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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman presents with dyspepsia. During the consultation she admits to having intermittent pins and needles in her hands and feet. She is prescribed an antacid. Some months later her dyspepsia is improved but her mood has become very low. She is reluctant to leave the house because of perceived unsteadiness. On examination she has weakness in her legs involving the hip flexors, knee flexors and dorsiflexors of the ankles, reduced sensation distally, impaired proprioception to her knee joints, absent ankle jerks and equivocal plantars.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Spinal cord compression secondary to metastases
Correct Answer: Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
Explanation:Neurological Consequences of Vitamin B12 Deficiency
This patient presents with progressive limb weakness, primarily affecting the legs. The signs suggest dysfunction in both upper and lower motor neurons, as well as central and peripheral sensory disturbance. However, the absence of peripheral nerve signs and sphincter disturbance rules out spinal cord compression or conus/cauda equina lesion. The onset of symptoms is also too rapid for tabes dorsalis.
The most likely diagnosis is vitamin B12 deficiency, which can cause neurological consequences that resemble the patient’s symptoms. As this is a treatable condition, it should be considered as a top differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman has plantar warts. Her mother has read that they are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). She is aware of the link with cervical cancer and is concerned.
Select from the list the type of HPV infection that is most commonly associated with the development of cervical cancer.Your Answer: Anogenital warts
Correct Answer: Asymptomatic infection
Explanation:Understanding Human Papillomavirus (HPV) and its Association with Cancer
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a virus that infects the skin and mucosae of the upper respiratory and anogenital tracts. With about 100 types of HPV, 40 of them infect the genital tract. HPV is classified as either ‘high-risk’ or ‘low-risk’ types, depending on their association with cancer. HPV16 is responsible for over 50% of all cervical cancers, while HPV18 is responsible for over 15%. Although most high-risk infections are transient and cause no clinical problems, persistent infection by a high-risk HPV type is the most important factor for the development of cancer. Types 6 and 11 are associated with anogenital warts and are included in one of the HPV vaccines (Gardasil®) along with types 16 and 18. It is recommended that individuals receive the HPV vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside his cheek. He noticed a red-white patch while brushing his teeth, but he is unsure how long it has been there. He has a smoking history of 35 pack years and drinks approximately 18 units of alcohol per week. There is no family history of oral cancer. On examination, he appears to be in good health, and no cervical lymphadenopathy is detected. There is a 2cm red and white macule with a velvety texture on the buccal vestibule of the oral cavity, consistent with erythroleukoplakia. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Urgent referral (within 2 weeks) for assessment by head and neck team
Explanation:Immediate investigation is necessary for any oral cavity lesion that appears suspicious for erythroplakia or leukoplakia due to the risk of malignancy.
When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery
Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.
Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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You assess a 65-year-old patient who has type two diabetes and has no other current health issues or significant medical history. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g bd. Their HbA1c was 56 mmol/mol six months ago and has increased to 59 mmol/mol in their most recent test from last week. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?
Your Answer: Add additional oral agent to metformin
Explanation:If a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking the maximum dose of metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol or higher, it is recommended to add a second drug to their treatment regimen. The patient should be closely monitored and have their HbA1c level checked again in 3-6 months to ensure stability on the new therapy. It is important to intensify treatment at this stage, but referral to secondary care is not necessary and primary care should manage the patient’s management. Insulin therapy is not recommended yet, and a further oral agent should be added first. If the second agent fails to reduce HbA1c, triple therapy may be considered. Lifestyle advice and management should also be provided at each review.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of scleroderma presents with recurrent bouts of diarrhoea for the past few months. Her stools are pale, bulky, and offensive during these episodes. She consumes 14 units of alcohol per week. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 10.8 g/dl
- Platelets: 231 * 109/l
- White blood cells: 5.4 * 109/l
- Ferritin: 14 ng/ml
- Vitamin B12: 170 ng/l
- Folate: 2.2 nmol/l
- Sodium: 142 mmol/l
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
- Alkaline phosphatase: 88 u/l
- Alanine transaminase: 21 u/l
- Gamma-glutamyl transferase: 55 u/l
- Albumin: 36 g/l
What is the most likely complication that has occurred in this patient?Your Answer: Whipple's disease
Correct Answer: Malabsorption syndrome
Explanation:Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) frequently leads to malabsorption syndrome, which is characterized by reduced absorption of certain vitamins (B12, folate), nutrients (iron), and protein (low albumin) as indicated by blood tests.
