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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old teacher complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old teacher complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her hands that appeared 15 minutes after she wore a pair of latex gloves. What is the most probable cause for the development of this rash?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reactions are allergic reactions that occur when a person is exposed again to a particular antigen, known as an allergen. These reactions are triggered by IgE and typically happen within 15 to 30 minutes after exposure to the allergen.

      A rapid onset of an urticarial rash, which occurs shortly after being exposed to an allergen (such as latex), is highly likely to be caused by a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with recurring nosebleeds. During the examination, you observe...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with recurring nosebleeds. During the examination, you observe a small bleeding point in the front of the nose.
      What is the PRIMARY location for anterior bleeding?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Explanation:

      The upper part of the nose receives blood supply from the anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries, which are derived from the internal carotid artery. On the other hand, the remaining parts of the nose and sinuses are nourished by the greater palatine, sphenopalatine, and superior labial arteries. These arteries are branches of the external carotid arteries.

      In the front part of the nasal septum, there exists a network of blood vessels where the branches of the internal and external carotid artery connect. This network is known as Kiesselbach’s plexus, also referred to as Little’s area. It is worth noting that Kiesselbach’s plexus is the most common location for anterior bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of vision loss in his right...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye over the past few hours. On fundoscopic examination, you observe that the entire retina appears pale and a cherry red spot is visible in the macular region.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by sudden, painless, and unilateral loss of vision. The appearance of the retina in CRAO is distinct from that of CRVO. It shows a pale retina with narrowed blood vessels. A notable feature is the presence of a ‘cherry-red spot’ at the center of the macula, which is supplied by the underlying choroid. Additionally, examination often reveals an afferent pupillary defect.

      On the other hand, branch retinal artery occlusion (BRAO) typically affects only one quadrant of the retina, leading to visual field deficits in that specific area rather than complete loss of vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful left elbow. She is left-handed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful left elbow. She is left-handed and participates in various sports. During the examination, you observe tenderness over her medial epicondyle, and her pain intensifies with resisted pronation at the wrist.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tennis elbow

      Correct Answer: Golfer’s elbow

      Explanation:

      Golfer’s elbow, also known as medial epicondylitis, is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain in the flexor tendons that attach to the medial epicondyle. It is commonly caused by repetitive strain, with golf being a frequent culprit. Similarly, tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, occurs when the same strain and inflammation affect the tendons at the lateral epicondyle. In both cases, pain can be worsened by resisted wrist extension. Treatment involves avoiding activities that trigger symptoms and using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for flare-ups. In more severe cases, steroid injections may be necessary.

      Ulnar neuritis presents with symptoms such as hand clumsiness, muscle weakness, and wasting in the muscles supplied by the ulnar nerve. Patients may also experience numbness or tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger. This condition is caused by narrowing of the ulnar groove and can be associated with risk factors like osteoarthritis, trauma, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nerve conduction studies may be recommended, and surgical decompression may be necessary.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis occurs when there is inflammation of the tendon sheaths for the thumb extensor and abductor muscles. This leads to pain over the radial styloid, which worsens with forced adduction and flexion of the thumb. Treatment options include anti-inflammatory medications, thumb splints, and steroid injections.

      Bursitis can develop from repeated pressure on the olecranon, resulting in swelling and discomfort in that area. Aspiration of fluid may be performed to rule out conditions like gout or sepsis. If these conditions are ruled out, bursitis often resolves on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62 year old presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden hearing loss. During the examination, tuning fork tests are performed. Weber's test lateralizes to the left side and Rinne's testing is positive for both ears.

      This assessment supports which of the following?

      Your Answer: Left sided conductive hearing loss

      Correct Answer: Left sided sensorineural hearing loss

      Explanation:

      When performing Weber’s test, if the sound lateralizes to the unaffected side, it suggests sensorineural hearing loss. If the sound lateralizes to the right, it could mean that there is sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear or conductive hearing loss in the right ear. A positive Rinne test result indicates that air conduction is greater than bone conduction, which is normal or seen in sensorineural hearing loss. On the other hand, a negative Rinne test result suggests that bone conduction is greater than air conduction, which is typically seen in conductive hearing loss. Therefore, if there is conductive hearing loss in the left ear, a negative Rinne test result would indicate sensorineural loss on the left side.

