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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is involved in a high-speed car accident and suffers from severe injuries. During the initial assessment, it is discovered that he has free fluid in his abdominal cavity on FAST scan. Due to his unstable condition, he is taken to the operating theatre for laparotomy. The surgeons identify the main sources of bleeding in the mesentery of the small bowel and tie them off. The injured sections of the small bowel are stapled off but not reanastamosed. However, there are multiple tiny areas of bleeding, especially in the wound edges, which the surgeons refer to as a general ooze. The abdomen is closed, and the patient is admitted to the intensive care unit. The surgeons plan to return to the theatre to repair the small bowel 24 hours later when the patient is more stable. What is the principle of damage control laparotomy?
Your Answer: Laparotomy performed to stop bleeding
Correct Answer: Laparotomy performed to restore normal physiology
Explanation:Damage Control Laparotomy: A Life-Saving Procedure
Damage control laparotomy is a surgical procedure performed when prolonged surgery would further deteriorate the patient’s physiology. Patients who require this procedure often present with a triad of acidosis, hypothermia, and coagulopathy. The primary goal of this procedure is to stop life-threatening bleeding and reduce contamination, rather than reconstructing damaged tissue and reanastomosing the bowel. For instance, the surgeon may staple off a perforated bowel to prevent further contamination.
After the abbreviated laparotomy for damage control, the patient is transferred to the intensive care unit for resuscitation. The medical team focuses on correcting the patient’s abnormal physiology, such as warming up the patient and correcting coagulopathy. The patient is closely monitored until their physiology is closer to normal, which usually takes 24 to 48 hours.
Once the patient’s physiology has improved, the surgeon performs an operation to reconstruct the anatomy. This approach allows the patient to recover from the initial surgery and stabilize before undergoing further procedures. Damage control laparotomy is a life-saving procedure that can prevent further deterioration of the patient’s condition and increase their chances of survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a burning sensation in the back of his legs bilaterally after walking about 150 yards. The sensation subsides after resting. His ABPI is 0.8. What is the primary imaging modality recommended for further evaluation of this patient?
Your Answer: Duplex ultrasound
Explanation:The recommended first-line imaging modality for peripheral artery disease is duplex ultrasound. While other imaging techniques such as CTA, MRA, and catheter-based angiography can also be used, they are not the primary options. It is important to note that imaging should only be performed if it is likely to provide valuable information for the patient’s management. Duplex ultrasound followed by MRA, if necessary, is considered the most accurate, safe, and cost-effective imaging strategy for individuals with PAD, according to NICE guidelines. Based on the ABPI reading, sciatica is unlikely in this scenario.
Understanding Peripheral Arterial Disease: Intermittent Claudication
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) can present in three main patterns, one of which is intermittent claudication. This condition is characterized by aching or burning in the leg muscles following walking, which is typically relieved within minutes of stopping. Patients can usually walk for a predictable distance before the symptoms start, and the pain is not present at rest.
To assess for intermittent claudication, healthcare professionals should check the femoral, popliteal, posterior tibialis, and dorsalis pedis pulses. They should also perform an ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) test, which measures the ratio of blood pressure in the ankle to that in the arm. A normal ABPI result is 1, while a result between 0.6-0.9 indicates claudication. A result between 0.3-0.6 suggests rest pain, and a result below 0.3 indicates impending limb loss.
Duplex ultrasound is the first-line investigation for PAD, while magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) should be performed prior to any intervention. Understanding the symptoms and assessment of intermittent claudication is crucial for early detection and management of PAD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of lower back pain that has been present for 2 hours. He describes the pain as achy and rates it 6 out of 10 on the pain scale. During the examination, he exhibits tenderness in his abdomen and loin area. Despite receiving a 500ml fluid bolus, his blood pressure remains at 100/70 mmHg, and his heart rate is 110/min. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
Explanation:Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins within the extracellular matrix fail, causing dilation of all layers of the arterial wall. This degenerative disease is most commonly seen in individuals over the age of 50, with diameters of 3 cm or greater considered aneurysmal. The development of aneurysms is a complex process involving the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the pathophysiology of abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to identify and manage risk factors, as well as to provide appropriate treatment for those affected. By recognizing the underlying causes and risk factors, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of aneurysms and improve outcomes for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old man without significant medical history presents with a lump in his right groin that he noticed while showering. The lump has been present for two weeks and disappears when he lies down. He does not experience any discomfort, and there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, a small reducible swelling is found in the right groin, consistent with an inguinal hernia. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Routine referral for surgical repair
Explanation:This patient has an inguinal hernia without any symptoms. Research suggests that conservative treatment is often ineffective as many patients eventually develop symptoms and require surgery. Therefore, most healthcare providers would recommend surgical repair, especially since the patient is in good health. It is important to note that inguinal hernias cannot heal on their own.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is evaluated by the prehospital trauma team after being in a car accident. The team decides that rapid sequence induction with intubation is necessary to treat his condition. Etomidate is chosen as the induction agent. What significant adverse effect should be kept in mind when administering this anesthetic agent?
Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Correct Answer: Adrenal suppression
Explanation:Adrenal suppression is a potential side effect of using etomidate, an induction agent commonly used in rapid sequence induction. This occurs due to the inhibition of the 11-beta-hydroxylase enzyme, resulting in decreased cortisol production and secretion from the adrenal gland. It is important to be aware of this side effect as it can lead to severe hypotension and require treatment with steroids.
Ketamine, another sedative used for procedural sedation, may cause hallucinations and behavioral changes. It is recommended to use ketamine in a calm and quiet environment whenever possible.
Volatile halogenated anaesthetics like isoflurane have been associated with hepatotoxicity, but etomidate is not known to cause any hepatic disorders.
Suxamethonium, a neuromuscular blocking drug used in anaesthetics, can cause malignant hyperthermia, a dangerous side effect that can lead to multi-organ failure and cardiovascular collapse. Dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
Overview of General Anaesthetics
General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.
Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.
It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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A 55 year old man visits his doctor complaining of a swollen scrotum. Although he had no discomfort, his wife urged him to seek medical attention. Upon examination, there is a swelling on the left side of the scrotal sac that is painless and fully transilluminates. The testicle cannot be felt. What is the probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Hydrocele
Explanation:The male patient has a swelling in his scrotal sac that is painless and allows light to pass through. The only possible diagnosis based on these symptoms is a hydrocele, which is a buildup of clear fluid around the testicles. This condition makes it difficult to feel the testes.
Causes and Management of Scrotal Swelling
Scrotal swelling can be caused by various conditions, including inguinal hernia, testicular tumors, acute epididymo-orchitis, epididymal cysts, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and varicocele. Inguinal hernia is characterized by inguinoscrotal swelling that cannot be examined above it, while testicular tumors often have a discrete testicular nodule and symptoms of metastatic disease. Acute epididymo-orchitis is often accompanied by dysuria and urethral discharge, while epididymal cysts are usually painless and occur in individuals over 40 years old. Hydrocele is a non-painful, soft fluctuant swelling that can be examined above, while testicular torsion is characterized by severe, sudden onset testicular pain and requires urgent surgery. Varicocele is characterized by varicosities of the pampiniform plexus and may affect fertility.
The management of scrotal swelling depends on the underlying condition. Testicular malignancy is treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach, while torsion requires prompt surgical exploration and testicular fixation. Varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, but surgery or radiological management can be considered if there are concerns about testicular function or infertility. Epididymal cysts can be excised using a scrotal approach, while hydroceles are managed differently in children and adults. In children, an inguinal approach is used to ligate the underlying pathology, while in adults, a scrotal approach is preferred to excise or plicate the hydrocele sac.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old type 2 diabetic is scheduled for a vaginal hysterectomy tomorrow. Her usual medication regimen includes taking Metformin in the morning and Gliclazide during breakfast and dinner. What is the recommended approach for managing her medications prior to surgery?
Your Answer: Omit Metformin the day before and on the day. Omit Gliclazide on the day of surgery.
Correct Answer: Omit Metformin on the day of surgery. Omit the morning Gliclazide, and take the dinner time Gliclazide if she is able to eat.
Explanation:Medication Management for Diabetic Patients on the Day of Surgery
When managing medication for diabetic patients on the day of surgery, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of each medication. Here are some guidelines for different scenarios:
– Omit Metformin on the day of surgery. Omit the morning Gliclazide, and take the dinner time Gliclazide if she is able to eat.
– Omit Metformin the day before and on the day. Take Gliclazide as normal.
– Take Metformin as normal. Omit Gliclazide.
– Omit Metformin the day before and on the day. Omit Gliclazide on the day of surgery.