Understanding Malabsorption: Causes and Symptoms
Malabsorption is a condition that is characterized by diarrhea, weight loss, and steatorrhea. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb nutrients from the food that is consumed. The causes of malabsorption can be broadly divided into three categories: intestinal, pancreatic, and biliary. Intestinal causes include conditions such as coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, tropical sprue, Whipple’s disease, Giardiasis, and brush border enzyme deficiencies. Pancreatic causes include chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, and pancreatic cancer. Biliary causes include biliary obstruction and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other causes of malabsorption include bacterial overgrowth, short bowel syndrome, and lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A childcare assistant is setting up the nursery equipment. One set of thermometers consistently measures temperature 5% lower than the actual value.
What is the issue with this set of thermometers?Your Answer: Sensitivity
Correct Answer: Validity
Explanation:In statistics, reliability refers to the degree of consistency in a measurement, while validity pertains to the accuracy of a test.
Understanding Reliability and Validity in Statistics
Reliability and validity are two important concepts in statistics that are used to determine the accuracy and consistency of a measure. Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement, while validity refers to whether a test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure.
It is important to note that reliability and validity are independent of each other. This means that a measurement can be valid but not reliable, or reliable but not valid. For example, if a pulse oximeter consistently records oxygen saturations 5% below the true value, it is considered reliable because the value is consistently 5% below the true value. However, it is not considered valid because the reported saturations are not an accurate reflection of the true values.
In summary, reliability and validity are crucial concepts in statistics that help to ensure accurate and consistent measurements. Understanding the difference between these two concepts is important for researchers and statisticians to ensure that their data is reliable and valid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut allergy. She asks you about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis.
Which of the following pieces of information about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis is correct?Your Answer: Her history alone doesn't indicate the need for immunotherapy
Correct Answer: Gradually increasing amounts of allergen are injected
Explanation:Hyposensitisation: Gradual Exposure to Allergens for Allergy Treatment
Hyposensitisation, also known as immunotherapy, is a treatment that involves gradually exposing a patient to increasing amounts of an allergen to reduce or eliminate their allergic response. The British National Formulary recommends this treatment for seasonal allergic hay fever and hypersensitivity to wasp and bee venoms that have not responded to anti-allergic drugs. However, it should be used with caution in patients with asthma.
The treatment typically lasts four weeks and can be administered through different dosing schedules, including conventional, modified rush, and rush. In a conventional schedule, injections are given weekly for 12 weeks, with the interval increasing stepwise to two, three, then four weeks. Maintenance treatment is then continued four weekly for at least three years.
Immunotherapy is recommended for patients with a history of severe systemic reactions or moderate systemic reactions with additional risk factors, such as a high serum tryptase or a high risk of stings, or whose quality of life is reduced by fear of venom allergy. Skin testing can be done, and measuring allergen-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies is less sensitive.
Patients need referral to an immunotherapy specialist, and injections can be self-administered at home. However, a healthcare professional who can recognize and treat anaphylaxis should be present at the time of injection, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation facilities should be available. The patient should be observed for one hour after injection, and any symptoms, even if mild, need to be monitored until they resolve.
While local or systemic reactions may occur, including anaphylaxis, major side-effects are not a significant risk. However, risks are higher in people with asthma. Overall, hyposensitisation can be an effective treatment for allergies that have not responded to other therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Routine referral to gastroenterology
Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today
Explanation:Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment
Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor. His movements seem slower and he has cog-wheel rigidity when his arms are flexed and extended.
Which of the following is most likely to cause these symptoms?
Your Answer: Atypical antipsychotics
Correct Answer: Conventional antipsychotics
Explanation:Comparison of Medications and their Side Effects
When it comes to medication, it is important to understand the potential side effects that may occur. In this case, the patient is experiencing a tremor and excessive urination and thirst. Let’s compare the potential causes of these symptoms based on different types of medication.