      Further Reading:

      Hearing loss is a common complaint that can be caused by various conditions affecting different parts of the ear and nervous system. The outer ear is the part of the ear outside the eardrum, while the middle ear is located between the eardrum and the cochlea. The inner ear is within the bony labyrinth and consists of the vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea. The vestibulocochlear nerve connects the inner ear to the brain.

      Hearing loss can be classified based on severity, onset, and type. Severity is determined by the quietest sound that can be heard, measured in decibels. It can range from mild to profound deafness. Onset can be sudden, rapidly progressive, slowly progressive, or fluctuating. Type of hearing loss can be either conductive or sensorineural. Conductive hearing loss is caused by issues in the external ear, eardrum, or middle ear that disrupt sound transmission. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by problems in the cochlea, auditory nerve, or higher auditory processing pathways.

      To diagnose sensorineural and conductive deafness, a 512 Hz tuning fork is used to perform Rinne and Weber’s tests. These tests help determine the type of hearing loss based on the results. In Rinne’s test, air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC) are compared, while Weber’s test checks for sound lateralization.

      Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by the abnormal accumulation of skin cells in the middle ear or mastoid air cell spaces. It is believed to develop from a retraction pocket that traps squamous cells. Cholesteatoma can cause the accumulation of keratin and the destruction of adjacent bones and tissues due to the production of destructive enzymes. It can lead to mixed sensorineural and conductive deafness as it affects both the middle and inner ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of dizziness. It started suddenly...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of dizziness. It started suddenly in the morning upon waking, and he is currently unable to get out of bed and is lying still. The dizziness symptoms are worsened by moving and he has vomited multiple times. He had a viral upper respiratory tract infection last week that has now resolved. He has never experienced dizziness before. On examination, he has an unsteady gait, slightly reduced hearing on the left, and prominent horizontal nystagmus to the right. The Hallpike maneuver was negative, and Weber's test lateralizes to the right.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Correct Answer: Labyrinthitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between the various causes of vertigo can be challenging, but there are several clues in the question that can help determine the most likely cause. If the patient has a history of sudden and severe vertigo following a viral infection, the diagnosis is likely to be vestibular neuritis or labyrinthitis. Labyrinthitis, which is characterized by hearing loss and tinnitus, is more likely in this case. Meniere’s disease, on the other hand, can also cause hearing loss and tinnitus along with vertigo, but it typically has a longer history of gradually worsening hearing loss and does not cause prolonged vertigo attacks.

      Here are the key clinical features of the different causes of vertigo mentioned in the question:

      Vestibular neuronitis:
      – Infection of the 8th cranial nerve, often viral or bacterial
      – Usually preceded by a sinus infection or upper respiratory tract infection
      – Severe vertigo
      – Vertigo is not related to position
      – No hearing loss or tinnitus
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus (involuntary eye movement) away from the side of the lesion
      – Episodes may recur over an 18-month period

      Labyrinthitis:
      – Caused by a viral infection
      – Can affect the entire inner ear and 8th cranial nerve
      – Severe vertigo
      – Vertigo can be related to position
      – Can be accompanied by sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion

      Benign positional vertigo:
      – Mostly idiopathic (unknown cause)
      – Can be secondary to trauma or other inner ear disorders
      – Provoked by head movement, rolling over, or upward gaze
      – Brief episodes lasting less than 5 minutes
      – No hearing loss or tinnitus
      – Nausea is common, vomiting is rare
      – Positive Hallpike maneuver (a diagnostic test)

      Meniere’s disease:
      – Idiopathic (unknown cause)
      – Sensorineural hearing loss
      – Hearing loss usually gradually worsens and affects one ear
      – Commonly associated with tinnitus
      – Vertigo attacks typically last 2-3 hours
      – Attacks of vertigo last less than 24 hours
      – Sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear(s)
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
      What dose of rectal diazepam is recommended for the treatment of the convulsing child?

      Your Answer: 0.2 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: 0.5 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The recommended dose of rectal diazepam for treating a child experiencing convulsions is 0.5 mg per kilogram of body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense pain five days after a recent...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense pain five days after a recent tooth extraction. The pain is primarily concentrated in the socket where the tooth was removed. Upon examination, she has no fever and there are no signs of facial or gum swelling.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry socket

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a condition called acute alveolar osteitis, commonly known as ‘dry socket’. It occurs when the blood clot covering the socket gets dislodged, leaving the bone and nerve exposed. This can result in infection and intense pain.