– Omit Metformin on the day of surgery. Halve the Gliclazide doses at lunchtime and dinner.It is important to note that these guidelines may vary depending on the individual patient’s medical history and current condition. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized medication management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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As a first-year resident on a surgical rotation, which of the following procedures would necessitate the use of prophylactic antibiotics?
Your Answer: Appendicectomy
Explanation:Preventing Surgical Site Infections
Surgical site infections (SSI) are a common complication following surgery, with up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections being SSIs. These infections occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces, allowing normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. In many cases, the organisms causing the infection are derived from the patient’s own body. Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include shaving the wound using a razor, using a non-iodine impregnated incise drape, tissue hypoxia, and delayed administration of prophylactic antibiotics in tourniquet surgery.
To prevent SSIs, there are several steps that can be taken before, during, and after surgery. Before surgery, it is recommended to avoid routine removal of body hair and to use electrical clippers with a single-use head if hair needs to be removed. Antibiotic prophylaxis should be considered for certain types of surgery, such as placement of a prosthesis or valve, clean-contaminated surgery, and contaminated surgery. Local formulary should be used, and a single-dose IV antibiotic should be given on anesthesia. If a tourniquet is to be used, prophylactic antibiotics should be given earlier.
During surgery, the skin should be prepared with alcoholic chlorhexidine, which has been shown to have the lowest incidence of SSI. The surgical site should be covered with a dressing, and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer any benefit. Postoperatively, tissue viability advice should be given for the management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention. The use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated in the NICE guidelines, but several randomized controlled trials have demonstrated no increase in the risk of SSI when diathermy is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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You review a 47-year-old man who is postoperative following a laparotomy. He complains of a lump in the middle of his abdomen. On examination, you note a mass arising from the site of surgical incision, which is reducible and reproducible when the patient coughs.
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of an incisional hernia?Your Answer: Wound infection
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Incisional Hernia Development
An infected wound can increase the risk of developing an incisional hernia due to poor wound healing and susceptibility to abdominal content herniation. Increasing age is also a risk factor, likely due to delayed wound healing and reduced collagen synthesis. However, being tall and thin does not increase the risk, while obesity can increase abdominal pressure and lead to herniation. A sedentary lifestyle does not appear to be associated with incisional hernias, but smoking and nutritional deficiencies can increase the risk. Post-operative vomiting, not nausea alone, can cause episodic increases in abdominal pressure and increase the risk of herniation. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the development of incisional hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department referred by his GP due to lower abdominal pain and distension for the past three days. He has been unable to pass stool or flatus. The patient had a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer 25 years ago. Upon examination, his abdomen is distended and non-tender, and he appears to be in obvious discomfort. The CT scan of his abdomen and pelvis reveals evidence of large bowel obstruction at the splenic flexure. What is the probable cause of his presentation?
Your Answer: Adhesions from previous surgery
Correct Answer: Colon cancer
Explanation:A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant. Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precaution?
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old man was driving under the influence of alcohol at a high speed, with his seat belt on. He crashed into a brick wall at approximately 140 km/h. Upon arrival at the emergency department, he was found to be in a comatose state. Although his CT scan showed no abnormalities, he remained in a persistent vegetative state. What is the probable underlying reason for this?
Your Answer: Diffuse axonal injury
Explanation:Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man experiences polytrauma and necessitates a massive transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma. After three hours, he presents with significant hypoxia and a CVP reading of 5 mmHg. A chest x-ray reveals diffuse pulmonary infiltrates in both lungs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fluid overload
Correct Answer: Transfusion associated lung injury
Explanation:Plasma components pose the highest risk for transfusion associated lung injury.
When plasma components are infused, there is a possibility of transfusion lung injury. This can cause damage to the microvasculature in the lungs, resulting in diffuse infiltrates visible on imaging. Unfortunately, mortality rates are often high in such cases. It is worth noting that a normal central venous pressure (which should be between 0-6 mmHg) is not necessarily indicative of fluid overload.
Understanding Massive Haemorrhage and its Complications
Massive haemorrhage is defined as the loss of one blood volume within 24 hours, the loss of 50% of the circulating blood volume within three hours, or a blood loss of 150ml/minute. In adults, the blood volume is approximately 7% of the total body weight, while in children, it is between 8 and 9% of their body weight.
