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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 38 year old male presents to the emergency department with a three day history of left sided otalgia. You note the patient takes methotrexate to control psoriatic arthritis. On examination you note the left tympanic membrane is bulging and appears cloudy centrally with peripheral erythema. The remaining examination of the head and neck reveals no other abnormalities. The patients observations are shown below.
Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
Pulse 92 bpm
Respiration rate 18 bpm
Temperature 37.9ºC
Oxygen saturations 98% on air
You advise the patient you feel he would benefit from antibiotics. The patient tells you he has no known drug allergies. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to issue?Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Amoxicillin is the preferred antibiotic for treating acute otitis media (AOM). It is the first choice for patients who do not have a penicillin allergy. According to NICE guidelines, a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin is recommended for treating this condition.
Further Reading:
Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.
Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.
Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.
Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.
The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You proceed to perform an ECG.
Which ONE statement about the ECG findings in Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is accurate?Your Answer: Type A WPW can resemble right bundle branch block
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals that she has normocytic anemia.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemolysis
Explanation:Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).
On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.
Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.
It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man who has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer presents with lower abdominal pain, urinary difficulties, and frequent urination. The treatment has not been effective, and he has been informed that he only has a few months left to live.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Oral morphine
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole
Explanation:This patient’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of oesophageal candidiasis, which is commonly seen in patients undergoing treatment for haematopoietic or lymphatic malignancies.
The classic combination of symptoms associated with oesophageal candidiasis includes dysphagia, odynophagia, and retrosternal pain. This infection can be life-threatening and often requires hospital admission.
The recommended treatment for oesophageal candidiasis is as follows:
– First-line treatment involves taking oral fluconazole at a daily dose of 200-400 mg.
– If the patient is unable to tolerate oral treatment, intravenous fluconazole can be used instead.
– Second-line treatment options include oral itraconazole, oral posaconazole, or intravenous or oral voriconazole.It is important to seek medical attention promptly for oesophageal candidiasis, as timely treatment is crucial in managing this potentially serious infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45 year old with asthma is brought into the ER due to worsening shortness of breath. You collect an arterial blood gas sample for analysis. What is the typical pH range for arterial blood?
Your Answer: 7.35-7.45
Explanation:Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.
To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.
Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.
The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.
The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.
The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.
Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.
The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient presents with a painful, swollen left knee. His symptoms started three days ago. He has no history of injury, and a joint aspirate is sent for laboratory testing. The aspirate reveals pus cells, negatively birefringent crystals, and no presence of organisms.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gout
Explanation:Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.
Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old individual needs procedural sedation for DC cardioversion of atrial fibrillation. You intend to use propofol as the sedative medication.
What type of receptor does propofol act on to produce its effects?Your Answer: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Explanation:Propofol, also known as 2,6-diisopropylphenol, is commonly used to induce anesthesia due to its short-acting properties. The exact way in which it works is not fully understood, but it is believed to enhance the effects of the inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine. This, in turn, strengthens spinal inhibition during the anesthesia process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 8
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a fever, chest pain that worsens with breathing, and coughing up thick, yellowish sputum. A chest X-ray is done and shows signs of cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobe.
Which of the following bacteria is most frequently linked to cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobe?Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:Klebsiella pneumoniae is commonly observed in individuals who are dependent on alcohol. It is more prevalent in men compared to women and typically manifests after the age of 40.
The clinical manifestations of this condition include fevers and rigors, pleuritic chest pain, purulent sputum, and haemoptysis, which occurs more frequently than with other bacterial pneumonias. Klebsiella pneumoniae tends to affect the upper lobes of the lungs and often leads to the formation of cavitating lesions.
While Staphylococcus aureus can also cause cavitation, it usually affects multiple lobes and is not limited to the upper lobes. Other potential causes of cavitating pneumonia include Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and, although rare, Legionella pneumophila.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You review a 65-year-old woman with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. You can see from her records that she has an advanced directive in place.
