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Question 1
Correct
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A 35 year old is admitted to the emergency department after a severe assault resulting in facial and head trauma. The patient presents with continuous nasal discharge, and a fellow healthcare provider expresses concern about potential cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea. What is the most suitable test to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nasal discharge tested for beta-2 transferrin
Explanation:If someone is suspected to have CSF rhinorrhoea, their nasal discharge should be tested for beta-2 transferrin. This test is considered the most accurate diagnostic method to confirm the presence of CSF rhinorrhoea and has replaced glucose testing.
Further Reading:
Zygomatic injuries, also known as zygomatic complex fractures, involve fractures of the zygoma bone and often affect surrounding bones such as the maxilla and temporal bones. These fractures can be classified into four positions: the lateral and inferior orbital rim, the zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and the zygomatic arch. The full extent of these injuries may not be visible on plain X-rays and may require a CT scan for accurate diagnosis.
Zygomatic fractures can pose risks to various structures in the face. The temporalis muscle and coronoid process of the mandible may become trapped in depressed fractures of the zygomatic arch. The infraorbital nerve, which passes through the infraorbital foramen, can be injured in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures. In orbital floor fractures, the inferior rectus muscle may herniate into the maxillary sinus.
Clinical assessment of zygomatic injuries involves observing facial asymmetry, depressed facial bones, contusion, and signs of eye injury. Visual acuity must be assessed, and any persistent bleeding from the nose or mouth should be noted. Nasal injuries, including septal hematoma, and intra-oral abnormalities should also be evaluated. Tenderness of facial bones and the temporomandibular joint should be assessed, along with any step deformities or crepitus. Eye and jaw movements must also be evaluated.
Imaging for zygomatic injuries typically includes facial X-rays, such as occipitomental views, and CT scans for a more detailed assessment. It is important to consider the possibility of intracranial hemorrhage and cervical spine injury in patients with facial fractures.
Management of most zygomatic fractures can be done on an outpatient basis with maxillofacial follow-up, assuming the patient is stable and there is no evidence of eye injury. However, orbital floor fractures should be referred immediately to ophthalmologists or maxillofacial surgeons. Zygomatic arch injuries that restrict mouth opening or closing due to entrapment of the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle also require urgent referral. Nasal fractures, often seen in conjunction with other facial fractures, can be managed by outpatient ENT follow-up but should be referred urgently if there is uncontrolled epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhea, or septal hematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 2
Correct
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You evaluate a 32-year-old woman with grip weakness. During your examination, you find that 'Froment's sign' is positive.
Which nerve is most likely to be affected in this scenario?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Ulnar nerve lesions can be assessed using Froment’s sign. To perform this test, a piece of paper is placed between the patient’s thumb and index finger. The examiner then tries to pull the paper out of the patient’s pinched grip. If the patient has an ulnar nerve palsy, they will struggle to maintain the grip and may compensate by flexing the flexor pollicis longus muscle of the thumb to maintain pressure. This compensation is evident when the patient’s interphalangeal joint of the thumb flexes. Froment’s sign is a useful indicator of ulnar nerve dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a two day history of nausea and vomiting. He has reduced GCS, is hypotensive and tachycardic. His wife tells you he has Addison's but frequently neglects to take his medication. Concerning Addison's, which electrolyte imbalance is most frequently linked to the condition?
Your Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:The electrolyte imbalances that are commonly observed in individuals with Addison’s disease are decreased sodium levels, increased potassium levels, increased calcium levels, and decreased glucose levels. In cases of Addisonian crisis, which is a severe form of Addison’s disease, patients may also experience hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), hypercalcemia (high calcium levels), and hypoglycemia (low glucose levels). Additionally, these patients may often develop acidosis.
Further Reading:
Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.
The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.
Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is brought in by ambulance. He is unconscious and was discovered next to an empty container of antifreeze by his girlfriend.
What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate in a patient with ethylene glycol poisoning?Your Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation:The following list provides a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders.
Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. It can also occur due to pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.
Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can occur due to lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). It can also be a result of renal failure or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with dysuria, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she shows tenderness in the left renal angle and has a temperature of 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the lab.
What is the MOST suitable antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Cefuroxime
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.
According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.
NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).
For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.
For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 72-year-old man who complains of difficulty breathing. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During the examination, you observe a pronounced first heart sound (S1).