Massive haemorrhage can lead to several complications, including hypothermia, hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia, delayed type transfusion reactions, transfusion-related lung injury, and coagulopathy. Hypothermia occurs because the blood is refrigerated, which impairs homeostasis and shifts the Bohr curve to the left. Hypocalcaemia may occur because both fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and platelets contain citrate anticoagulant, which may chelate calcium. Hyperkalaemia may also occur because the plasma of red cells stored for 4-5 weeks contains 5-10 mmol K+.
Delayed type transfusion reactions may occur due to minor incompatibility issues, especially if urgent or non-cross-matched blood is used. Transfusion-related lung injury is the leading cause of transfusion-related deaths and poses the greatest risk with plasma components. It occurs as a result of leucocyte antibodies in transfused plasma, leading to aggregation and degranulation of leucocytes in lung tissue. Finally, coagulopathy is anticipated once the circulating blood volume is transfused. One blood volume usually drops the platelet count to 100 or less, and it will both dilute and not replace clotting factors. The fibrinogen concentration halves per 0.75 blood volume transfused.
In summary, massive haemorrhage can lead to several complications that can be life-threatening. It is essential to understand these complications to manage them effectively and prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Incorrect
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For a 19-year-old male undergoing a unilateral Zadek's procedure, which local anaesthetic preparation would be the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ring block with 1% lignocaine alone
Explanation:To perform toenail removal, it is necessary to use a rapid-acting local anesthetic. It is important to avoid using adrenaline in this situation as it may lead to digital ischemia.
Local anaesthetic agents include lidocaine, cocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine. Lidocaine is an amide that is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and renally excreted. Toxicity can occur with IV or excess administration, and increased risk is present with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Cocaine is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice and is cardiotoxic. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lignocaine and is cardiotoxic, while levobupivacaine is less cardiotoxic. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic and is the agent of choice for intravenous regional anesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the pre-operative clinic for an elective cholecystectomy. She reports feeling well and denies any recent infections or allergies. She has never smoked or consumed alcohol. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, clear chest sounds, and normal heart sounds. The patients BMI is 34.6. Her capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds and there is no evidence of peripheral edema. What is the ASA classification for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ASA II
Explanation:The patient’s pre-operative morbidity is assessed using the ASA scoring system, which takes into account various factors including BMI. Despite having no significant medical history and not smoking or drinking, the patient’s BMI is elevated and can be rounded up to 35 kg/m², placing her in the ASA II category. This category includes patients with a BMI between 30 and 40. A healthy patient who does not smoke or drink and has a BMI below 30 kg/m² is classified as ASA I. Patients with severe systemic diseases such as poorly controlled diabetes, hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or morbid obesity (BMI > 40 kg/m²) are classified as ASA III. ASA IV is reserved for patients with severe systemic diseases that pose a constant threat to life, such as ongoing cardiac ischaemia or recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, and end-stage renal disease.
The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor with a lump in her left breast that she noticed a month ago and believes has grown in size. She had her last menstrual period two years ago. Upon examination, a painless, firm nodule is found in her left breast. She is urgently referred for triple assessment and is diagnosed with invasive ductal carcinoma. Molecular subtyping of the cancer is performed as part of the diagnostic work-up, revealing that she is ER and PR positive, but HER2 negative. What is the most likely treatment for this woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anastrozole
Explanation:Tamoxifen is a targeted therapy used in women with ER+ve breast cancer who are pre- or perimenopausal, while aromatase inhibitors are preferred in those who are postmenopausal. As this patient is postmenopausal, she is most likely to be offered an aromatase inhibitor. Imatinib is a targeted therapy used in chronic myeloid leukaemia, while nivolumab is used in malignant melanoma and renal cell carcinoma, but not breast cancer. Tamoxifen is an oestrogen receptor modulator that inhibits the oestrogen receptor in the breast, making it useful in the targeted treatment of ER+ve breast cancer. It is preferred in pre- and perimenopausal women, while aromatase inhibitors are preferred in postmenopausal women due to the predominant mechanism of oestrogen production.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a car accident where he sustained injuries to his cervical spine and left tibia. Upon assessment, his airway is open, but he is experiencing difficulty breathing. However, his chest is clear upon auscultation, and he has a respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min with an oxygen saturation of 96% in air. He appears flushed and warm to the touch, with a heart rate of 60 beats/min and blood pressure of 75/45 mmHg. What is the appropriate treatment for the likely cause of his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasopressors
Explanation:After trauma, a spinal cord transection can result in neurogenic shock, which is consistent with the patient’s presentation. The injury to the cervical spine puts the patient at risk of this type of shock, which is characterized by hypotension due to massive vasodilation caused by decreased sympathetic or increased parasympathetic tone. As a result, the patient cannot produce a tachycardic response to the hypotension, and vasopressors are needed to reverse the vasodilation and address the underlying cause of shock. While IV fluids may be given in the interim, they do not address the root cause of the presentation. Haemorrhagic shock is a differential diagnosis, but it is less likely given the evidence of vasodilation and lack of tachycardia. Packed red cells and FFP are not appropriate treatments in this case. IM adrenaline would be suitable for anaphylactic shock, but this is not indicated in this patient.