Which SINGLE statement is true regarding an advanced directive?Your Answer: They can be used to carry out treatments that are not in the patient’s best interests
Correct Answer: They can be used to make decisions about the use of parenteral fluids
Explanation:An advance decision, also known as an advance directive in Scotland, is a statement made by a patient expressing their desire to refuse certain types of medical treatment or care in the event that they become unable to make or communicate decisions for themselves. These statements serve as a means of effectively communicating the patient’s wishes to healthcare professionals and family members, helping to avoid any confusion that may arise. If a patient reaches a point where they are no longer capable of making informed decisions about their care, an advance decision can provide clarity and guidance.
An advance decision can typically be utilized in the following situations: making decisions regarding CPR, determining the use of IV fluids and parenteral nutrition, deciding on specific procedures, and addressing the use of blood products for Jehovah’s Witnesses. However, it is important to note that advance decisions have their limitations and cannot be used to grant a relative lasting power of attorney, appoint a spokesperson to make decisions on the patient’s behalf, request a specific medical treatment, advocate for something illegal (such as assisted suicide), refuse treatment for a mental health condition, or authorize treatments that are not in the patient’s best interests.
A doctor is legally obligated to adhere to an advance decision unless certain circumstances arise. These circumstances include changes that invalidate the decision, advances or changes in treatment that alter the circumstances, ambiguity in the wording of the decision, or if the decision is unsigned or its authenticity is in doubt. If there are any doubts about the validity of an advance decision, it is advisable to seek legal advice. Unfortunately, there have been instances where advance decisions have been forged or signed under duress, and any suspicions of this nature should be raised.
It is important to note that there is no specific time period for which an advance decision remains valid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a history of anxiety and thoughts of self-harm. You utilize the modified SAD PERSONS score to evaluate his risk.
Which ONE of the following statements is accurate regarding this risk assessment tool?Your Answer: An age range of 19-45 indicates increased suicide risk
Correct Answer: A history of divorce indicates increased risk
Explanation:The modified SAD PERSONS scoring system is a valuable tool used to evaluate a patient’s risk of suicide. This scoring system consists of ten yes/no questions, and points are assigned for each affirmative answer. The points are distributed as follows: 1 point for being male, 1 point for being younger than 19 or older than 45 years, 2 points for experiencing depression or hopelessness, 1 point for having a history of previous suicidal attempts or psychiatric care, 1 point for excessive alcohol or drug use, 2 points for exhibiting a loss of rational thinking due to psychotic or organic illness, 1 point for being single, widowed, or divorced, 2 points for an organized or serious suicide attempt, 1 point for lacking social support, and 2 points for expressing future intent to repeat or being ambivalent about suicide.
Based on the total score, the patient’s risk level can be determined. A score of 0-5 suggests that it may be safe to discharge the patient or provide outpatient management, depending on the circumstances. A score of 6-8 indicates that the patient probably requires psychiatric consultation. Finally, a score higher than 8 suggests that the patient likely requires hospital admission for further evaluation and care. This scoring system helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions regarding the appropriate level of intervention and support needed for patients at risk of suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension arrived at the emergency department with a sudden and severe occipital headache accompanied by vomiting and neck stiffness. There is no reported head injury. Upon clinical examination, the patient has a temperature of 37ºC, a respiratory rate of 18 per minute, a pulse of 88 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 160/100. The physician observes a lateral and inferior deviation of the left eye with a dilated pupil and drooping of the left upper eyelid.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH).
When assessing patients who present with an SAH, they may exhibit focal neurological signs, which can indicate the potential location of the aneurysm. Common areas where aneurysms occur include the bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery, the junction of the anterior communicating cerebral artery, and the junction of the posterior communicating artery with the internal carotid artery. If there is complete or partial paralysis of the oculomotor nerve, it suggests the rupture of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.