Conventional Antipsychotics:
Common extrapyramidal side-effects include dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. It is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent.Atypical Antipsychotics:
Atypical antipsychotics have low rates of causing extrapyramidal side effects and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.Lithium:
Excessive urination and thirst are common side effects associated with lithium, with rates up to 70% in long-term patients who are treated with it. However, it is not known to cause extrapyramidal side effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor:
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors typically cause headache, dry mouth, insomnia, and restlessness. However, it is more likely that this patient’s symptoms are caused by a drug such as an atypical antipsychotic, which more commonly causes extrapyramidal side effects such as a tremor.Tricyclic Antidepressants:
Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause antimuscarinic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. They do not usually cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.In conclusion, based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is tense and cannot relax. She lies awake at night worrying about work. You suspect she may have generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about the diagnosis of GAD.Your Answer: Anxiety must have been present for at least 6 months
Explanation:Understanding Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a mental health condition characterized by excessive and persistent worry about various topics, events, or activities. This worry occurs more often than not for at least six months and is considered to be clearly excessive. In adults, the worry can be related to job responsibilities, health, finances, and other everyday life circumstances. In children, the worry is more likely to be related to their abilities or performance in school.
Individuals with GAD find it challenging to control their worry, which may shift from one topic to another. They also experience at least three of the following symptoms: edginess or restlessness, fatigue, impaired concentration, irritability, increased muscle aches or soreness, difficulty sleeping, and physical symptoms such as sweating, nausea, or diarrhea.
These symptoms make it hard for individuals with GAD to carry out day-to-day activities and responsibilities. It is important to note that these symptoms are unrelated to any other medical conditions and cannot be explained by the effect of substances, including prescription medication, alcohol, or recreational drugs. Additionally, these symptoms are not better explained by a different mental disorder.
Overall, understanding the criteria for diagnosing GAD can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support for this mental health condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day history of dysuria and frequency of urination. There is no reported visible haematuria. He has no history of urinary tract infections, however, he does report longstanding problems with poor urinary stream, hesitancy of urination, and nocturia.
Clinical examination of his abdomen and loins is unremarkable and he has no fever or systemic upset.
Urine dipstick testing shows:
nitrites positive
leucocytes ++
protein ++
blood ++.
You diagnose a urinary tract infection, send a urine sample to the laboratory for analysis, and treat him with a course of antibiotics.
You go on to chat about his more longstanding lower urinary tract symptoms. Following this discussion, he is keen to have a rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign feeling prostate.
Two days later, the laboratory urine results return confirming a urinary tract infection.
When is the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?Your Answer: Postpone the test for at least 4 weeks
Correct Answer: The test can be performed any time from now
Explanation:Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test
The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, or ejaculation.
It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if the person has recently ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the past 48 hours, the test should also be postponed. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, studies have shown that rectal examination has minimal impact on PSA levels.
In summary, several factors can affect the results of the PSA blood test, and it is crucial to consider these factors before interpreting the test results accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with cyclical pelvic pain and painful bowel movements. She has previously sought treatment from gynaecology and found relief with paracetamol and mefenamic acid, but the pain has returned and she is seeking alternative options. She is not pregnant but plans to start a family within the next few years.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition from the options provided below?Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:If simple analgesia with paracetamol and NSAIDs is not effective in treating endometriosis symptoms, hormonal treatment with the combined oral contraceptive pill or a progestogen should be considered.
Although a referral to gynaecology may be necessary due to the recurrence of symptoms and potential pelvic/bowel involvement, primary care can offer further treatment options in the meantime. Hormonal treatment is recommended for this patient, and the combined oral contraceptive pill or any progestogen options can be considered. As the patient plans to start a family soon, a hormonal option that can be quickly reversed is preferred.
Buscopan is not an appropriate treatment for endometriosis. While it may provide some relief for pelvic symptoms during menstruation, it is not a treatment for the condition. It may be used to alleviate cramps associated with irritable bowel syndrome.