Understanding Shock: Aetiology and Management
Shock is a condition that occurs when there is inadequate tissue perfusion. It can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, haemorrhage, neurogenic injury, cardiogenic events, and anaphylaxis. Septic shock is a major concern, with a mortality rate of over 40% in patients with severe sepsis. Haemorrhagic shock is often seen in trauma patients, and the severity is classified based on the amount of blood loss and associated physiological changes. Neurogenic shock occurs following spinal cord injury, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is commonly caused by ischaemic heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe hypersensitivity reaction that can be life-threatening.
The management of shock depends on the underlying cause. In septic shock, prompt administration of antibiotics and haemodynamic stabilisation are crucial. In haemorrhagic shock, controlling bleeding and maintaining circulating volume are essential. In neurogenic shock, peripheral vasoconstrictors are used to restore vascular tone. In cardiogenic shock, supportive treatment and surgery may be required. In anaphylactic shock, adrenaline is the most important drug and should be given as soon as possible.
Understanding the aetiology and management of shock is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of high fever and severe pain in the upper abdomen. He appears disheveled and admits to consuming 50 units of alcohol per week. Despite experiencing symptoms for two days, he delayed seeking medical attention due to a fear of hospitals. What is the most appropriate test to order for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lipase
Explanation:Serum lipase is more useful than amylase for diagnosing acute pancreatitis in late presentations (>24 hours). This patient’s lipase level is >3 times normal, confirming the diagnosis. Ultrasound can investigate for bile duct stones, but CT scans are not used for diagnosis.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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- Surgery
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention. She has been feeling unwell for the past 4 hours and she has vomited three times. Her past medical history includes hypertension and an appendicectomy in her late 40s. On examination, her abdomen is distended but not peritonitic, with absent bowel sounds. Her electrolytes were assessed and are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 105 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
What is the first-line management for her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasogastric tube insertion and intravenous fluids with additional potassium
Explanation:The initial medical management for small bowel obstruction involves the insertion of a nasogastric tube to decompress the small bowel and the administration of intravenous fluids with additional potassium. This is the correct answer as the patient is exhibiting classic symptoms of small bowel obstruction, including intense abdominal pain and early vomiting, and has a history of abdominal surgery that could have caused adhesions, the most common cause of this condition. The intravenous fluids are necessary to replace electrolytes, particularly potassium, which can be lost due to the increased peristalsis and enlargement of the proximal bowel segment. Antibiotics and intravenous fluids would be the appropriate treatment for acute pancreatitis, which presents with different symptoms and causes. Surgery is not the first-line management for small bowel obstruction, and sigmoidoscope insertion with a flatus tube is not appropriate as the patient has small bowel obstruction, not large bowel obstruction.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance. He has a penetrating stab wound in his abdomen and is haemodynamically unstable. He is not pregnant. A FAST scan is carried out.
What is the primary purpose of a FAST scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To investigate for presence of free fluid
Explanation:FAST scans are a non-invasive method used in trauma to quickly evaluate the presence of free fluid in the chest, peritoneal or pericardial cavities. They are particularly useful in emergency care during the primary or secondary survey to assess the extent of free fluid or pneumothorax. Although CTG is the preferred method for assessing fetal wellbeing, FAST scans can be safely performed in pregnant patients and children, especially in cases of trauma. However, it is important to note that FAST scans have limitations in detecting cardiac tamponade, which requires echocardiography for accurate diagnosis. X-rays and CT scans are more effective in detecting fractures, while FAST scans are specifically designed to identify fluid in the abdomen and thorax. It is important to note that FAST scans cannot be used to assess solid organ injury, and other imaging methods such as formal ultrasound or CT scans are required in such cases.