While hypertension is a risk factor for SAH, a significant increase in blood pressure may occur as a reflex response following the haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
What dose of phenytoin is recommended in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm?Your Answer: 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes
Explanation:If a child who is experiencing convulsions reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, it is recommended to prepare a phenytoin infusion. This infusion should be administered at a dosage of 20 mg/kg over a period of 20 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 4 year old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a limp that has developed in the last 24 hours. The patient appears to be in good overall health and has no notable medical history. Upon examination, you observe that the child is not putting full weight on her left side and shows signs of discomfort when you try to internally rotate her hip. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:The age of the child can help determine the most probable diagnosis. Transient synovitis (irritable hip) is commonly observed in children aged 3 to 10. Septic arthritis is more prevalent in children under 4 years old, while Perthes disease is typically diagnosed between the ages of 4 and 8. SUFE is usually seen in girls around the age of 12 and boys around the age of 13.
Further Reading:
– Transient Synovitis (irritable hip):
– Most common hip problem in children
– Causes transient inflammation of the synovium
– Presents with thigh, groin, and/or hip pain with impaired weight bearing
– Mild to moderate restriction of hip internal rotation is common
– Symptoms usually resolve quickly with rest and anti-inflammatory treatment– Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (SUFE):
– Displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly
– Usually affects adolescents
– Can present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms
– Associated with loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion
– Treatment involves surgical fixation by pinning– Perthes disease:
– Degenerative condition affecting the hip joints of children
– Avascular necrosis of the femoral head is the cause
– Presents with hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movements
– X-ray changes include widening of joint space and decreased femoral head size/flattening
– Treatment can be conservative or operative, depending on the severity– Important differentials:
– Septic arthritis: Acute hip pain associated with systemic upset and severe limitation of affected joint
– Non-accidental injury (NAI): Should be considered in younger children and toddlers presenting with a limp, even without a trauma history
– Malignancy: Rare, but osteosarcoma may present with hip pain or limp, especially in tall teenage boys
– Developmental dysplasia of the hip: Often picked up on newborn examination with positive Barlow and Ortolani tests
– Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA): Joint pain and swelling, limp, positive ANA in some cases
– Coagulopathy: Haemophilia, HSP, and sickle cell disease can cause hip pain through different mechanisms -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby girl presents with a low-grade fever, feeding difficulties, and a persistent cough that have been present for the past three days. You suspect bronchiolitis as the diagnosis.
What is the MOST likely causative organism in this case?Your Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection that primarily affects infants. It typically occurs between the ages of 3-6 months and is most prevalent during the winter months from November to March. The main culprit behind bronchiolitis is the respiratory syncytial virus, accounting for about 70% of cases. However, other viruses like parainfluenza, influenza, adenovirus, coronavirus, and rhinovirus can also cause this infection.
The clinical presentation of bronchiolitis usually starts with symptoms resembling a common cold, which last for the first 2-3 days. Infants may experience poor feeding, rapid breathing (tachypnoea), nasal flaring, and grunting. Chest wall recessions, bilateral fine crepitations, and wheezing may also be observed. In severe cases, apnoea, a temporary cessation of breathing, can occur.
Bronchiolitis is a self-limiting illness, meaning it resolves on its own over time. Therefore, treatment mainly focuses on supportive care. However, infants with oxygen saturations below 92% may require oxygen administration. If an infant is unable to maintain oral intake or hydration, nasogastric feeding should be considered. Nasal suction is recommended to clear secretions in infants experiencing respiratory distress due to nasal blockage.
It is important to note that there is no evidence supporting the use of antivirals (such as ribavirin), antibiotics, beta 2 agonists, anticholinergics, or corticosteroids in the management of bronchiolitis. These interventions are not recommended for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated after a benzodiazepine overdose. As part of her treatment, she is given a dose of flumazenil.
Which SINGLE statement about flumazenil is NOT true?Your Answer: It can cause cardiac arrest in patient dependant on tricyclic antidepressants
Correct Answer: The maximum dose is 10 mg per hour
Explanation:Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for benzodiazepines that can be beneficial in certain situations. It acts quickly, taking less than 1 minute to take effect, but its effects are short-lived and only last for less than 1 hour. The recommended dosage is 200 μg every 1-2 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3mg per hour.
It is important to avoid using Flumazenil if the patient is dependent on benzodiazepines or is taking tricyclic antidepressants. This is because it can trigger a withdrawal syndrome in these individuals, potentially leading to seizures or cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 16
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 25 kg.