What is the most probable cause of this finding?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:The first heart sound (S1) is created by vibrations produced when the mitral and tricuspid valves close. It occurs at the end of diastole and the start of ventricular systole, coming before the upstroke of the carotid pulsation.
A sample of the normal heart sounds can be listened to here (courtesy of Littman stethoscopes).
A loud S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
– Increased transvalvular gradient (e.g. mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis)
– Increased force of ventricular contraction (e.g. tachycardia, hyperdynamic states like fever and thyrotoxicosis)
– Shortened PR interval (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome)
– Mitral valve prolapse
– Thin individualsA soft S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
– Inappropriate apposition of the AV valves (e.g. mitral regurgitation, tricuspid regurgitation)
– Prolonged PR interval (e.g. heart block, digoxin toxicity)
– Decreased force of ventricular contraction (e.g. myocarditis, myocardial infarction)
– Increased distance from the heart (e.g. obesity, emphysema, pericardial effusion)A split S1 can be associated with the following conditions:
– Right bundle branch block
– LV pacing
– Ebstein anomaly -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee.
What dosage of IV hydrocortisone should be administered in this situation?Your Answer: 100 mg
Correct Answer: 50 mg
Explanation:Corticosteroids can be beneficial in preventing or reducing prolonged reactions. According to the current APLS guidelines, the recommended doses of hydrocortisone for different age groups are as follows:
– Children under 6 months: 25 mg administered slowly via intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) route.
– Children aged 6 months to 6 years: 50 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Children aged 6 to 12 years: 100 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Children over 12 years: 200 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.
– Adults: 200 mg administered slowly via IM or IV route.It is important to note that the most recent ALS guidelines do not recommend the routine use of corticosteroids for treating anaphylaxis in adults. However, the current APLS guidelines still advocate for the use of corticosteroids in children to manage anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman comes in with intense pain in her right flank and microscopic blood in her urine. After evaluation, you diagnose her with renal colic.
What is the ONE medication that has been proven to improve the passage of kidney stones in cases of renal colic?Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Explanation:NSAIDs are known to have a relaxing effect on the ureter, but a randomized controlled trial found no difference between NSAIDs and a placebo in terms of this effect. Currently, only two classes of drugs, calcium channel blockers and alpha-blockers, are considered effective as medical expulsive therapy (MET). Calcium channel blockers work by blocking the active calcium channel pump that the smooth muscle of the ureter uses to contract, resulting in relaxation of the muscle and improved stone passage. Alpha-blockers, on the other hand, are commonly used as the first-line treatment to enhance stone passage. They reduce the basal tone of the ureter smooth muscle, decrease the frequency of peristaltic waves, and lower ureteric contraction. This leads to a decrease in intraureteric pressure below the stone, increasing the chances of stone passage. Patients treated with calcium channel blockers or alpha-blockers have been shown to have a 65% higher likelihood of spontaneous stone passage compared to those not given these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 9
Correct
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You intend to administer a peripheral nerve block using 1% lidocaine to a healthy young female weighing 50 kg. What is the maximum amount of lidocaine that can be given in this scenario?
Your Answer: 150 mg lidocaine hydrochloride
Explanation:The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 200 mg. However, when lidocaine is administered with adrenaline in a 1:200,000 ratio, the maximum safe dose increases to 7 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 500 mg.
In this particular case, the patient weighs 50 kg, so the maximum safe dose of lidocaine hydrochloride would be 50 multiplied by 3 mg, resulting in a total of 150 mg.
For more detailed information on lidocaine hydrochloride, you can refer to the BNF section dedicated to this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 10
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her nose an hour ago. You assessed her when she arrived 30 minutes ago and recommended that she try to stop the bleeding by pinching the soft, cartilaginous part of her nose. She has been doing this since then, but her nose is still bleeding. During the examination, you are unable to see where the bleeding is coming from.
What is the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer: Pack the nose with a nasal tampon, e.g. Rapid Rhino
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.
Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a severe headache. There is currently a heatwave in the area, and he has been working outdoors in heavy protective gear. His skin feels dry and hot, he is breathing rapidly, and his core temperature is currently 41.7°C. He is extremely restless and experiencing severe shivering.