Injectable depo-provera is not the best option for this patient as it may delay the return of fertility, which conflicts with her desire to start a family soon.
Opioid analgesia is not recommended for endometriosis treatment as it carries the risk of side effects and dependence. It is not a suitable long-term solution for managing symptoms.
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications, when taken with Tamoxifen, may decrease its efficacy and are commonly prescribed to women for anxiety, depression, and hot flashes?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Tamoxifen
Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer, and its effectiveness is dependent on the bioactivation process catalyzed by the cytochrome CYP2D6. However, studies have shown that certain drugs can inhibit CYP2D6, leading to a decrease in the clinical effectiveness of tamoxifen.
Among the drugs that can inhibit CYP2D6, paroxetine and fluoxetine are considered strong inhibitors. Therefore, concomitant use of these drugs with tamoxifen should be avoided. Other drugs have not been shown to have this problem and can be used safely with tamoxifen. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure the best possible treatment outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. He is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure.
Whilst in hospital he is started on:
Aspirin 75 mg OD
Simvastatin 40 mg ON
Bisoprolol 5 mg OD
Digoxin 125 mcg OD
Ramipril 10 mg OD and
Furosemide 40 mg OD.
He comes to see you a few days after discharge complaining of feeling generally unwell. His wife tells you that he has been a bit confused and that he has vomited on several occasions. The patient also reports that his vision is blurred and has a yellow tinge to it.
On examination, he is in atrial fibrillation at a rate of 60 beats per minute, his chest is clear and he has minimal pedal oedema.
He was seen two days ago by the practice nurse for blood tests.
The results showed
Sodium 136 mmol/L (137 - 144)
Potassium 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 4.9)
Urea 6.4 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5)
Creatinine 124 μmol/L (60 - 110)
What is the underlying cause of his unwellness?Your Answer: Embolic cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Symptoms of Digoxin Toxicity
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of digoxin toxicity, which can occur when taking the medication for heart failure or atrial fibrillation. Hypokalaemia increases the risk of developing digoxin toxicity, which can cause confusion, vomiting, blurred vision, and xanthopsia (yellow tinge to vision). While confusion may also indicate an embolic CVA, the other symptoms do not fit. Liver failure would cause jaundice, but the patient’s vision has a yellow tinge, not their sclerae. Renal artery stenosis is usually suspected if renal function deteriorates after starting an ACE inhibitor, but the patient’s urea is normal. Therefore, the patient should be admitted to the hospital immediately for assessment and treatment. Digoxin-specific antibody fragments (Digibind ®) are available for use in cases of life-threatening overdosage, and may be necessary beyond withdrawing the digoxin and correcting any electrolyte abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 92 µmol/l
You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.
He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.
You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.
What is the correct information to give this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.
Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old gentleman presents to you with a recent diagnosis of mild obstructive sleep apnoea (AHI<15). He holds a group 1 driving licence and is seeking advice regarding driving. Upon reviewing the specialist's letter, you note that the patient has been prescribed night time continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation. What recommendations should you provide to the patient regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He can only drive once satisfactory control of his symptoms has been attained
Explanation:Driving Restrictions for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that is often overlooked, but it can have serious consequences for driving safety. Excessive daytime sleepiness caused by OSA has been linked to numerous road traffic accidents. Both group 1 and group 2 license holders have restrictions on driving if OSA continues to cause excessive awake time sleepiness. For group 1 drivers, they can resume driving once their symptoms are under control.
The main issue is not treatment compliance, but rather the control of symptoms to eliminate excessive awake time sleepiness. Group 1 license holders do not require specialist approval to drive, and the method of treatment is not a determining factor. The DVLA uses the Apnea Hypopnea Index (AHI) to assess OSA, which may be unfamiliar to some. However, it is important to be familiar with it and interpret the latest DVLA guidance accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with intermittent epistaxis and no identifiable triggers. He has a history of adenoid surgery and anaphylaxis to peanuts. On examination, no bleeding focus is found, and his lab results show:
Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What would be the most appropriate suggestion for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recommend first aid measures during nosebleeds
Explanation:Given the patient’s normal examination and blood counts, the most suitable option would be to provide first aid measures for nosebleeds. It is important to note that Naseptin cream contains peanut oil, which is contraindicated for this patient due to her anaphylaxis to peanuts.
