is a type of acral-lentiginous melanoma that can be mistaken for trauma. It typically presents as a longitudinal, pigmented band on the nail, with wider bands being more likely to be melanoma. Hutchinson’s sign, where the pigment extends onto the nail fold, may also be present. The lesion may also cause ulceration and destruction of the nail-plate.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy comes to the GP with his mother who is worried about his social interaction at school. She had previously raised these concerns with his previous GP a few years ago but has now moved to a new practice. The boy started a new school 8 months ago and his teachers have reported that he often isolates himself during class and break times. He has a strict routine of having lunch at 12.30 and can become challenging to handle if this is disrupted.
What could be the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Social phobia
Correct Answer: Autism
Explanation:Autism is characterized by a triad of symptoms including communication impairment, impairment of social relationships, and ritualistic behavior. In this case, the child’s lack of interaction in class represents communication impairment, spending much time alone represents impairment of social relationships, and difficulty changing routine represents ritualistic behavior.
It is important to note that the child’s behavior doesn’t meet the criteria for conduct disorder, which is characterized by repetitive and persistent behavior that violates the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate norms.
While depression and social anxiety may coexist with autism, they would not fully account for the child’s ritualistic behavior and are therefore not the most likely diagnoses.
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has a significant medical history of childhood asthma and vitiligo, and currently only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She reports feeling constantly worn out, weak, and experiencing body aches. She also feels dizzy when standing up quickly. On examination, she appears well and has no fever, shortness of breath, or pain. Her blood pressure is 106/60, but drops to 94/56 when standing, causing brief lightheadedness. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal. There is no joint swelling and she walks with a normal gait. Blood tests reveal a slightly low sodium of 130 mmol/L and a slightly raised potassium of 5.5 mmol/L. Which investigation is most likely to aid in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: HbA1c level
Correct Answer: Serum cortisol level obtained at 9 am
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a rare condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Patients may experience chronic fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness, among other symptoms. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.
Clinical examination and blood tests can provide clues to the presence of Addison’s disease. Postural hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are common features. A serum cortisol level done at 8-9 am can also be helpful in diagnosing the condition. Levels below 100 nanomol/L require hospital admission, while levels between 100 and 500 nanomol/L merit endocrinology referral for further investigation.
It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, as early detection and treatment can prevent acute crises and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith is a 70-year-old widow who presents with easy bruising. There is no history of abnormal bleeding apart from some gum bleeding when brushing teeth, and no family history of bleeding problems. She rarely drinks alcohol. General examination including examination of the liver and of lymph nodes is normal; there are multiple small bruises on the limbs - no purpura or petechiae. You check her medication list and find no item that might be the cause. You arrange some blood tests including full blood count, blood film, renal profile, bone profile, liver function, and clotting screen, which are all unremarkable. You suspect the cause might be due to a 'tea and toast' diet after her husband passed away.
What dietary supplement could you consider as the next step for Mrs. Smith?Your Answer: Vitamin D
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation:Easy bruising may be caused by a lack of vitamin C in the diet. Calcium, magnesium, and thiamine deficiencies are not likely to be the cause of easy bruising. Scurvy, a condition caused by vitamin C deficiency, can also lead to bleeding gums. To address this issue, it may be helpful to try increasing vitamin C and/or K intake through dietary changes or supplements. Citrus fruits and tomatoes are good sources of vitamin C.
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.
The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her mother, complaining of a rash of small red dots on both arms that has been gradually worsening over the past month. The patient reports feeling generally well, but has been experiencing increased fatigue lately. Upon examination, you note a petechial rash on both forearms and her left calf, as well as hepatomegaly and splenomegaly (3 cm and 2cm below the costal margin, respectively). What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Arrange a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
Correct Answer: Refer her for an immediate specialist assessment
Explanation:The presence of a deteriorating petechial rash, fatigue, and hepatosplenomegaly indicates a possible case of leukemia in this patient. As per NICE guidelines, an urgent referral for specialist evaluation is advised. The specialist will conduct additional tests, including blood tests and bone marrow biopsy, and discuss potential hospitalization and treatment options.
Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.
Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.
Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Correct
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You see a 30-year-old woman in surgery.
She has had three miscarriages in the last 18 months and has been told she has antiphospholipid syndrome. She says she was told that she would need treatment early in any future pregnancy and she has now had a positive pregnancy test.
What is the treatment for antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?Your Answer: Low dose heparin + low dose aspirin
Explanation:Medication Protocol for Early Pregnancy
As soon as a pregnancy test comes back positive, it is recommended to prescribe aspirin 75 mg. This medication can help prevent blood clots and other complications during pregnancy. Once foetal heart activity is detected on an ultrasound scan, low dose self-administered subcutaneous heparin should be started. This medication can also help prevent blood clots and is especially important for women who have a history of blood clots or other risk factors. It is important to follow this medication protocol to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a recognized indication for the application of Botulinum toxin?