      There are several risk factors associated with the development of a dry socket. These include smoking, inadequate dental hygiene, extraction of wisdom teeth, use of oral contraceptive pills, and a previous history of dry socket.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis, which refers to inflammation of the iris. It typically presents with symptoms such as a painful and red eye, sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. The photo above shows a possible indication of this condition, with the presence of pus in the front chamber of the eye, known as hypopyon.

      Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause is identified. Other potential triggers include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can be associated with anterior uveitis.

      It is worth noting that there is a strong link between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the mid-spine area and sacroiliitis. It is important to mention that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65 year old male comes to the emergency department with a 24...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old male comes to the emergency department with a 24 hour history of increasing dizziness. The patient reports feeling a sensation of spinning upon waking up this morning, and it has progressively worsened throughout the day. The patient mentions that head movements exacerbate the symptoms, but even when remaining still, the spinning sensation persists. There are no complaints of hearing loss, ringing in the ears, changes in vision, or focal neurological abnormalities.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis is characterized by the sudden and prolonged onset of rotational vertigo. This vertigo can occur spontaneously, upon waking up, or gradually worsen throughout the day. It is particularly aggravated by changes in head position, although it remains constant even when the head is still. Unlike other conditions, vestibular neuronitis does not cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or focal neurological deficits. On the other hand, in BPPV, episodes of vertigo are usually brief, lasting less than 20 seconds, and only occur when there is a change in head position.

      Further Reading:

      Vestibular neuritis, also known as vestibular neuronitis, is a condition characterized by sudden and prolonged vertigo of peripheral origin. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection. It is important to note that vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis are not the same condition, as labyrinthitis involves inflammation of the labyrinth. Vestibular neuritis typically affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 60, with a 1:1 ratio of males to females. The annual incidence is approximately 3.5 per 100,000 people, making it one of the most commonly diagnosed causes of vertigo.

      Clinical features of vestibular neuritis include nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement, typically in a horizontal or horizontal-torsional direction away from the affected ear. The head impulse test may also be positive. Other symptoms include spontaneous onset of rotational vertigo, which is worsened by changes in head position, as well as nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness. These severe symptoms usually last for 2-3 days, followed by a gradual recovery over a few weeks. It is important to note that hearing is not affected in vestibular neuritis, and symptoms such as tinnitus and focal neurological deficits are not present.

      Differential diagnosis for vestibular neuritis includes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease, migraine, stroke, and cerebellar lesions. Management of vestibular neuritis involves drug treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, typically through short courses of medication such as prochlorperazine or cyclizine. If symptoms are severe and fluids cannot be tolerated, admission and administration of IV fluids may be necessary. General advice should also be given, including avoiding driving while symptomatic, considering the suitability to work based on occupation and duties, and the increased risk of falls. Follow-up is required, and referral is necessary if there are atypical symptoms, symptoms do not improve after a week of treatment, or symptoms persist for more than 6 weeks.

      The prognosis for vestibular neuritis is generally good, with the majority of individuals fully recovering within 6 weeks. Recurrence is thought to occur in 2-11% of cases, and approximately 10% of individuals may develop BPPV following an episode of vestibular neuritis. A very rare complication of vestibular neuritis is ph

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You are managing a 42 year old female who has been brought into...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 42 year old female who has been brought into the emergency department with burns and suspected inhalation injury following a house fire. Due to concerns about the patient's ability to maintain their airway it is decided to proceed with intubation and ventilation. Your initial attempt to intubate the patient fails. What is the maximum number of intubation attempts that should be made?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      According to the guidelines of the Difficult Airway Society, it is recommended to limit intubation attempts to a maximum of three. However, if the first three attempts are unsuccessful, a more experienced colleague may make a fourth attempt. If all four attempts are unsuccessful, the intubation should be declared as a failure.

      Further Reading:

      A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.

      Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.

      If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.

      Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a respiratory infection comes in with excessive, foul-smelling diarrhea. After conducting tests, the patient is diagnosed with Clostridium Difficile diarrhea.
      What is the most effective measure to minimize transmission to other patients?