Performing cautery of a bleeding focus can be considered by a primary care practitioner with experience, but only if a bleeding focus is identified and not bilaterally to avoid perforation. However, since no abnormalities were found during examination, cautery is not recommended.
If the clinician is uncertain about management, referring the patient to an ENT surgeon is a viable option. This may not be the best initial management, but it is appropriate if the issue recurs.
If the bleeding persists despite appropriate first aid measures, it is recommended to advise the patient to go to the emergency department. The first aid measures would include applying pressure below the nasal bones on the nasal cartilage while sitting forward for 20 minutes.
Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management
Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.
Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, exacerbation factors such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia can trigger nosebleeds. Other causes include hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and cocaine use.
If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures such as sitting with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Cautery should be used initially if the source of the bleed is visible, while packing may be used if cautery is not viable or the bleeding point cannot be visualized.
Patients that are haemodynamically unstable or compromised should be admitted to the emergency department, while those with a bleed from an unknown or posterior source should be admitted to the hospital. Epistaxis that has failed all emergency management may require sphenopalatine ligation in theatre. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing nosebleeds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A concerned mother brings her 6-month-old baby daughter to see you because her testicles seem to be absent from the scrotum. Her father has a history of undescended testicles and there are no other health concerns.
On examination, she appears well and seems to have normal sexual development other than bilateral undescended testicles.
How would you manage this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to a specialist to be seen within 2 weeks
Explanation:Management of Bilateral Undescended Testes
The management of bilateral undescended testes differs from that of unilateral undescended testes. If a child presents with bilateral undescended testes, urgent referral should be made to be seen within 2 weeks. This is because undescended testes, especially those presenting later in life, pose a risk of developing future malignancy. Boys and young men with a history of undescended testes should be advised to perform regular testicular self-examination during and after puberty to monitor for testicular cancer.
Furthermore, if there are bilateral undescended testicles at birth, it is important to consider whether there is a disorder of sexual development requiring further urgent genetic or endocrine investigation. In such cases, referral for specialist investigation should be made within 24 hours. It is crucial to recognize the significance of bilateral undescended testes and take appropriate action to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is given subcutaneously
Explanation:Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Choose from the options the one symptom that would indicate primary HIV infection over infectious mononucleosis.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maculopapular rash
Explanation:Recognizing Primary HIV Infection: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Approximately 70% of individuals with HIV infection experience symptoms during seroconversion, but very few are diagnosed when seen in general practice. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better response to treatment. Primary HIV infection presents with symptoms resembling glandular fever, including fever, sweats, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, generalized lymphadenopathy, a macular erythematous truncal eruption, and thrombocytopenia. These symptoms start 2-6 weeks after exposure and usually resolve within two weeks, although it can take longer.
The most specific features of primary HIV infection are a maculopapular or morbilliform rash affecting predominantly the upper part of the body and mucosal ulcers affecting the mouth and genital areas. In infectious mononucleosis, any rash is macular and very transient. Rash occurs in about 50% and ulcers in nearly 40% of patients. Less commonly, gastrointestinal symptoms predominate, including abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hepatitis, and even gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Rare presentations include encephalopathy, pneumonitis, and rhabdomyolysis associated with acute renal failure. Sometimes, acute, severe immunosuppression may occur during the primary infection.
