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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial trauma. Imaging tests show that she has a Le Fort II fracture.
      What is the most accurate description of the injury pattern seen in a Le Fort II fracture?

      Your Answer: Pyramidal-shaped fracture, with the teeth at the base of the pyramid and the nasofrontal suture at the apex

      Explanation:

      Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.

      The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.

      Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.

      Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.

      Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are part of the team performing CPR on a child who has...

    Correct

    • You are part of the team performing CPR on a child who has gone into cardiac arrest. A healthcare assistant (HCA) takes over chest compressions from the charge nurse. You are concerned about the rate and depth of the compressions being given. You provide guidance to the HCA on the appropriate frequency and depth of chest compressions. What is the correct rate and depth of chest compression during CPR for a child?

      Your Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute to a depth of 5-6 cm

      Explanation:

      For adults, it is recommended to perform chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. The depth of the compressions should be at least 5-6 cm.

      Further Reading:

      In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.

      During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.

      There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.

      There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.

      When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.

      Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 2-year-old girl presents with vomiting and diarrhea due to viral gastroenteritis. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with vomiting and diarrhea due to viral gastroenteritis. Upon examination, she is found to be mildly dehydrated. You suggest treating her with oral rehydration therapy (ORT).
      Which SINGLE statement regarding the use of ORT in the management of gastroenteritis is FALSE?

      Your Answer: ORT is sugar-free

      Explanation:

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) is a method used to prevent or treat dehydration by replacing fluids in the body. It is a less invasive approach compared to other methods and has been successful in reducing the mortality rate of diarrhea in developing nations.

      ORT includes glucose, such as 90 mmol/L in Dioralyte, which helps improve the absorption of sodium and water in the intestines and prevents low blood sugar levels. It also contains essential mineral salts.

      According to current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), for mild dehydration, it is recommended to administer 50 mL/kg of ORT over a period of 4 hours.

      Once a child has been rehydrated, they should continue their normal daily fluid intake and consume an additional 200 ml of ORT after each loose stool. For infants, ORT should be given at 1-1.5 times their regular feeding volume, while adults should consume 200-400 mL of ORT after each loose stool.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the diagnosis and management of diarrhea and vomiting caused by gastroenteritis in children under 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You assess a patient who has had ulcerative colitis for 10 years and...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has had ulcerative colitis for 10 years and is anxious about the potential risk of developing colon cancer.

      Your Answer: 1 in 100

      Correct Answer: 1 in 50

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with ulcerative colitis face a significantly heightened risk of developing colon cancer. It is crucial for these individuals, especially those with severe or extensive disease, to undergo regular monitoring to detect any potential signs of colon cancer. The risk of developing colon cancer increases as the duration of ulcerative colitis progresses. After 10 years, the risk stands at 1 in 50. After 20 years, the risk increases to 1 in 12. And after 30 years, the risk further rises to 1 in 6. While Crohn’s disease also carries a risk of colonic carcinoma, it is comparatively smaller than that associated with ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old patient with advanced metastatic bowel cancer is experiencing symptoms of bowel...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old patient with advanced metastatic bowel cancer is experiencing symptoms of bowel obstruction and is currently suffering from nausea and vomiting. The patient has been informed that they have only a few days left to live. Upon examination, the patient's abdomen is tender and distended. Over the past 24 hours, the patient has been taking hyoscine butylbromide in an attempt to alleviate their symptoms, but there has been no improvement.

      What is the most appropriate course of treatment to manage the patient's nausea and vomiting in this situation?

      Your Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends the use of octreotide for individuals in the final stages of life who are experiencing obstructive bowel disorders and have nausea or vomiting that does not improve within 24 hours of starting treatment with hyoscine butylbromide.

      When managing nausea and vomiting in individuals nearing the end of life, it is important to assess the likely causes, such as certain medications, recent chemotherapy or radiotherapy, psychological factors, biochemical imbalances, raised intracranial pressure, gastrointestinal motility disorders, ileus, or bowel obstruction.

      It is crucial to have discussions with the person who is dying and their loved ones about the available options for treating nausea and vomiting. Non-pharmacological methods should be considered as well.

      When selecting medications to manage these symptoms, factors to consider include the likely cause and its reversibility, potential side effects (including sedation), other symptoms the person may be experiencing, the desired balance of effects when managing other symptoms, and compatibility and drug interactions with other medications the person is taking.