Trauma management follows the principles of ATLS and involves an ABCDE approach. Thoracic injuries include simple pneumothorax, mediastinal traversing wounds, tracheobronchial tree injury, haemothorax, blunt cardiac injury, diaphragmatic injury, and traumatic aortic disruption. Abdominal trauma may involve deceleration injuries and injuries to the spleen, liver, or small bowel. Diagnostic tools include diagnostic peritoneal lavage, abdominal CT scan, and ultrasound. Urethrography may be necessary for suspected urethral injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not typically observed in coning caused by elevated intracranial pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypotension
Explanation:The three components of Cushings triad are changes in pulse pressure, respiratory patterns, and widening of the pulse pressure.
Coning and the Effects of Increased Intracranial Pressure
The cranial vault is a limited space within the skull, except in infants with an unfused fontanelle. When intracranial pressure (ICP) rises, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can shift to accommodate the increase. However, once the CSF has reached its capacity, ICP will rapidly rise. The brain has the ability to regulate its own blood supply, and as ICP increases, the body’s circulation will adjust to meet the brain’s perfusion needs, often resulting in hypertension.
As ICP continues to rise, the brain will become compressed, leading to cranial nerve damage and compression of vital centers in the brainstem. If the cardiac center is affected, bradycardia may develop. This process is known as coning and can have severe consequences if left untreated. It is important to monitor ICP and intervene promptly to prevent coning and its associated complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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After catheterisation for acute urinary retention due to a lower urinary tract infection, what is the maximum acceptable residual urine volume in patients aged 65 years or older?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50ml
Explanation:For patients under the age of 65, post-void volumes of less than 50 ml are considered normal. For patients over the age of 65, post-void volumes of less than 100 ml are considered normal. Chronic urinary retention is diagnosed when there is more than 500 ml of urine remaining in the bladder after voiding. An acute-on-chronic urinary retention is suggested by a post-catheterization urine volume of more than 800 ml.
Acute urinary retention is a condition where a person suddenly becomes unable to pass urine voluntarily, typically over a period of hours or less. It is a common urological emergency that requires investigation to determine the underlying cause. While it is more common in men, it rarely occurs in women, with an incidence ratio of 13:1. Acute urinary retention is most frequently seen in men over 60 years of age, and the incidence increases with age. It has been estimated that around a third of men in their 80s will develop acute urinary retention over a five-year period.
The most common cause of acute urinary retention in men is benign prostatic hyperplasia, a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that presses on the urethra, making it difficult for the bladder to empty. Other causes include urethral obstructions, such as strictures, calculi, cystocele, constipation, or masses, as well as certain medications that affect nerve signals to the bladder. In some cases, there may be a neurological cause for the condition. Acute urinary retention can also occur postoperatively and in women postpartum, typically due to a combination of risk factors.
Patients with acute urinary retention typically experience an inability to pass urine, lower abdominal discomfort, and considerable pain or distress. Elderly patients may also present with an acute confusional state. Unlike chronic urinary retention, which is typically painless, acute urinary retention is associated with pain and discomfort. A palpable distended urinary bladder may be detected on abdominal or rectal examination, and lower abdominal tenderness may also be present. All patients should undergo a rectal and neurological examination, and women should also have a pelvic examination.
To confirm the diagnosis of acute urinary retention, a bladder ultrasound should be performed. The bladder volume should be greater than 300 cc to confirm the diagnosis, but if the history and examination are consistent with acute urinary retention, an inconsistent bladder scan does not rule out the condition. Acute urinary retention is managed by decompressing the bladder via catheterisation. Further investigation should be targeted by the likely cause, and patients may require IV fluids to correct any temporary over-diuresis that may occur as a complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 22
Incorrect
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During a postoperative ward round, you are instructed to ask a nurse to clean a patient's surgical wound during dressing change. The patient is 48 hours post-surgery. As per NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable substance to be used for wound cleaning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sterile saline
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to clean postoperative wounds with sterile saline for up to 48 hours after surgery. Patients can safely take a shower 48 hours after surgery. If the surgical wound has separated or has been opened to drain pus, tap water can be used for wound cleansing after 48 hours. This information can be found in section 1.4 of NICE guideline CG74.
Understanding the Stages of Wound Healing
Wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages. The type of wound, whether it is incisional or excisional, and its level of contamination will affect the contributions of each stage. The four main stages of wound healing are haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodeling.