What is the most suitable initial course of treatment in this case?Your Answer: Dantrolene
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a core temperature higher than 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. There are two forms of heat stroke: classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs during high environmental temperatures and typically affects elderly patients during heat waves, and exertional heat stroke, which occurs during strenuous physical exercise in hot conditions, such as endurance athletes competing in hot weather.
The typical clinical features of heat stroke include a core temperature greater than 40.6°C, extreme fatigue, headache, syncope, facial flushing, vomiting, and diarrhea. The skin is usually hot and dry, although sweating can occur in around 50% of cases of exertional heat stroke. The loss of the ability to sweat is a late and concerning sign. Hyperventilation is almost always present. Cardiovascular dysfunction, including arrhythmias, hypotension, and shock, as well as respiratory dysfunction, including acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), can occur. Central nervous system dysfunction, such as seizures and coma, may also be observed. If the temperature rises above 41.5°C, multi-organ failure, coagulopathy, and rhabdomyolysis can occur.
In the management of heat stroke, benzodiazepines like diazepam can be helpful in patients with agitation and/or shivering. They help reduce excessive heat production and agitation. In severe cases, patients may require paralysis. Antipyretics like paracetamol, aspirin, and NSAIDs have no role in the treatment of heat stroke. They do not work because the hypothalamus, which regulates body temperature, is healthy but overloaded in heat stroke. Moreover, antipyretics may actually be harmful in patients who develop complications like liver, blood, and kidney problems as they can worsen bleeding tendencies.
Dantrolene is commonly used in the treatment of heat stroke, although there is currently no high-level evidence to support its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects, including lowering the seizure threshold, interfering with thermoregulation, causing anticholinergic side effects, hypotension, and hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar. She has been hit multiple times in the face and has a noticeable swelling on her right cheek. Her facial X-ray shows a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture but no other injuries.
Which of the following will be visible on her X-ray?Your Answer: Fracture of the zygomatic arch
Explanation:Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures, also known as quadramalar or tripod fractures, make up around 40% of all midface fractures and are the second most common facial bone fractures after nasal bone fractures.
These injuries typically occur when a direct blow is delivered to the malar eminence of the cheek. They consist of four components:
1. Widening of the zygomaticofrontal suture
2. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
3. Fracture of the inferior orbital rim and the walls of the anterior and posterior maxillary sinuses
4. Fracture of the lateral orbital rim. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is given an antibiotic while pregnant. As a result, the newborn is born with deafness in both ears.
Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for these abnormalities?Your Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Aminoglycosides have the ability to pass through the placenta and can lead to damage to the 8th cranial nerve in the fetus, resulting in permanent bilateral deafness.
ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence if given in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters.
Aminoglycosides, like gentamicin, can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.
High doses of aspirin can lead to 1st trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines, including diazepam, when administered late in pregnancy, can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers, if given in the 1st trimester, can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol is associated with grey baby syndrome.
Corticosteroids, if given in the 1st trimester, may cause orofacial clefts.
Danazol, if given in the 1st trimester, can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride should not be handled by pregnant women as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.
Haloperidol, if given in the 1st trimester, may cause limb malformations. If given in the 3rd trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.
Heparin can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.
Isoniazid can cause maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.
Isotretinoin carries a high risk of teratogenicity, including multiple congenital malformations, spontaneous abortion, and intellectual disability.
Lithium, if given in the 1st trimester, poses a risk of fetal cardiac malformations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 14
Correct
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A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department by family members after complaining of chest discomfort while having a glass of wine with them at home. During triage, the patient suddenly loses consciousness and becomes non-responsive. The triage nurse immediately calls for assistance and starts performing CPR. Upon your arrival, you connect the defibrillator leads and briefly pause CPR to assess the heart rhythm. Which of the following cardiac rhythms can be treated with defibrillation?
Your Answer: Ventricular fibrillation
Explanation:Defibrillation is a procedure used to treat two specific cardiac rhythms, ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia. It involves delivering an electrical shock randomly during the cardiac cycle to restore a normal heart rhythm. It is important to note that defibrillation is different from cardioversion, which involves delivering energy synchronized to the QRS complex.
Further Reading:
In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.
During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.
There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.
There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.
When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.
Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 15
Correct
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A 32 year old female has been brought into the ED during the early hours of the morning after being found unresponsive on a park bench by a police patrol. The ambulance crew started Cardiopulmonary resuscitation which has continued after the patient's arrival in the ED. You are concerned about hypothermia given recent frosts and outdoor temperatures near freezing. Which of the following methods is most suitable for evaluating the patient's core temperature?
Your Answer: Oesophageal temperature probe
Explanation:In patients with hypothermia, it is important to use a low reading thermometer such as an oesophageal temperature probe or vascular temperature probe. Skin surface thermometers are not effective in hypothermia cases, and rectal and tympanic thermometers may not provide accurate readings. Therefore, it is recommended to use oesophageal temperature or vascular temperature probes. However, it is worth noting that oesophageal probes may not be accurate if the patient is receiving warmed inhaled air.
Further Reading:
Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.
ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.
Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.
Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A child develops pain, swelling, induration, and a rash following a tetanus vaccination. The child is subsequently discovered to have suffered the Arthus reaction.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction has occurred in this case?Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity reaction
Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:The Arthus reaction is a response that occurs when antigen/antibody complexes are formed in the skin after an antigen is injected. Although rare, these reactions can happen after receiving vaccines that contain tetanus toxoid or diphtheria toxoid. They are classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
Arthus reactions are characterized by pain, swelling, induration, hemorrhage, and sometimes necrosis. Typically, these symptoms appear 4-12 hours after vaccination.
Type III hypersensitivity reactions occur when insoluble antigen-antibody complexes accumulate in different tissues and are not effectively cleared by the body’s innate immune cells. This leads to an inflammatory response in the affected tissues.
Some other examples of type III hypersensitivity reactions include immune complex glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, serum sickness, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease five years ago has experienced a sudden and significant deterioration in her functioning. Her motor symptoms are limited to her right arm and leg. She has lost nearly all functionality in her right hand, but there is no noticeable tremor. Additionally, her right arm frequently exhibits involuntary jerking movements and is held in a contracted position. The patient also reports a decline in her memory abilities.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Multiple System Atrophy
Correct Answer: Corticobasal degeneration
Explanation:The Parkinson-plus syndromes are a group of neurodegenerative disorders that share similar features with Parkinson’s disease but also have additional clinical characteristics that set them apart from idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (iPD). These syndromes include Multiple System Atrophy (MSA), Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP), Corticobasal degeneration (CBD), and Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB).
Multiple System Atrophy (MSA) is a less common condition than iPD and PSP. It is characterized by the loss of cells in multiple areas of the nervous system. MSA progresses rapidly, often leading to wheelchair dependence within 3-4 years of diagnosis. Some distinguishing features of MSA include autonomic dysfunction, bladder control problems, erectile dysfunction, blood pressure changes, early-onset balance problems, neck or facial dystonia, and a high-pitched voice.
To summarize the distinguishing features of the Parkinson-plus syndromes compared to iPD, the following table provides a comparison:
iPD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Typically starts at rest on one side of the body
– Levodopa response: Excellent response
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Late in the disease
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingMSA:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusingPSP:
– Symptom onset: Both sides equally affected
– Tremor: Less common, if present affects both sides
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Personality changes, depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1 year
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, difficulty in looking downwardsCBD:
– Symptom onset: One side of the body affected more than the other
– Tremor: Not common but may occur
– Levodopa response: Minimal response (but often tried in early stages of disease)
– Mental changes: Depression
– Balance/falls: Within 1-3 years
– Common eye abnormalities: Dry eyes, trouble focusing -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Correct
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A student nurse on a clinical rotation in the Emergency Department experiences a needlestick injury from a patient with a history of chronic hepatitis B.
Which ONE statement about hepatitis B prophylaxis is accurate?Your Answer: An accelerated regime is available for post-exposure prophylaxis
Explanation:Hepatitis B vaccination is included in the routine childhood immunisation schedule to provide long-term protection against hepatitis for children under 1 year of age. For these children, the vaccination consists of a primary course that includes the diphtheria with tetanus, pertussis, hepatitis B, poliomyelitis, and Haemophilus influenza type B vaccine. This primary course is given at 4 weekly intervals.
The Hepatitis B vaccine is a conjugate vaccine that contains a surface antigen of the hepatitis virus (HBsAg) and is combined with an aluminium adjuvant to enhance its effectiveness. It is produced using a recombinant DNA technique.