      Your Answer: Hand washing

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is Gram-positive, anaerobic, and capable of forming spores. When individuals take broad-spectrum antibiotics, it can disrupt the normal bacteria in their intestines, allowing C. difficile to multiply and cause C. difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD). This condition leads to inflammation and bleeding of the large intestine, resulting in a distinct pseudomembranous appearance. The main symptoms include abdominal cramps, bloody and/or watery diarrhea, and fever. It is worth noting that the majority of C. difficile infections occur in individuals aged 65 and above.

      To prevent the spread of C. difficile, it is crucial to practice proper hand hygiene. This involves washing hands with water and plain or antibacterial soap for 15 to 30 seconds after using the bathroom and before eating. Paying attention to areas such as the fingernails, between the fingers, and the wrists is essential. Thoroughly rinsing hands and drying them with a single-use towel is also recommended. Additionally, patients and their family members should remind healthcare providers to wash their hands regularly.

      While alcohol-based hand rubs can be effective against many bacteria, they may be less effective against C. difficile. Therefore, during an outbreak of C. difficile infection, it is advisable to use soap and running water instead.

      Taking precautions such as wearing an apron and gloves and isolating patients in separate rooms are important measures to prevent contact transmission. However, it is crucial to remember that these precautions will be ineffective if proper hand washing is neglected. Hand hygiene remains the primary and most crucial step in preventing the spread of C. difficile.

      When it comes to treatment, oral vancomycin is the recommended first-line option for C. difficile associated diarrhea. However, it is important to note that this treatment does not limit the spread of the bacteria from one patient to another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25 year old female is treated for anaphylaxis and responds well to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female is treated for anaphylaxis and responds well to treatment. You inform the patient that she will need to remain under observation. What is the minimum duration an adult patient should be observed following an episode of anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer: 24 hours

      Correct Answer: 6-12 hours

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended that adults and young people aged 16 years or older who receive emergency treatment for suspected anaphylaxis should be observed for a minimum of 6-12 hours from the time symptoms first appear. There are certain situations where a longer observation period of 12 hours is advised. These include cases where the allergen is still being absorbed slowly, the patient required more than 2 doses of adrenaline, there is severe asthma or respiratory compromise, or if the presentation occurs at night or there is difficulty in accessing emergency care.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of headaches. He recently started a new job and spends a significant amount of time on a computer. He admits to feeling more stressed than usual lately. He describes his headaches as a tight band around his head that sometimes extends into his neck. The headaches are more severe towards the end of the day and typically last for a couple of hours. He does not experience any aura, sensitivity to light, or nausea during an episode. The headaches occur approximately 4-5 days per month and are relieved by over-the-counter pain medication.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic tension-type headache

      Correct Answer: Episodic tension-type headache

      Explanation:

      This patient’s history is indicative of episodic tension-type headache. Chronic tension-type headache is defined as experiencing headaches on more than 15 days per month.

      Migraine with typical aura presents with temporary visual disturbances such as hemianopia or scintillating scotoma that spreads. Migraine without aura must meet the criteria set by the International Headache Society, which are outlined below:

      1. The patient must have at least five attacks that meet criteria 2-4.
      2. The duration of each headache attack should be between 4 and 72 hours.
      3. The headache must have at least two of the following characteristics:
      – Located on one side of the head
      – Pulsating quality
      – Moderate or severe pain intensity
      – Aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity (e.g., walking or climbing stairs)
      4. During the headache, the patient must experience at least one of the following:
      – Nausea and/or vomiting
      – Sensitivity to light (photophobia) and sound (phonophobia)
      5. The headache should not be attributed to another disorder.

      Medication overuse headache is suspected when a patient uses multiple medications, often at low doses, without experiencing any relief from their headaches. Combination medications containing barbiturates, codeine, and caffeine are frequently involved. The diagnosis can only be confirmed when the symptoms improve after discontinuing the medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a swollen, red, and painful left knee....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a swollen, red, and painful left knee. The doctor suspects septic arthritis and sends a joint aspirate to the lab.
      What is the most common organism that causes septic arthritis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint, causing it to become purulent. The main symptoms of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and systemic upset. The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria such as Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea, and Escherichia coli can also be responsible.