Haemostasis occurs within minutes to hours following injury and involves the formation of a platelet plug and fibrin-rich clot. Inflammation typically occurs within the first five days and involves the migration of neutrophils into the wound, the release of growth factors, and the replication and migration of fibroblasts. Regeneration occurs from day 7 to day 56 and involves the stimulation of fibroblasts and epithelial cells, the production of a collagen network, and the formation of granulation tissue. Remodeling is the longest phase and can last up to one year or longer. During this phase, collagen fibers are remodeled, and microvessels regress, leaving a pale scar.
However, several diseases and conditions can distort the wound healing process. For example, vascular disease, shock, and sepsis can impair microvascular flow and healing. Jaundice can also impair fibroblast synthetic function and immunity, which can have a detrimental effect on the healing process.
Hypertrophic and keloid scars are two common problems that can occur during wound healing. Hypertrophic scars contain excessive amounts of collagen within the scar and may develop contractures. Keloid scars also contain excessive amounts of collagen but extend beyond the boundaries of the original injury and do not regress over time.
Several drugs can impair wound healing, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, immunosuppressive agents, and anti-neoplastic drugs. Closure of the wound can be achieved through delayed primary closure or secondary closure, depending on the timing and extent of granulation tissue formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man is one day postoperative, following an inguinal hernia repair. He has become extremely nauseated and is vomiting. He is complaining of general malaise and lethargy. His past medical history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus; you perform a capillary blood glucose which is 24 mmol/l and capillary ketone level is 4 mmol/l. A venous blood gas demonstrates a pH of 7.28 and a potassium level of 5.7 mmol/l.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the best initial immediate management in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.9% saline intravenously (IV)
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Prioritizing Fluid Resuscitation and Insulin Infusion
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires prompt management. Diagnosis is based on elevated blood glucose and ketone levels, as well as low pH and bicarbonate levels. The first step in management is fluid resuscitation with 0.9% saline to restore circulating volume. This should be followed by a fixed-rate insulin infusion to address the underlying metabolic disturbance. Dextrose infusion should not be used in patients with high blood glucose levels. Potassium replacement is only necessary when levels fall below 5.5 mmol/l during insulin infusion. By prioritizing fluid resuscitation and insulin infusion, healthcare providers can effectively manage DKA and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to sensorineural hearing loss?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early otosclerosis
Explanation:Hearing Loss and Cochlear Implants
Hearing loss can be classified into two types: conductive and sensorineural. Conductive hearing loss affects the outer and middle ear, while sensorineural hearing loss affects the cochlea in the inner ear. Cochlear implants are a solution for sensorineural hearing loss, as they provide direct electrical stimulation to the auditory nerve fibers in the cochlea to replicate the function of damaged hair cells.
There are various causes of hair cell damage, including gentamicin toxicity, bacterial meningitis, skull fractures, noise exposure, presbycusis, genetic syndromes, hereditary deafness, and unknown factors. Otosclerosis is another cause of hearing loss, resulting from an overgrowth of bone in the middle ear that fixes the footplate of the stapes at the oval window, leading to conductive hearing loss. If left untreated for an extended period, the cochlea can also become affected, resulting in a mixed hearing loss that is both conductive and sensorineural.
In summary, the different types and causes of hearing loss is crucial in finding the appropriate treatment. Cochlear implants are a viable solution for sensorineural hearing loss, while conductive hearing loss may require different interventions. It is essential to seek medical attention and diagnosis to determine the best course of action for hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 25
Incorrect
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For which disease does the use of a screening procedure result in an increase in overall survival?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colon cancer
Explanation:Preventing and Curing Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer can be prevented and cured through early detection and removal of precancerous colon polyps. Removing these polyps can reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer by 90%. However, since most polyps and early cancers do not produce symptoms, it is important to screen and monitor patients without any signs or symptoms.
Regular screening and surveillance for colon cancer can help detect any abnormalities early on, allowing for prompt treatment and a higher chance of a successful outcome. This is especially important for individuals who are at a higher risk of developing colorectal cancer, such as those with a family history of the disease or those over the age of 50.
By taking preventative measures and staying vigilant with screening and surveillance, we can work towards reducing the incidence and impact of colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty passing urine for the past 6 hours and is in significant discomfort. Upon catheterization, 1 litre of urine is drained and the patient experiences relief. During a PR examination, an enlarged, hard, nodular prostate is detected. The Urology Registrar advises admission and observation for 24 hours due to the risk of complications following an episode of acute urinary retention. What is the most crucial test to repeat within the next 12 hours to aid in identifying such a complication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum creatinine
Explanation:This man experienced sudden inability to urinate and upon examination, it appears that his enlarged prostate (possibly due to cancer) is the cause. Acute kidney damage can occur as a result of this condition, so the best course of action is to test his serum creatinine levels. It’s crucial to closely monitor his fluid intake over the next two days as some patients may experience excessive urination after a catheter is inserted. Additionally, it’s important to note that the PSA levels may be inaccurately elevated after catheterization.