When administering the vaccine to adults and older children, the preferred injection site is the deltoid muscle. However, in younger children, the anterolateral thigh is the preferred site. It is not recommended to inject the vaccine in the gluteal area as it has been found to have reduced efficacy.
The standard vaccination regime for Hepatitis B consists of three primary doses. The initial dose is followed by further doses at one and six months later. A booster dose is recommended at five years if the individual is still at risk.
In cases of post-exposure prophylaxis, an accelerated vaccination regime is used. This involves administering a vaccination at the time of exposure, followed by repeat doses at one and two months later.
In high-risk situations, Hepatitis B immunoglobulin can be given up to 7 days after exposure. Ideally, it should be administered within 12 hours, but according to the BNF, it can still be effective if given within 7 days after exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents with recent weight loss, difficulty breathing, and chest pain. She has a long history of smoking and has been diagnosed with COPD. A chest X-ray reveals a large mass in the left lung consistent with cancer. You recommend that she be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment, but she refuses and does not want her family to know about her condition. She also states that she does not want to hear any negative news. After assessing her mental capacity and determining that she is competent and has capacity, which of the following statements is true regarding her ongoing care?
Your Answer: You should document that the patient has declined information
Explanation:There is no indication for an independent psychiatric evaluation of this patient. However, it is important to clearly document in his medical records that you have assessed his mental capacity and determined that he is capable of making decisions. It would not be appropriate in this case to refer him to a specialist against his wishes or to breach confidentiality by discussing his illness with his family or next of kin. According to the guidelines set by the General Medical Council (GMC), it is necessary to document the fact that the patient has declined relevant information. It is also important to avoid pressuring the patient to change their mind in these circumstances.
For further information, please refer to the GMC guidelines on treatment and care towards the end of life: good practice in decision making.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 20
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness. She experienced flu-like symptoms for four days and had difficulty eating during that time. She visited the Emergency Department with these symptoms but was discharged with instructions to rest in bed and take regular paracetamol. Her blood tests today reveal the following results:
- Bilirubin: 50 mmol (3-20)
- ALT: 34 IU/L (5-40)
- ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
- LDH: 150 IU/L (100-330)
How is the condition typically inherited in this patient?Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is the most common hereditary cause of elevated bilirubin levels and can be found in up to 5% of the population. It is characterized by an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin without any detectable liver disease. In most cases, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there have been some instances of autosomal dominant inheritance, particularly in Asian populations.
The elevated bilirubin levels in Gilbert’s syndrome do not have any serious consequences and typically occur during times of stress, physical exertion, fasting, or infection. While it is often asymptomatic, some individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain.
The underlying cause of the elevated bilirubin levels is a decrease in the activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, which is responsible for conjugating bilirubin. In Gilbert’s syndrome, the bilirubin levels are generally less than three times the upper limit of normal, with more than 70% of the bilirubin being unconjugated. Liver function tests and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) levels are typically within the normal range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is 15-weeks pregnant presents with bothersome hives after coming into contact with latex. The itching is extremely intense, and she is asking for something to alleviate the symptoms.
Which of the following antihistamines is the most suitable to prescribe to this patient?Your Answer: Fexofenadine
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Urticaria is a common condition that causes a red, raised, itchy rash on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be localized or spread out. Approximately 15% of people will experience urticaria at some point in their lives. There are two forms of urticaria: acute and chronic, with acute being more common.
According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals seeking treatment for urticaria should be offered a non-sedating antihistamine from the second-generation category. Examples of second-generation antihistamines include cetirizine, loratadine, fexofenadine, desloratadine, and levocetirizine.
It is no longer recommended to use conventional first-generation antihistamines like promethazine and chlorpheniramine for urticaria. These medications have short-lasting effects and can cause sedation and anticholinergic side effects. They may also interfere with sleep, learning, and performance, as well as interact negatively with alcohol and other medications. In some cases, lethal overdoses have been reported. Terfenadine and astemizole should also be avoided as they can be harmful to the heart when combined with certain drugs like erythromycin and ketoconazole.