      According to the current recommendations by NICE and the BNF, the initial treatment for septic arthritis is flucloxacillin. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is a suspicion of MRSA infection, vancomycin is the recommended choice. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or a Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred treatment. The suggested duration of treatment is typically 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is prescribed prochlorperazine for symptoms of dizziness and nausea. Shortly after taking the medication, she experiences an acute dystonic reaction.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this reaction? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced acute dystonic reactions are frequently seen in the Emergency Department. These reactions occur in approximately 0.5% to 1% of patients who have been administered metoclopramide or prochlorperazine. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has proven to be effective in treating drug-induced parkinsonism, akathisia, and acute dystonia. In emergency situations, a dose of 10 mg IV of procyclidine can be administered to promptly treat acute drug-induced dystonic reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old woman with Marfan syndrome presents with a severe tearing chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman with Marfan syndrome presents with a severe tearing chest pain that spreads to her back. A diagnosis of aortic dissection is suspected.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding aortic dissection is FALSE?

      Your Answer: Turner’s syndrome is a recognized risk factor

      Correct Answer: An inter-arm blood pressure differential of greater than 10 mmHg is a highly sensitive predictor

      Explanation:

      Acute aortic dissection is characterized by the rapid formation of a false, blood-filled channel within the middle layer of the aorta. It is estimated to occur in 3 out of every 100,000 individuals per year.

      Patients with aortic dissection typically experience intense chest pain that spreads to the area between the shoulder blades. The pain is often described as tearing or ripping and may also extend to the neck. Sweating, paleness, and rapid heartbeat are commonly observed at the time of presentation. Other possible symptoms include focal neurological deficits, weak pulses, fainting, and reduced blood flow to organs.

      A significant difference in blood pressure between the arms, greater than 20 mmHg, is a highly sensitive indicator. If the dissection extends backward, it can involve the aortic valve, leading to the early diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation.

      Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, aortic coarctation, the use of sympathomimetic drugs like cocaine, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, tertiary syphilis, and pre-existing aortic aneurysm.

      Aortic dissection can be classified according to the Stanford classification system:
      – Type A affects the ascending aorta and the arch, accounting for 60% of cases. These cases are typically managed surgically and may result in the blockage of coronary arteries and aortic regurgitation.
      – Type B begins distal to the left subclavian artery and accounts for approximately 40% of cases. These cases are usually managed with medication to control blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. Despite taking the maximum dosage of paracetamol, codeine phosphate, and ibuprofen regularly, his symptoms are no longer being adequately managed. You determine that it is necessary to discontinue the use of codeine phosphate and initiate stronger opioids.
      What would be the most suitable initial dosage regimen in this situation?

      Your Answer: 20-30 mg subcutaneous morphine daily in divided doses

      Correct Answer: 20-30 mg oral morphine daily in divided doses

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old girl presents with a sudden onset of a painful throat that...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past 24 hours. She denies having a cough or any symptoms of a cold. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is visible exudate on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen. No anterior cervical lymph nodes can be felt.
      Based on the Centor Clinical Prediction Score for assessing sore throat, what is the most suitable course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Treat immediately with empiric antibiotics

      Explanation:

      There are two scoring systems that NICE recommends for assessing sore throat: the Centor Clinical Prediction Score and the FeverPAIN Score.

      The Centor Clinical Prediction Score was initially developed as a tool to determine the likelihood of a group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS) infection in adults with a sore throat. It was created and tested in US Emergency Departments, specifically for adults.

      The Centor score evaluates patients based on several criteria, with one point given for each positive criterion. These criteria include a history of fever (temperature above 38°C), the presence of exudate or swelling on the tonsils, tender or swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes, and the absence of cough.

      According to the current NICE guidance, the Centor score can be used to guide management in the following way:
      – A score of 0 to 2 indicates a 3-17% likelihood of streptococcus isolation, and antibiotics are not recommended.
      – A score of 3 to 4 suggests a 32-56% likelihood of streptococcus isolation, and immediate treatment with empirical antibiotics or a ‘backup prescription’ should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has severe bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals a significantly widened mediastinum, deviation of the trachea to the left, and fractures of the third and fourth ribs. Her vital signs are HR 88, BP 130/78, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen.

      At which anatomical site is an injury MOST likely to have occurred in this case?

      Your Answer: Near the point of origin of the brachiocephalic trunk

      Correct Answer: Near the ligamentum arteriosum

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture is a relatively common cause of sudden death following major trauma, especially high-speed road traffic accidents (RTAs). It is estimated that 15-20% of deaths from RTAs are due to this injury. If the aortic rupture is promptly recognized and treated, patients who survive the initial injury can fully recover.