What is the child's hourly maintenance fluid requirement when he is in good health?Your Answer: 65 ml/hour
Explanation:The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration becomes evident only after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.
The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children:
Bodyweight:
– First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg.
– Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg.
– Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg.Based on this information, the hourly maintenance fluid requirements for this child can be calculated as follows:
– First 10 kg: 4 ml/kg = 40 ml
– Second 10 kg: 2 ml/kg = 20 ml
– Subsequent kg: 1 ml/kg = 5 mlTherefore, the total hourly maintenance fluid requirement for this child is 65 ml.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 45 year old man presents to the emergency department complaining of dizziness. The patient describes a sensation of the room spinning around him and a constant ringing in his ears. He mentions feeling nauseated and experiencing a decrease in his hearing ability. These symptoms began an hour ago, but he had a similar episode earlier in the week that lasted for 2-3 hours. The patient did not seek medical attention at that time, thinking the symptoms would resolve on their own. There is no significant medical history to note. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are within normal range, and his cardiovascular and respiratory systems appear normal. The ears appear normal upon examination with an otoscope. Rinne's test reveals that air conduction is greater than bone conduction in both ears, while Weber's test shows lateralization to the right ear. When asked to march on the spot with his eyes closed, the patient stumbles and requires assistance to maintain balance. No other abnormalities are detected in the cranial nerves, and the patient's limbs exhibit normal power, tone, and reflexes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Meniere's disease
Explanation:One type of brainstem infarction is characterized by the presence of complete deafness on the same side as the affected area. This condition is unlikely to be caused by a transient ischemic attack (TIA) or stroke due to the patient’s age and absence of risk factors. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) causes brief episodes of vertigo triggered by head movements. On the other hand, vestibular neuronitis (also known as vestibular neuritis) causes a persistent sensation of vertigo rather than intermittent episodes.
Further Reading:
Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss. The exact cause of the disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to excessive pressure and dilation of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear. Meniere’s disease is more common in middle-aged adults, but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally.
The clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that can last from minutes to hours. These attacks often occur in clusters, with several episodes happening in a week. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure. Nystagmus and a positive Romberg test are common findings, and the Fukuda stepping test may also be positive. While symptoms are typically unilateral, bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests can be used to help diagnose Meniere’s disease. In Rinne’s test, air conduction should be better than bone conduction in both ears. In Weber’s test, the sound should be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side due to the sensorineural hearing loss.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms often resolve within 5-10 years, but most patients are left with some residual hearing loss. Psychological distress is common among patients with this condition.
The diagnostic criteria for Meniere’s disease include clinical features consistent with the disease, confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry, and exclusion of other possible causes.
Management of Meniere’s disease involves an ENT assessment to confirm the diagnosis and perform audiometry. Patients should be advised to inform the DVLA and may need to cease driving until their symptoms are under control. Acute attacks can be treated with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and hospital admission may be necessary in some cases. Betahistine may be beneficial for prevention of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with symptoms related to an electrolyte imbalance. It is believed that the electrolyte imbalance has occurred as a result of a thiazide diuretic he has been prescribed by the nephrology team.
Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to be caused by thiazide diuretics?Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics, a commonly prescribed medication, can lead to two main electrolyte imbalances in patients. One of these is hyponatremia, which occurs in around 13.7% of individuals taking thiazide diuretics. The other is hypokalemia, which is observed in approximately 8.5% of patients on this medication. These electrolyte disturbances are frequently encountered in primary care settings. For more information on this topic, please refer to the article titled Thiazide diuretic prescription and electrolyte abnormalities in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A child presents with a headache, high temperature, and a very itchy rash on their face and body. The doctor diagnoses the child with chickenpox. When would it be necessary to administer acyclovir through injection in this patient?
Your Answer: Persistent fever
Correct Answer: Chronic skin disorder
Explanation:Chickenpox is a highly contagious illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus, a DNA virus from the Herpesviridae family. Most cases are mild to moderate, and the infection usually resolves on its own. Severe complications are rare but can occur, especially in individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying health conditions.