It is advisable to avoid antihistamines during pregnancy if possible. There is a lack of systematic studies on their safety during pregnancy. However, if an antihistamine is necessary, chlorpheniramine is the recommended choice. For breastfeeding women, loratadine or cetirizine are preferred options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a brief history of headaches, which are more severe in the morning, and blurred vision and ringing in the ears. Her headache is worse than usual today, and she has vomited multiple times. She has no significant medical history but does take the combined oral contraceptive pill. On examination, you find her to be overweight, and her neurological system examination reveals a sixth cranial nerve palsy, but no other focal neurology and fundoscopy reveals bilateral papilloedema.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri. This condition typically affects overweight women in their 20s and 30s.
The clinical features of idiopathic intracranial hypertension include:
– Headache: The headache is usually worse in the morning and evenings, relieved by standing, and worsened when lying down. It can also be aggravated by coughing and sneezing. Some patients may experience pain around the shoulder girdle.
– Nausea and vomiting
– Visual field defects: These develop gradually over time.
– 6th nerve palsy and diplopia
– Bilateral papilloedemaTo investigate this condition, the patient should undergo a CT scan and/or MRI of the brain, as well as a lumbar puncture to measure the opening pressure and analyze the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
The primary treatment goal for idiopathic intracranial hypertension is to prevent visual loss. This can be achieved through one of the following strategies:
– Repeated lumbar puncture to control intracranial pressure (ICP)
– Medical treatment with acetazolamide
– Surgical decompression of the optic nerve sheath -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department complaining of a nosebleed. The patient informs you that they have been applying pressure to the soft part of their nose for 10 minutes. You request the patient to release the pressure for examination purposes, but upon doing so, bleeding commences from both nostrils, and the bleeding point remains unseen. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Advise the patient to apply pressure to the soft part of the nose for a further 15 minutes
Correct Answer: Insert bilateral nasal tampons
Explanation:Nasal packing is recommended for cases of bilateral epistaxis (nosebleeds on both sides) and when it is difficult to locate the source of bleeding. If initial first aid measures, such as applying pressure to the soft part of the nose, do not stop the bleeding or if there is no visible bleeding point, nasal packing is necessary. In the UK, the most commonly used methods for nasal packing are Merocel nasal tampons and rapid-rhino inflatable nasal packs. If anterior nasal packing fails to control the bleeding, posterior nasal packing with a Foley catheter may be considered. Ideally, this procedure should be performed by an ENT surgeon, but if specialist input is not immediately available, a trained clinician in the emergency department can carry it out.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 24
Correct
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You are overseeing the care of a 70-year-old male who suffered extensive burns in a residential fire. After careful calculation, you have determined that the patient will require 6 liters of fluid over the course of the next 24 hours. Which intravenous fluid would be the most suitable to prescribe?
Your Answer: Hartmann's solution
Explanation:When it comes to managing acute burns, Hartmann’s or lactated Ringers are the preferred intravenous fluids. There is no scientific evidence to support the use of colloids in burn management. In the United Kingdom, Hartmann’s solution is the most commonly used fluid for this purpose.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 25
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her nose an hour ago. You assessed her when she arrived 30 minutes ago and recommended that she try to stop the bleeding by pinching the soft, cartilaginous part of her nose. She has been doing this since then, but her nose is still bleeding. During the examination, you can see bleeding points in both nostrils. What is the most suitable next step to take?
Your Answer: Pack the nose with nasal tampons, e.g. Rapid Rhinos
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.
Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient has sustained an injury to their left upper limb, resulting in a peripheral neuropathy. Upon examination, the patient presents with clawing of their hand, with hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the little and ring fingers. However, their wrist flexion remains normal. Sensory loss is observed over the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers, while sensation in the rest of the hand and forearm, including the palm and dorsal aspect of all fingers, is normal. Additionally, Froment's sign is positive.
Which specific nerve has been affected in this case?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at the wrist
Explanation:The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8-T1 nerve roots. It may also carry fibers from C7 on occasion. This nerve has both motor and sensory functions.
In terms of motor function, the ulnar nerve innervates the muscles of the hand, excluding the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals (which are supplied by the median nerve). It also innervates two muscles in the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.
Regarding sensory function, the ulnar nerve provides innervation to the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the associated palm and dorsal hand area. There are three sensory branches responsible for the cutaneous innervation of the ulnar nerve. Two of these branches arise in the forearm and travel into the hand: the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the skin of the medial half of the palm, and the dorsal cutaneous branch, which innervates the dorsal skin of the medial one and a half fingers and the associated dorsal hand. The third branch arises in the hand and is called the superficial branch, which innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers.