      Surviving patients often have an incomplete laceration near the ligamentum arteriosum of the aorta. The continuity is maintained by either an intact adventitial layer or a contained mediastinal hematoma, which prevents immediate exsanguination and death.

      Detecting traumatic aortic rupture can be challenging as many patients do not exhibit specific symptoms, and other injuries may also be present, making the diagnosis unclear.

      Chest X-ray findings can aid in the diagnosis and include fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, a grossly widened mediastinum, a hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus (or NG tube) to the right.

      Helical contrast-enhanced CT scanning is highly sensitive and specific for detecting aortic rupture, but it should only be performed on hemodynamically stable patients.

      Treatment options include primary repair or resection of the torn segment with replacement using an interposition graft. Endovascular repair is also now considered an acceptable alternative approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset of facial weakness on one side that has occurred within the last 72 hours. You are considering the possible causes for this condition. What would assist in differentiating between an upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron lesion?

      Your Answer: Inability to puff out cheek

      Correct Answer: Forehead sparing

      Explanation:

      When there is damage to the facial nerve in the LMN, the patient will experience paralysis in the forehead and will be unable to wrinkle their brow. However, in an upper motor neuron lesion, the frontalis muscle is not affected, so the patient can still furrow their brow normally and their ability to close their eyes and blink is not affected. Lower motor neuron lesions affect the final part of the nerve pathway to all branches of the facial nerve, resulting in paralysis of the forehead and the rest of the face on that side. It is important to note that the speed of onset may provide some clues about the cause of the lesion, but it does not help determine the specific location of the damage.

      Further Reading:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle weakness or drooping. The exact cause is unknown, but it is believed to be related to viral infections such as herpes simplex or varicella zoster. It is more common in individuals aged 15-45 years and those with diabetes, obesity, hypertension, or upper respiratory conditions. Pregnancy is also a risk factor.

      Diagnosis of Bell’s palsy is typically based on clinical symptoms and ruling out other possible causes of facial weakness. Symptoms include rapid onset of unilateral facial muscle weakness, drooping of the eyebrow and corner of the mouth, loss of the nasolabial fold, otalgia, difficulty chewing or dry mouth, taste disturbance, eye symptoms such as inability to close the eye completely, dry eye, eye pain, and excessive tearing, numbness or tingling of the cheek and mouth, speech articulation problems, and hyperacusis.

      When assessing a patient with facial weakness, it is important to consider other possible differentials such as stroke, facial nerve tumors, Lyme disease, granulomatous diseases, Ramsay Hunt syndrome, mastoiditis, and chronic otitis media. Red flags for these conditions include insidious and painful onset, duration of symptoms longer than 3 months with frequent relapses, pre-existing risk factors, systemic illness or fever, vestibular or hearing abnormalities, and other cranial nerve involvement.

      Management of Bell’s palsy involves the use of steroids, eye care advice, and reassurance. Steroids, such as prednisolone, are recommended for individuals presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset. Eye care includes the use of lubricating eye drops, eye ointment at night, eye taping if unable to close the eye at night, wearing sunglasses, and avoiding dusty environments. Reassurance is important as the majority of patients make a complete recovery within 3-4 months. However, some individuals may experience sequelae such as facial asymmetry, gustatory lacrimation, inadequate lid closure, brow ptosis, drooling, and hemifacial spasms.

      Antiviral treatments are not currently recommended as a standalone treatment for Bell’s palsy, but they may be given in combination with corticosteroids on specialist advice. Referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary if the patient has eye symptoms such as pain, irritation, or itch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old man presents with recent onset episodes of dizziness. He describes recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with recent onset episodes of dizziness. He describes recurrent bouts of vertigo that last anywhere from a few minutes to half an hour. He reports that they are often followed by a severe one-sided headache and are frequently accompanied by flashing lights and difficulties in focusing his vision. He finds bright lights and loud sounds very uncomfortable during the episodes.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral labyrinthitis

      Correct Answer: Vestibular migraine

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a common neurological complaint, affecting approximately 16% of individuals throughout their lifetime. Vestibular migraine is characterized by the presence of migrainous symptoms along with recurring episodes of vertigo and/or unsteadiness. It is a leading cause of vertigo and the most frequent cause of spontaneous episodic vertigo. The disturbance in the vestibular system can manifest as part of the aura phase or occur independently. The duration of these episodes can range from a few seconds to several days, typically lasting for minutes to hours. Interestingly, they often occur without accompanying headaches. Diagnosing vestibular migraine is primarily based on ruling out other potential causes. For prolonged individual attacks, antivertiginous and antiemetic medications are commonly used. However, specific antimigraine drugs may not provide significant relief in rescue situations. The cornerstone of managing vestibular migraine lies in the use of prophylactic medication. In some cases, referral to a neurologist may be necessary, especially if the patient is experiencing acute symptoms for the first time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - There are numerous casualties reported after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological and...