Your Answer: Strabismus
Correct Answer: Blepharospasm
Explanation:Medical Uses of Botulinum Toxin
Botulinum toxin, commonly known as Botox, is not just used for cosmetic purposes. There are several licensed indications for its use in medical treatments. These include blepharospasm, hemifacial spasm, focal spasticity in patients with cerebral palsy, hand and wrist disability associated with stroke, spasmodic torticollis, severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae, and achalasia.
Blepharospasm is a condition where the eyelids twitch uncontrollably, while hemifacial spasm is a similar condition that affects one side of the face. Focal spasticity is a condition where certain muscles become stiff and difficult to move, often due to damage to the brain or spinal cord. Botulinum toxin can help relax these muscles and improve mobility.
Spasmodic torticollis is a condition where the neck muscles contract involuntarily, causing the head to twist or turn to one side. Severe hyperhidrosis of the axillae is excessive sweating in the armpits, which can be embarrassing and uncomfortable. Achalasia is a condition where the muscles in the esophagus do not work properly, making it difficult to swallow.
In all of these cases, botulinum toxin can be a useful treatment option. It works by blocking the signals that cause muscles to contract, leading to temporary muscle relaxation. While it is important to use botulinum toxin under the guidance of a medical professional, it can be a safe and effective treatment for a range of conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years and has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). During her visit to your clinic, she reports discomfort during intercourse due to vaginal dryness. Upon examination, you observe atrophic genitalia without any other abnormalities. The patient and her partner have attempted to use over-the-counter lubricants, but they have not been effective.
What would be the most suitable course of action for you to take next?Your Answer: Switch to combined HRT transdermal patch
Correct Answer: Continue with HRT and prescribe low-dose vaginal oestrogen
Explanation:To alleviate vaginal symptoms, vaginal topical oestrogen can be used alongside HRT. Compared to systemic treatment, low-dose vaginal topical oestrogen is more effective in providing relief for vaginal symptoms. Patients should be reviewed after 3 months of treatment. It is recommended to consider stopping treatment at least once a year, but in some cases, long-term treatment may be necessary for persistent symptoms. If symptoms persist, increasing the dose or seeking specialist referral may be necessary. Testosterone supplementation is only recommended for sexual dysfunction and should be initiated after consulting a specialist. Sildenafil is not effective in treating menopausal symptoms.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.
HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.
Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a 47-year-old man who is known to suffer from benign paroxysmal vertigo. The visit was requested by a relative on the basis of his ongoing dizziness but upon arrival, it becomes clear that he has sustained a head injury.
Whilst fixing a shelf in his garage, he became dizzy and fell to the ground.
Which of the following symptoms require immediate referral to the emergency ambulance services (i.e. 999) for emergency transportation to the emergency department?Your Answer: Nausea
Correct Answer: Bleeding from the nose
Explanation:NICE’s Guidance on Head Injury Management
A base of open or depressed skull fracture or penetrating head injury requires immediate referral to the emergency ambulance (999) service. Signs of a skull fracture that warrant referral to the emergency ambulance service include clear fluid running from the ears or nose, black eye with no associated damage around the eyes, bleeding from one or both ears, and bruising behind one or both ears.
On the other hand, a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver is simply consistent with benign positional paroxysmal vertigo. It is important to follow NICE’s guidance on head injury management to ensure prompt and appropriate care for patients with head injuries. Proper identification and referral of patients with skull fractures can prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?
Your Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clindamycin
Correct Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which one of the following products is 'blacklisted' under Part XVIIIA of the Drug Tariff and hence cannot be dispensed on the NHS?
Your Answer: Topical minoxidil
Explanation:The Blacklist and Selected List in the Drug Tariff
The Drug Tariff has two important lists that determine what products can be prescribed on an NHS prescription. Part XVIIIA of the Drug Tariff, also known as ‘the blacklist’, contains a list of food, drug, toiletry, and cosmetic products that cannot be prescribed on the NHS. However, medical devices can be prescribed if they are listed in Part IX of the Drug Tariff.
If a proprietary product is listed in ‘the blacklist’, it cannot be dispensed on the NHS, unless the prescription is issued using a generic name that is not included in the blacklist. For instance, Propecia and Regaine, which are used for male-pattern alopecia, are blacklisted products. However, Calpol, which contains paracetamol suspension, can be prescribed despite being a blacklisted product.