The incubation period for chickenpox is typically between 14 to 21 days. It is contagious from a few days before the rash appears until about a week after the first lesions show up.
The common clinical features of chickenpox include:
– Fever, which lasts for approximately 3-5 days.
– The initial rash starts as flat red spots and progresses into raised bumps.
– These bumps then turn into fluid-filled blisters and eventually form pustules surrounded by redness.
– The lesions are extremely itchy.
– The rash reaches its peak around 48 hours in individuals with a healthy immune system.
– The rash tends to be more concentrated on the face and trunk, with fewer lesions on the limbs.
– The blisters eventually dry up and form crusts, which can lead to scarring if scratched.
– Headache, fatigue, and abdominal pain may also occur.Chickenpox tends to be more severe in teenagers and adults compared to children. Antiviral treatment should be considered for these individuals if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of rash onset. The recommended oral dose of aciclovir is 800 mg taken five times a day for seven days.
Immunocompromised patients and those at higher risk, such as individuals with severe cardiovascular or respiratory disease or chronic skin disorders, should receive antiviral treatment for ten days, with at least seven days of intravenous administration.
Although most cases are relatively mild, if serious complications like pneumonia, encephalitis, or dehydration are suspected, it is important to refer the patient for hospital admission.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Chickenpox.
https://cks.nice.org.uk/topics/chickenpox/ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing his medications, you find out that he is taking ramipril as part of his treatment.
Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Amiloride
Explanation:Potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone and amiloride, can raise the chances of developing hyperkalemia when taken alongside ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, and angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, like losartan.
For more information, you can refer to the BNF section on ramipril interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with anterior uveitis.
Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is FALSE?Your Answer: It most commonly involves the posterior chamber
Explanation:Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and is characterized by a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and a decrease in visual clarity. In less than 10% of cases, the inflammation may extend to the posterior chamber. The condition can also lead to the formation of adhesions between the iris and the lens or cornea, resulting in an irregularly shaped pupil known as synechia. In severe cases, pus may accumulate in the front part of the eye, specifically the anterior chamber, causing a condition called hypopyon.
There are various factors that can cause anterior uveitis, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause can be identified. Other causes include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It is worth noting that approximately 50% of patients with anterior uveitis have a strong association with the HLA-B27 genotype.
Complications that can arise from uveitis include the development of cataracts, glaucoma, band keratopathy (a condition where calcium deposits form on the cornea), and even blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with severe diarrhea one week after a hip replacement surgery. The diarrhea has a foul odor and is yellow in color. You suspect a diagnosis of Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD).
What is the SINGLE most appropriate initial test to investigate this condition?Your Answer: Clostridium difficile toxin assay
Explanation:The current gold standard for diagnosing Clostridium difficile colitis is the cytotoxin assay. However, this test has its drawbacks. It can be challenging to perform and results may take up to 48 hours to be available.
The most common laboratory test used to diagnose Clostridium difficile colitis is an enzyme-mediated immunoassay that detects toxins A and B. This test has a specificity of 93-100% and a sensitivity of 63-99%.
Stool culture, although expensive, is not specific for pathogenic strains and therefore cannot be relied upon for a definitive diagnosis of CDAD.
Sigmoidoscopy is not routinely used, but it may be performed in cases where a rapid diagnosis is needed or if the patient has an ileus. Approximately 50% of patients may exhibit the characteristic pseudomembranous appearance, which can be confirmed through a biopsy.
Abdominal X-ray and CT scanning are not typically used, but they can be beneficial in severe cases where complications such as perforation and toxin megacolon are suspected.
It is important to note that a barium enema should not be performed in patients with CDAD as it can be potentially harmful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a known notifiable illness.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Chickenpox
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Public Health England (PHE) has the primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is not the main focus, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient since 1968.
Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to inform the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) about suspected cases of specific infectious diseases.
The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 outline the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Correct
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You examine the X-ray of a 55-year-old male who has fallen onto his extended right hand. The X-ray confirms a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). While conducting the procedure, you take note of the duration of cuff inflation. What is the maximum duration the cuff should remain inflated?