    Incorrect

    • There are numerous casualties reported after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear) incident, with indications pointing towards sarin gas as the responsible agent. In the management of this situation, certain casualties are administered atropine as an antidote.
      What is the mode of action of atropine?

      Your Answer: Reactivating acetylcholinesterase

      Correct Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The primary approach to managing nerve gas exposure through medication involves the repeated administration of antidotes. The two antidotes utilized for this purpose are atropine and pralidoxime.

      Atropine is the standard anticholinergic medication employed to address the symptoms associated with nerve agent poisoning. It functions as an antagonist for muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, effectively blocking the effects caused by excessive acetylcholine. Initially, a 1.2 mg intravenous bolus of atropine is administered. This dosage is then repeated and doubled every 2-3 minutes until excessive bronchial secretion ceases and miosis (excessive constriction of the pupil) resolves. In some cases, as much as 100 mg of atropine may be necessary.

      Pralidoxime (2-PAMCl) is the standard oxime used in the treatment of nerve agent poisoning. Its mechanism of action involves reactivating acetylcholinesterase by scavenging the phosphoryl group attached to the functional hydroxyl group of the enzyme, thereby counteracting the effects of the nerve agent itself. For patients who are moderately or severely poisoned, pralidoxime should be administered intravenously at a dosage of 30 mg/kg of body weight (or 2 g in the case of an adult) over a period of four minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 35 year old epileptic is brought into the emergency department after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old epileptic is brought into the emergency department after experiencing a grand mal seizure. The patient is unable to close their mouth. You suspect temporomandibular joint dislocation. What is the initial imaging test recommended for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer: Orthopantomogram

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line diagnostic test for TMJ dislocation is an OPG. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine suggests that an OPG is the most effective initial imaging technique for diagnosing TMJ dislocation. However, mandibular series X-ray views and CT scans can also be used as alternative imaging methods.

      Further Reading:

      TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.

      The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.

      Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.

      If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.

      Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.

      Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.

      After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 14-year-old girl comes in with a sudden onset of a painful throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl comes in with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She denies having a cough or any symptoms of a cold. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is visible exudate on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen. No anterior cervical lymph nodes can be felt. What is her score on the Centor Clinical Prediction Score for assessing her sore throat?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      There are two scoring systems that NICE recommends for assessing sore throat: the Centor Clinical Prediction Score and the FeverPAIN Score.

      The Centor Clinical Prediction Score was initially developed as a tool to determine the likelihood of a group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS) infection in adults with a sore throat. This score was created and tested in US Emergency Departments, specifically for adult patients.

      The Centor score evaluates patients based on several criteria, with one point given for each positive criterion. These criteria include a history of fever (temperature above 38°C), the presence of exudate or swelling on the tonsils, tender or swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes, and the absence of cough.

      According to the current NICE guidance, the Centor score can be used to guide management in the following way:
      – A score of 0 to 2 indicates a 3-17% likelihood of streptococcus isolation, and antibiotics are not recommended.
      – A score of 3 to 4 indicates a 32-56% likelihood of streptococcus isolation, and immediate treatment with empirical antibiotics or a backup prescription should be considered.

      By utilizing these scoring systems, healthcare professionals can make more informed decisions regarding the management and treatment of patients with sore throat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28 year old female is brought into the emergency department after a...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old female is brought into the emergency department after a jet skiing accident at a local lake. The patient fell off the jet ski but her leg got caught in the handlebars and she was submerged for 2-3 minutes before being freed. The patient's friends started rescue breaths and chest compressions as the patient was unconscious but were stopped after approximately 30 seconds by an off duty lifeguard who assessed the patient and determined she was breathing spontaneously and had a pulse. On examination, the patient is breathing spontaneously with intermittent coughing, oxygen saturation levels are 97% on room air, a few crackling sounds are heard in the lower parts of the lungs, and the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 13 out of 15.