      For individuals with obstructive bowel disorders who have nausea or vomiting, hyoscine butylbromide is recommended as the first-line pharmacological treatment. If symptoms do not improve within 24 hours of starting this treatment, octreotide should be considered.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE guidance on the care of dying adults in the last days of life. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng31

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old individual comes in with an arthropathy impacting the metatarsophalangeal joint on...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old individual comes in with an arthropathy impacting the metatarsophalangeal joint on their left foot. Gout is suspected, and a joint aspirate is sent for laboratory analysis.
      What type of crystals would be anticipated in the presence of gout?

      Your Answer: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.

      Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15 year old is brought into the emergency department with burns to...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old is brought into the emergency department with burns to the feet which she sustained whilst removing an item from a lit bonfire. The patient's father is worried she has full thickness burns. Which of the following signs is indicative of a full thickness burn?

      Your Answer: Deep red colouration

      Correct Answer: Painless

      Explanation:

      Full thickness burns are devoid of pain as they result in the complete destruction of the superficial nerve endings. These burns usually display characteristics such as a lack of sensation, a coloration of the burnt skin in shades of white, brown, or black, a texture that is waxy or leathery, and a dry appearance without any blistering.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      237.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man receives a blood transfusion due to ongoing rectal bleeding and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man receives a blood transfusion due to ongoing rectal bleeding and a hemoglobin level of 6 mg/dL. Shortly after starting the transfusion, he experiences discomfort and a burning sensation at the site of his IV, along with complaints of nausea, intense lower back pain, and a sense of impending catastrophe. His temperature is measured and found to be 39.2°C.
      Which of the following transfusion reactions is most probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction

      Correct Answer: Acute haemolytic reaction

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion usage, errors and adverse reactions still occur.

      One serious complication is acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, which happen when incompatible red cells are transfused and react with the patient’s own antibodies. This usually occurs due to human error, such as mislabelling sample tubes or request forms. Symptoms of this reaction include a feeling of impending doom, fever, chills, pain and warmth at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and back, joint, and chest pain. Immediate action should be taken to stop the transfusion, replace the donor blood with normal saline or another suitable crystalloid, and check the blood to confirm the intended recipient. IV diuretics may be administered to increase renal blood flow, and urine output should be maintained.

      Another common complication is febrile transfusion reaction, which presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise. This reaction is usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in the transfused blood components. Supportive treatment is typically sufficient, and paracetamol can be helpful.

      Allergic reactions can also occur, usually due to foreign plasma proteins or anti-IgA. These reactions often present with urticaria, pruritus, and hives, and in severe cases, laryngeal edema or bronchospasm may occur. Symptomatic treatment with antihistamines is usually enough, and there is usually no need to stop the transfusion. However, if anaphylaxis occurs, the transfusion should be stopped, and the patient should be administered adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.

      Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a severe complication characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion. It is associated with antibodies in the donor blood reacting with recipient leukocyte antigens. This is the most common cause of death related to transfusion reactions. Treatment involves stopping the transfusion, administering oxygen, and providing aggressive respiratory support in approximately 75% of patients. Diuretic usage should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 37 year old male is brought into the emergency department with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old male is brought into the emergency department with severe chest injuries following a car accident. FAST scanning shows the presence of around 100 ml of fluid in the pericardium. The patient's blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 92. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform immediate pericardiocentesis

      Correct Answer: Transfer to theatre for thoracotomy

      Explanation:

      For individuals with traumatic cardiac tamponade, thoracotomy is the recommended treatment. In the case of a trauma patient with a significant buildup of fluid around the heart and the potential for tamponade, it is advised to transfer stable patients to the operating room for thoracotomy instead of performing pericardiocentesis. Pericardiocentesis, when done correctly, is likely to be unsuccessful due to the presence of clotted blood in the pericardium. Additionally, performing pericardiocentesis would cause a delay in the thoracotomy procedure. If access to the operating room is not possible, pericardiocentesis may be considered as a temporary solution.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45 year old male comes to the emergency department with a two...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male comes to the emergency department with a two day history of nausea, vomiting, and upper abdominal pain. The patient vomits during triage and examination reveals coffee ground vomit. You determine that a risk assessment is necessary due to the evidence of an upper gastrointestinal bleed. Which risk assessment should be used as the initial assessment for patients who present with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Full Rockall score

      Correct Answer: Glasgow-Blatchford score

      Explanation:

      One commonly used risk assessment tool for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is the Glasgow-Blatchford score. This score takes into account various factors such as blood pressure, heart rate, blood urea nitrogen levels, hemoglobin levels, and the presence of melena or syncope. By assigning points to each of these factors, the Glasgow-Blatchford score helps to stratify patients into low or high-risk categories.

      Further Reading:

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.

      The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.

      Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.

      Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.

      Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.

      For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      40.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Resus (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/3) 33%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/3) 33%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Passmed