When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the anterior forearm will be spared. However, if the ulnar nerve is injured at the wrist, these muscles will be affected. Additionally, when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, flexion of the wrist can still occur due to the intact median nerve, but it will be accompanied by abduction as the flexor carpi ulnaris adducts the hand. On the other hand, wrist flexion will be unaffected when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the wrist.
The sensory function also differs depending on the site of damage. When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, all three cutaneous branches will be affected, resulting in complete sensory loss in the areas innervated by the ulnar nerve. However, if the damage occurs at the wrist, the two branches that arise in the forearm may be spared.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at either the elbow or wrist leads to a characteristic claw hand appearance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Correct
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A trauma patient has arrived at the emergency department for evaluation. There is worry about a potential cervical spine injury. What criteria would classify the patient as high risk for cervical spine injury?
Your Answer: Age ≥ 65
Explanation:When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.
If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.
NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.
Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 28
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation (AF) is found to have an INR of 9.1 during a routine check. He is feeling fine and does not have any signs of bleeding.
What is the most suitable approach to reverse the effects of warfarin in this patient?Your Answer: Stop warfarin and give oral vitamin K
Explanation:The current recommendations from NICE for managing warfarin in the presence of bleeding or an abnormal INR are as follows:
In cases of major active bleeding, regardless of the INR level, the first step is to stop administering warfarin. Next, 5 mg of vitamin K (phytomenadione) should be given intravenously. Additionally, dried prothrombin complex concentrate, which contains factors II, VII, IX, and X, should be administered. If dried prothrombin complex is not available, fresh frozen plasma can be given at a dose of 15 ml/kg.
If the INR is greater than 8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is greater than 8.0 with no bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Oral administration of 1-5 mg of vitamin K can be given, and this dose can be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped. Slow injection of 1-3 mg of vitamin K can be given, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR is less than 5.0.
If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 with no bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld, and the subsequent maintenance dose should be reduced.
For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of warfarin therapy and the BNF guidance on the use of phytomenadione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is given carbamazepine for her epilepsy during her pregnancy. As a result of this medication, the newborn develops a defect.
What is the most probable defect that will occur as a result of using this drug during pregnancy?Your Answer: Extrapyramidal syndrome
Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
Explanation:There is an increased risk of neural tube defects in women with epilepsy who take carbamazepine during pregnancy, ranging from 2 to 10 times higher. Additionally, there is a risk of haemorrhagic disease of the newborn associated with this medication. It is crucial to have discussions about epilepsy treatments with women of childbearing age during the planning stages so that they can start early supplementation of folic acid.
Below is a list outlining the most commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:
ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these medications can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can lead to ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.
Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can cause first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these medications can result in respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine: This medication is associated with haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can cause grey baby syndrome in newborns.
Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.
Danazol: When administered in the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride tablets. Crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development in the fetus.
Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. In the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.
Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 30
Correct
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a 49-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presenting with sepsis, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice is diagnosed with ascending cholangitis. Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is true?
Your Answer: It occurs when the common bile duct becomes infected
Explanation:Ascending cholangitis occurs when there is an infection in the common bile duct, often caused by a stone that has led to a blockage of bile flow. This condition is characterized by the presence of Charcot’s triad, which includes jaundice, fever with rigors, and pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. It is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening, with some patients also experiencing altered mental status and low blood pressure due to septic shock, known as Reynold’s pentad. Urgent biliary drainage is the recommended treatment for ascending cholangitis.
In acute cholecystitis, Murphy’s sign is typically positive, indicating tenderness in the right upper quadrant when the gallbladder is palpated. However, it is negative in cases of biliary colic and ascending cholangitis. The white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated in ascending cholangitis, along with the presence of jaundice and significantly increased levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and bilirubin.
To differentiate between biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis, the following can be helpful:
Biliary colic:
– Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
– Fever: Absent
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Normal
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
– Bilirubin: NormalAcute cholecystitis:
– Pain duration: More than 12 hours
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Positive
– WCC & CRP: Elevated
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
– Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevatedAscending cholangitis:
– Pain duration: Variable
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Elevated
– AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated
– Bilirubin: Elevated -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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