On the other hand, Part XVIIIB of the Drug Tariff, also known as the Selected List, contains items that can only be prescribed for specific patient groups and purposes listed in the Drug Tariff. Prescribers must endorse prescriptions for these products with ‘SLS’. It is important to note that sildenafil was removed from the Selected List in 2014 and can now be prescribed freely.
In summary, prescribers must be aware of the products listed in the Drug Tariff’s blacklist and Selected List to ensure that they prescribe the appropriate products for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A researcher is designing a study to investigate the impact of diet on the development of coronary artery disease in elderly individuals. They are aware that, depending on the type of study they choose, recall bias may affect the results. In which of the following types of study is this bias most likely to affect their results?
Your Answer: Ecological study
Correct Answer: Case-control studies
Explanation:Types of Studies and the Risk of Recall Bias
Recall bias is a common issue in research studies that rely on self-reported information from participants. Here, we will discuss different types of studies and their risk of recall bias.
Case-Control Studies: In this type of study, groups of people with an illness are compared to control subjects to identify a causal factor. However, as participants are asked to self-report on their experiences, biases may creep in, leading to inaccurate reporting.
Cohort Studies: Unlike case-control studies, cohort studies follow subjects through time, making them less susceptible to recall bias.
Ecological Studies: These studies focus on populations rather than individuals, reducing the risk of recall bias as they do not rely on self-reported information.
Randomized Controlled Trials: In this type of study, participants are randomly assigned to receive either the intervention being tested or an alternative treatment. As there is no reliance on retrospective self-reporting, the risk of recall bias is lower.
Systematic Reviews: Systematic reviews summarize all available primary research on a topic. However, they may be confounded by the author’s own bias in selecting and interpreting evidence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Nigerian woman is undergoing treatment for TB.
Which of the following medications speeds up the metabolism of her combined oral contraceptive?Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Streptomycin
Explanation:Tuberculosis Treatment and Pregnancy
When treating tuberculosis in women who are of childbearing age or pregnant, it is important to consider the potential effects of the medication on contraception and fetal development. Rifampicin, a commonly used medication for tuberculosis, can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, making them less effective. Therefore, patients should be advised to use alternative forms of contraception while taking rifampicin.
If a pregnant woman develops tuberculosis, standard treatment with rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol should be given. However, streptomycin should be avoided as it may be ototoxic to the fetus. Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, should also be avoided during pregnancy as they have been shown to cause arthropathy in animal studies.
Overall, it is important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of tuberculosis treatment in pregnant women and to provide appropriate counseling and monitoring throughout the course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You observe a 14-year-old girl with a painless, soft, and fluctuant swelling at the back of her left knee. The swelling appeared spontaneously and is not causing any discomfort.
What is a true statement about Baker's cysts?Your Answer: Aspiration of the cyst is required to remove it
Correct Answer: A child with a suspected Baker's cyst requires an USS to confirm the diagnosis
Explanation:To confirm the diagnosis of a suspected Baker’s cyst in a child, an USS is necessary as per the NICE guidelines. Knee x-ray is not usually required as primary cysts are the most common in children and not caused by underlying disease. However, an x-ray may be necessary in adults to detect underlying knee pathology. Secondary cysts in children are rare and may be caused by juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Primary Baker’s cysts in children typically resolve on their own without any treatment.
Baker’s cysts, also known as popliteal cysts, are not true cysts but rather a distension of the gastrocnemius-semimembranosus bursa. They can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Baker’s cysts are not associated with any underlying pathology and are typically seen in children. On the other hand, secondary Baker’s cysts are caused by an underlying condition such as osteoarthritis and are typically seen in adults. These cysts present as swellings in the popliteal fossa behind the knee.
In some cases, Baker’s cysts may rupture, resulting in symptoms similar to those of a deep vein thrombosis, such as pain, redness, and swelling in the calf. However, most ruptures are asymptomatic. In children, Baker’s cysts usually resolve on their own and do not require any treatment. In adults, the underlying cause of the cyst should be treated where appropriate. Overall, Baker’s cysts are a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female comes to the clinic with a nodule in her neck that she has noticed for the past month.
Upon examination, a non-tender, 3.5 cm nodule is found on the right side of her neck, deep to the lower half of the right sternocleidomastoid. The nodule moves upwards on swallowing, and no other masses are palpable in the neck.
What is the nature of this mass?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymph node
Explanation:Thyroid Nodule: Causes and Investigation
A thyroid nodule is suspected in this patient due to the movement observed during swallowing. The possible causes of a thyroid nodule include colloid cyst, adenoma, and carcinoma. To investigate this lesion, the most appropriate method would be fine needle aspiration. This procedure involves using a thin needle to extract a small sample of cells from the nodule for examination under a microscope. It is a safe and effective way to determine if the nodule is benign or malignant. Early detection and treatment of thyroid nodules can prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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