Your Answer: 45 minutes
Explanation:According to the RCEM, the minimum time for cuff inflation during Bier’s block is 20 minutes, while the maximum time is 45 minutes.
Further Reading:
Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.
Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.
During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.
There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with severe otalgia in her right ear that has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. She describes the pain as ‘constant’, and she has been unable to sleep for several nights. Her family have noticed that the right side of her face appears to be ‘drooping’. Her past medical history includes poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed with otitis externa by a colleague a few weeks earlier, but the pain has failed to settle despite two separate courses of antibiotic drops. On examination, she has a right-sided lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy. Her right ear canal is very swollen and purulent exudate is visible. You are unable to clearly view her tympanic membrane. A swab of the ear taken last week has cultured Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic otitis media
Correct Answer: Malignant otitis externa
Explanation:Malignant otitis externa (MOE), also known as necrotising otitis externa, is a rare type of ear infection that primarily affects older individuals with diabetes, particularly if their diabetes is poorly managed.
MOE initially starts as an infection in the ear canal and gradually spreads to the surrounding bone and soft tissues. In about 98% of cases, the responsible pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Typically, MOE presents with intense ear pain and persistent inflammation of the ear canal that does not respond well to topical antibiotics. The pain is often described as constant and tends to worsen at night. Even after the swelling of the ear canal subsides with the use of topical antibiotics, the pain may persist. Other symptoms that may be present include pus drainage from the ear and temporal headaches. Approximately 50% of patients also experience facial nerve paralysis, and cranial nerves IX to XII may also be affected.
If left untreated, MOE can be life-threatening, and serious complications may arise, such as skull base osteomyelitis, subdural empyema, and cerebral abscess.
To diagnose MOE, technetium scanning and contrast-enhanced CT scanning are typically performed. Treatment usually involves long-term administration of intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 26
Correct
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A 37 year old male is brought into the emergency department with severe chest injuries following a car accident. FAST scanning shows the presence of around 100 ml of fluid in the pericardium. The patient's blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 92. What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Transfer to theatre for thoracotomy
Explanation:For individuals with traumatic cardiac tamponade, thoracotomy is the recommended treatment. In the case of a trauma patient with a significant buildup of fluid around the heart and the potential for tamponade, it is advised to transfer stable patients to the operating room for thoracotomy instead of performing pericardiocentesis. Pericardiocentesis, when done correctly, is likely to be unsuccessful due to the presence of clotted blood in the pericardium. Additionally, performing pericardiocentesis would cause a delay in the thoracotomy procedure. If access to the operating room is not possible, pericardiocentesis may be considered as a temporary solution.
Further Reading:
Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.
Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.
Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.
It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 27
Correct
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You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness of breath. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe reversed splitting of the second heart sound (S2).
What is the most probable cause of this finding?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.
A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).
On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).
A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.
Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has visited her primary care physician and the Emergency Department a combined total of 60 times over the past six years with various complaints. In the past, she has experienced multiple episodes of pain that have affected different parts of her body. No clear cause has ever been found for any of these episodes. Last year she had a strange episode where she lost her sense of taste and smell. She was subsequently referred to a Neurologist and had a normal MRI scan of her brain. This episode resolved without explanation. Today she has presented with concerns about a tingling sensation on the right side of her body, which she would like investigated. Her only past medical history of note is migraines, for which she takes sumatriptan and ibuprofen.
What is the single MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Munchausen syndrome
Correct Answer: Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation:Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by the presence of recurrent, unexplained clinical symptoms that occur in multiple areas of the body. These symptoms typically begin before the age of 30 and persist for several years. In order to diagnose somatic symptom disorder, the following criteria must be met: experiencing pain in at least four different locations in the body, encountering at least two gastrointestinal issues, encountering one sexual dysfunction, and experiencing one pseudoneurological symptom.
Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, involves an excessive preoccupation with the belief of having a serious illness, such as cancer. Despite undergoing thorough medical investigations and receiving reassurance from healthcare professionals, individuals with hypochondriasis continue to have an unwarranted concern about their physical health. This preoccupation is often accompanied by self-examination, self-diagnosis, and a lack of trust in the diagnoses provided by doctors.