Prostate cancer is currently the most prevalent cancer among adult males in the UK, and the second most common cause of cancer-related deaths in men, following lung cancer. The risk factors for prostate cancer include increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. Localized prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, as the cancer tends to develop in the outer part of the prostate gland, causing no obstructive symptoms in the early stages. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, haematuria or haematospermia, and pain in the back, perineal or testicular area. A digital rectal examination may reveal asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus. In addition, an isotope bone scan can be used to detect metastatic prostate cancer, which appears as multiple, irregular, randomly distributed foci of high-grade activity involving the spine, ribs, sternum, pelvic and femoral bones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the usual anatomical structure affected in Klippel-Feil syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical vertebra
Explanation:Klippel-Feil Syndrome
Klippel-Feil syndrome is a rare condition that occurs when two of the seven cervical vertebrae in the neck are fused together during fetal development. This abnormality can cause a range of symptoms, including a short neck, a low hairline at the back of the head, and limited mobility in the upper spine. In addition to these common signs, individuals with Klippel-Feil syndrome may also experience other abnormalities such as scoliosis, spina bifida, kidney and rib anomalies, cleft palate, respiratory problems, and heart malformations.
This disorder can also affect other parts of the body, including the head and face, skeleton, sex organs, muscles, brain and spinal cord, arms, legs, and fingers. While the exact cause of Klippel-Feil syndrome is not fully understood, it is believed to be the result of a failure in the normal segmentation or division of the cervical vertebrae during early fetal development. the symptoms and associated abnormalities of Klippel-Feil syndrome can help individuals and their healthcare providers better manage this rare condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a head-on collision with a truck. The air ambulance arrives at the scene and finds that the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 6 (E2, V1, M3) and he has no air entry on the right side of the chest, with an open fractured neck of femur on the left side. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.8ºC, heart rate 120 bpm, blood pressure 70/50 mmHg, SpO2 94% on air, and respiratory rate 24/min. The fractured femur is reduced at the scene, but due to the patient's low GCS, the decision is made to intubate him at the scene. What is the most appropriate agent for induction of anesthesia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is a suitable anaesthetic option for patients who are haemodynamically unstable. Other anaesthetic agents can cause hypotension, which can be dangerous for patients who are already experiencing low blood pressure. Ketamine is often used in prehospital settings for pain relief and intubation, as it does not reduce blood pressure or cause cardiosuppression. Propofol, suxamethonium, desflurane, and thiopental sodium are not ideal options for induction of anaesthesia in haemodynamically unstable patients due to their potential to cause hypotension or other adverse effects.
Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents
Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and daycase surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.
Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man is admitted to the neurosurgery ward with symptoms of coughing and choking after meals, accompanied by yellow and brown sputum. He has a history of traumatic brain injury and required intubation for 2 months. On examination, mild crackles are heard in the right middle zone. His vital signs include a heart rate of 89/min, respiratory rate of 21/min, blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 89%, and temperature of 37.0ºC. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tracheo-esophageal fistula
Explanation:Long-term mechanical ventilation in trauma patients can lead to the formation of a tracheo-esophageal fistula, which can cause symptoms such as productive cough, choking after feeds, and aspiration pneumonia. Other potential complications, such as pneumatocele, obstructive fibrinous tracheal pseudomembrane, and tracheomalacia, are less likely based on the patient’s clinical presentation.
Airway Management Devices and Techniques
Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.
The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.
It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his right lower quadrant that started from his belly button. The medical team suspects appendicitis and evaluates him for surgery. He has no medical history, drinks approximately 13 units per week, and smokes 5 cigarettes daily. He currently resides with his parents and works as a plumber for 4 days each week. Based on this information, what is his current ASA classification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ASA II
Explanation:The patient’s ASA grade is 2 because of their history of smoking and drinking. Grade 2 includes individuals who smoke or consume alcohol socially. To be classified as grade 1, one must be in good health, not smoke, and consume little to no alcohol.
The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).
ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.
ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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