When considering infectious mononucleosis, GPs need to think about HIV as well. It is also a possibility in patients with unexplained fever who have been in countries with high HIV prevalence. The diagnosis should be considered in patients presenting with a blotchy rash on the trunk, or oral or perianal ulcers, and if infections that can occur when the CD4 count drops (e.g., candidiasis or herpes zoster) are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old is brought to your clinic with suspected reflux. The parents report that the baby has been experiencing regurgitation after feeds and becomes very distressed. The baby is fully formula-fed and has been difficult to feed. However, the baby is gaining weight well and is otherwise healthy. There is a family history of reflux, with the baby's older sibling having had reflux in infancy. Upon examination, the baby doesn't have tongue-tie, has a normal suck-reflex, and the abdominal examination is reassuring. What steps should be taken to address the suspected reflux?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of alginate added to the formula
Explanation:While positional management of gastro-oesophageal reflux may seem logical, it is important to note that infants should always sleep on their backs to minimize the risk of cot death. Although there are no concerning symptoms, it is advisable to provide treatment for the child’s distress. It is not recommended to increase the volume of feeds as this may exacerbate reflux. Instead, smaller and more frequent feeds could be considered. Diluting the feeds will not improve symptoms and may actually increase the volume in the stomach.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.
Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1:FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made two to three months ago prior to her having had the spirometry performed. A chest x Ray was normal and she gave up cigarettes a few weeks ago. Her home peak flow measurments show a 30% diurnal variation.
On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' two to three times a year. You can see from her notes that she has received at least two courses of antibiotics each year for the last three years for acute episodes of productive cough and shortness of breath.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in a LABA and ICS in a combination inhaler
Explanation:Management of COPD with Persistent Breathlessness
Patients with COPD who experience persistent breathlessness despite regular SABA use require additional inhaled treatment to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. Spirometry results confirming an obstructive picture, frequent exacerbations, and an FEV1 of less than 50% are useful in determining the next step in management.
The two options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. The choice depends on the presence of asthmatic features, such as a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher eosinophil count, substantial variation on FEV1 over time, or a substantial diurnal variation in peak flow. If asthmatic features are present, a LABA & ICS combination inhaler is preferred.
Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder, while a regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA may improve symptoms, but the combination of ICS/LABA is more beneficial for patients with a history of frequent exacerbations.
In addition to inhaled treatment, it may be necessary to issue an emergency supply of antibiotics and oral steroids for patients with persistent breathlessness and frequent exacerbations. For more information on managing stable COPD, refer to the NICE Visual Summary guide and NICE NG115 guidelines.
Overall, the management of COPD with persistent breathlessness requires a tailored approach based on individual patient characteristics and the presence of asthmatic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for the past eight weeks. He has also experienced fresh rectal bleeding on multiple occasions during this time. The patient has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and haemorrhoids. On examination, his abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, and a normal rectal exam is noted.
What would be the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe loperamide and review in three to four weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Colorectal Cancer
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, individuals under the age of 50 who experience a change in bowel habit to looser and/or more frequent stools, along with rectal bleeding, should be urgently referred for suspected colorectal cancer.
In addition, NICE recommends considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for adults under 50 with rectal bleeding and unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. These referrals should result in an appointment within two weeks to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 2 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused the urinary retention?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Urinary retention may be caused by tricyclic antidepressants, particularly Amitriptyline, due to its anticholinergic effects. This can result in symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, mydriasis, and urinary retention. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are not typically associated with these side effects, with dry mouth and urinary retention being rare occurrences. Unlike Amitriptyline, Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, doesn’t have anticholinergic effects.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of severe itching and sores containing 'white fibers' which he claims are living 'bugs'. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medication. Upon examination, there are well-defined, scooped-out clean ulcerations with occasional white filaments, some hypopigmented patches, and extensive chronic excoriations. There is sparing between the scapula. Despite numerous dermatology and infectious disease outpatient investigations and treatments, no cause has been found, and symptoms have not improved.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing delusional parasitosis, which is a fixed false belief that they are infested with ‘bugs’. This is consistent with the symptoms of ‘Morgellons’, which is a form of delusional parasitosis. The reported fibers or materials are often found to be common household or clothing materials, and the skin lesions are likely caused by repetitive picking. The hypopigmented patches are healed lesions, and the area between the scapula is spared, indicating that the patient is unable to reach that area and no lesions were found there. This is not indicative of body dysmorphic disorder, conversion disorder, or somatic symptom disorder.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.