      Which of the following should be included in the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Obtain an arterial blood gas sample for evidence of hypoxia

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample from all patients who have experienced submersion (drowning) as even individuals without symptoms may have a surprising level of hypoxia. Draining the lungs is not effective and not recommended. There is no strong evidence to support the routine use of antibiotics as a preventive measure. Steroids have not been proven to be effective in treating drowning. All drowning patients, except those with normal oxygen levels, normal saturations, and normal lung sounds, should receive supplemental oxygen as significant hypoxia can occur without causing difficulty in breathing.

      Further Reading:

      Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.

      When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

      Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.

      Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.

      Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.

      Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      84.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department due to worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department due to worsening abdominal distension over the past few weeks. You note the patient has a history of heavy alcohol use and continues to drink 50-100 units per week. On clinical assessment the patient's abdomen is visibly distended, nontender to palpation with shifting dullness on percussion. The patient's observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 118/78 mmHg
      Pulse 86 bpm
      Respiration rate 16 bpm
      Temperature 36.6ºC

      Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to use first line to treat this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone, a potassium sparing diuretic, is the preferred initial treatment for ascites. Ascites triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), causing sodium retention (Hypernatraemia) and potassium excretion (Hypokalaemia). By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone helps to counteract these effects. Other diuretics can worsen potassium deficiency, so close monitoring of electrolyte levels is necessary if they are used instead.

      Further Reading:

      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      73.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man comes in with a persistent sore throat that has lasted...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes in with a persistent sore throat that has lasted for five days. He denies having a cough. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 39°C and a few tender anterior cervical lymph nodes are found. There is a noticeable amount of exudate on his right tonsil, which appears red and inflamed.

      What is his FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer: 0

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system that is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, different recommendations are given regarding the use of antibiotics.

      If the score is 0-1, it is unlikely to be a streptococcal infection, with only a 13-18% chance of streptococcus isolation. Therefore, antibiotics are not recommended in this case. If the score is 2-3, there is a higher chance (34-40%) of streptococcus isolation, so delayed prescribing of antibiotics is considered, with a 3-day ‘back-up prescription’. If the score is 4 or higher, there is a 62-65% chance of streptococcus isolation, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended if the infection is severe. Otherwise, a 48-hour short back-up prescription is suggested.

      The Fever PAIN score was developed from a study that included 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was then tested in a trial that compared three different prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, and combining the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in antibiotic prescribing, both by one third. However, the addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      Overall, the FeverPAIN score is a useful tool for assessing acute sore throats and guiding antibiotic prescribing decisions. It has been shown to be effective in reducing unnecessary antibiotic use and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain and a high temperature. During the examination, he experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, leading to a working diagnosis of acute appendicitis. However, he adamantly refuses to flex his thigh at the hip. When his thigh is passively extended, his abdominal pain intensifies significantly.

      What is the probable location of the appendix in this particular patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      This patient is exhibiting the psoas sign, which is a medical indication of irritation in the iliopsoas group of hip flexors located in the abdomen. In this particular case, it is highly likely that the patient has acute appendicitis.

      The psoas sign can be observed by extending the patient’s thigh while they are lying on their side with their knees extended, or by asking the patient to actively flex their thigh at the hip. If these movements result in abdominal pain or if the patient resists due to pain, then the psoas sign is considered positive.

      The pain occurs because the psoas muscle is adjacent to the peritoneal cavity. When the muscles are stretched or contracted, they rub against the inflamed tissues nearby, causing discomfort. This strongly suggests that the appendix is positioned retrocaecal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man presents with rigidity and slowness of movement. Following a referral...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with rigidity and slowness of movement. Following a referral to a specialist, a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease is made. The patient is in the early stages of the disease at present.

      Which of the following clinical features is most likely to also be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokinesia

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:

      – Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
      – Bradykinesia (slow movement)
      – Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
      – Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)

      Other commonly observed clinical features include:

      – Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
      – Loss of facial expression
      – Monotonous, slurred speech
      – Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
      – Increased salivation and dribbling
      – Difficulty with fine movements

      Initially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:

      – Postural instability
      – Cognitive impairment
      – Orthostatic hypotension

      Although PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Allergy (1/3) 33%
Ear, Nose & Throat (3/6) 50%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/3) 33%
Neurology (0/3) 0%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (0/2) 0%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Passmed