Munchausen syndrome is characterized by individuals intentionally feigning illness or disease in order to gain attention and sympathy from others. Unlike somatisation disorder and hypochondriasis, individuals with Munchausen syndrome deliberately produce their symptoms.
Dissociative disorder, previously known as multiple personality disorder, encompasses a group of conditions that involve disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, and perception. The most extreme manifestation of this disorder is dissociative identity disorder, in which individuals have at least two distinct identities or personalities.
Malingering refers to the deliberate exaggeration or fabrication of symptoms of a disease for various potential secondary gains. This behavior is often associated with seeking financial benefits, such as committing benefits fraud, or engaging in drug-seeking behaviors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling sick in the Pediatric Emergency Department. Upon reviewing her urea & electrolytes, you observe that her potassium level is elevated at 6.6 mmol/l. Her ECG appears normal, and she is in stable condition.
As per the APLS guidelines, which medication should be administered promptly?Your Answer: Nebulised salbutamol
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is a condition where the level of potassium in the blood is higher than normal, specifically greater than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be categorized as mild, moderate, or severe depending on the specific potassium levels. Mild hyperkalaemia is when the potassium level is between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, moderate hyperkalaemia is between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l, and severe hyperkalaemia is when the potassium level exceeds 6.5 mmol/l. The most common cause of hyperkalaemia in renal failure, which can be either acute or chronic. Other causes include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.
If the patient’s life is not immediately at risk due to an arrhythmia, the initial treatment for hyperkalaemia should involve the use of a beta-2 agonist, such as salbutamol (2.5-10 mg). Salbutamol activates cAMP, which stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. This action helps shift potassium into the intracellular compartment. The effects of salbutamol are rapid, typically occurring within 30 minutes. With the recommended dose, a decrease in the serum potassium level of approximately 1 mmol can be expected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents having experienced a minor fall while shopping with her husband. He has observed that she has been forgetful for quite some time and that her condition has been gradually deteriorating over the past few years. She frequently forgets the names of people and places and struggles to find words for things. Lately, she has also been experiencing increased confusion. She has no significant medical history of note.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is the leading cause of dementia, accounting for approximately half of all cases. It involves the gradual degeneration of the cerebral cortex, resulting in cortical atrophy, the formation of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques, and a decrease in acetylcholine production from affected neurons. The exact cause of this disease is still not fully understood.
The onset of Alzheimer’s disease is typically slow and subtle, progressing over a span of 7 to 10 years. The symptoms experienced by individuals vary depending on the stage of the disease. In the early stages, family and friends may notice that the patient becomes forgetful, experiencing lapses in memory. They may struggle to recall the names of people and places, as well as have difficulty finding the right words for objects. Recent events and appointments are easily forgotten. As the disease advances, language skills deteriorate, and problems with planning and decision-making arise. The patient may also exhibit apraxia and become more noticeably confused.
In the later stages of Alzheimer’s disease, symptoms become more severe. The patient may wander aimlessly, become disoriented, and display apathy. Psychiatric symptoms, such as depression, are common during this stage. Hallucinations and delusions may also occur. Behavioral issues, including disinhibition, aggression, and agitation, can be distressing for the patient’s family.
Considering the absence of a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, vascular dementia is less likely. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia typically has a more sudden onset and exhibits stepwise increases in symptom severity.
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder closely associated with Parkinson’s disease. It can be distinguished from Alzheimer’s disease by the presence of mild Parkinsonism features, fluctuations in cognition and attention, episodes of transient loss of consciousness, and early occurrence of visual hallucinations and complex delusions.
Frontotemporal dementia is a progressive form of dementia that primarily affects the frontal and/or temporal lobes. It typically occurs at a younger age than Alzheimer’s disease, usually between 40 and 60 years old. Personality changes often precede memory loss in this condition.
Pseudodementia, also known as depression-related cognitive dysfunction, is a condition characterized by a temporary decline in cognitive function alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. While depression is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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