It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic after getting cement in his eye while working on a construction site. He is experiencing severe pain in the eye, sensitivity to light, and is having difficulty with examination due to intense blepharospasm. What is the most suitable initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irrigate the eye with saline for 15–20 minutes
Explanation:First Aid Treatment for Chemical Eye Burns
Chemical eye burns require immediate first aid treatment before history-taking or examination. The priority is to remove the substance causing the burn. Copious irrigation with normal saline or non-sterile water is crucial for 15-30 minutes, checking the pH every five minutes if possible. If a topical anaesthetic is needed, add a drop every five minutes. Contact lenses should be removed, and the patient’s head tilted back over the sink. Referral to the nearest eye hospital should be made after initial management due to the high risk of corneal scarring.
Alkali substances are particularly dangerous as they penetrate rapidly and can cause irreversible damage at a pH value above 11.5. There is no need to use a burr to remove any foreign body, as this may cause further damage.
Administering chloramphenicol ointment is not indicated for chemical eye burns. Instead, the patient should be advised to attend the local Ophthalmology Department for review.
If only water is available, it should be used to irrigate the eye. However, if saline is an option, it would be the preferred choice as it helps to neutralize the acid. Remember, prompt first aid treatment is crucial to prevent long-term damage to the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset of left eye pain that has lasted for 10 hours. She mistakenly left her contact lenses in overnight and woke up with severe pain, sensitivity to light, and blurry vision. What is the most suitable treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levofloxacin 5mg/ml eye drops
Explanation:Levofloxacin for Contact Lens Keratitis
Levofloxacin is a type of fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is effective against gram negative bacteria. This makes it a suitable treatment option for contact lens keratitis, which is commonly caused by the gram negative bacteria pseudomonas aeruginosa. It is important to note that Chloramphenicol is not effective against this type of bacteria, so it should not be used as a treatment option.
While dexamethasone may be used in conjunction with other treatments, it is not typically used as a standalone treatment for contact lens associated keratitis. Fusidic acid is more commonly used to treat staphylococcal infections, while propamidine isethionate is reserved for the rare form of contact lens keratitis caused by acanthamoeba.
In summary, levofloxacin is a suitable treatment option for contact lens keratitis caused by gram negative bacteria such as pseudomonas aeruginosa. Other treatment options may be used in conjunction with levofloxacin, but it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the specific type of bacteria causing the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to you with complaints of fatigue, overall weakness, and weight loss that have been going on for the past 4 months. He also reports experiencing pain in his second and third fingers for the past month and has been having increasing difficulty with erectile dysfunction. You suspect that he may have hereditary haemochromatosis and order blood tests.
What result would be most consistent with your suspected diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - low; transferrin saturation - high
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is characterised by elevated levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation, along with a low total iron-binding capacity on iron studies. This hereditary disorder leads to an excessive accumulation of iron. Any options that do not show raised levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation can be excluded during initial screening. Transferrin is a plasma protein responsible for transporting iron, and its levels increase during iron deficiency to maximise iron utilisation. Total iron-binding capacity reflects the availability of iron-binding sites on transferrin, and its levels increase during iron deficiency and decrease during iron overload. Therefore, a low total iron-binding capacity is expected in haemochromatosis.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You operate a clinic for smoking cessation and respiratory disease intervention at your practice in northern England. Concerning inequalities, what is accurate regarding the emergence of bronchial carcinoma and related risk factors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The incidence is higher in patients from higher socio-economic groups
Explanation:Inequalities in Lung Cancer Rates in the UK
Unfortunately, there are significant inequalities in lung cancer rates across the UK. Scotland, Northern Ireland, and Wales have higher rates compared to England, with the north of England having higher rates than the south. These disparities are concerning and require attention to ensure that all individuals have access to the same level of care and resources.
Furthermore, patients from lower socio-economic groups have lower survival rates from bronchial carcinoma than those from higher socio-economic backgrounds. This highlights the need for additional resources in areas with substantial deprivation, particularly in terms of smoking cessation services and management of associated respiratory diseases. By addressing these inequalities, we can work towards improving outcomes for all individuals affected by lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on the border of her left lower lip. She reports that she had a similar episode before and that topical hydrogen peroxide did not help.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Explanation:If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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