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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has developed symmetrical synovitis affecting the small joints of the hands and feet. This has persisted for eight weeks. She has returned to her General Practitioner (GP) to discuss her test results. Her C-reactive protein is slightly elevated but her test for rheumatoid factor is negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option in primary care in addition to analgesia?Your Answer: Repeat the tests in six weeks
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to rheumatology
Explanation:The Importance of Urgent Referral to Rheumatology for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis
Suspected rheumatoid arthritis requires urgent referral to a rheumatologist to prevent irreversible joint damage. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends immediate referral as there is no specific diagnostic test for rheumatoid arthritis, and delaying treatment can lead to joint deformity and pain. Corticosteroids and DMARDs such as sulfasalazine are effective treatments, but should only be prescribed by a specialist. Repeat testing is not recommended as rheumatoid factors can be negative in a significant number of cases. Early referral to rheumatology is crucial for managing suspected rheumatoid arthritis and preventing long-term disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the disease.
What is the most suitable marker for monitoring his condition?Your Answer: CD4 lymphocyte count
Explanation:Understanding the Importance of CD4 Lymphocyte Count in HIV-related Immune Impairment
The CD4 lymphocyte count, also known as T-helper cell count, is a crucial indicator of immune impairment in individuals with HIV. While CD4 counts can vary even in the absence of HIV infection, a fall in the count to below 200/mm3 without antiretroviral treatment can increase the risk of opportunistic infections by 80% over three years. However, some patients with stable low CD4 counts can remain well for several years, and this variability is partly explained by differences in HIV viral load.
The level of CD4 lymphopenia determines the potential spectrum of infections, with certain infections such as oral candidiasis and pneumocystis pneumonia being more frequent at CD4 counts of 100-200/mm3, while others like disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection and cytomegalovirus retinitis are rarely seen until the CD4 count drops below 50/mm3.
While plasma HIV RNA levels strongly predict progression to AIDS and death, regular monitoring of CD4 counts is usually sufficient. Anti-HIV IgG is also used in the diagnosis of HIV infection. Understanding the importance of CD4 lymphocyte count in HIV-related immune impairment is crucial for effective management and treatment of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has given birth to her first child.
The child was breech and she underwent external cephalic version. She is adamant that she and her partner want one child only and that he will be seeking a vasectomy. The child's blood group is A rhesus positive, the mother's blood group is 0 rhesus negative.
What is the most suitable recommendation regarding anti-D injection?Your Answer: Anti-D should be given after this and every future pregnancy
Correct Answer: She should be strongly advised to consider anti-D, but it is not essential as she is not planning any more children
Explanation:Anti-D Injection for Rhesus Antibody Sensitisation
Rhesus antibody sensitisation is a condition that requires careful consideration when deciding whether or not to administer anti-D injection. According to NICE guidelines, women should be given the option to discuss the need for this injection. If a woman has decided not to have any further children, immunisation with anti-D may not be necessary as long as she is sure her family is complete. However, it is important to note that patients often change their minds, and this needs to be discussed.
It is also important to consider the benefits and risks of anti-D injection. All preparations of anti-D carry a small risk of allergic reaction, as with the use of all medicines. The risk of D sensitisation is greatest during the first pregnancy and increased in ante-partum haemorrhage, third trimester miscarriage, termination, and with chorionic villus sampling. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the potential benefits and risks of anti-D injection before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A father visits you in general practice with concerns about his 2-year-old daughter who has biliary atresia. He has been informed by the paediatric gastroenterologist that her condition has deteriorated and she requires a liver transplant. The father is feeling anxious and upset and is seeking further information about the procedure. As his GP, what is the best advice you can provide him regarding liver transplantation?
Your Answer: Immunosuppression will be required for 12 months after transplant
Correct Answer: The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C
Explanation:Myth-busting Facts about Pediatric Liver Transplantation
Pediatric liver transplantation is a complex medical procedure that involves replacing a diseased liver with a healthy one from a donor. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this life-saving surgery. Here are some myth-busting facts about pediatric liver transplantation:
– The donor must be tested for hepatitis B and C: A potential living donor with antibodies to hepatitis B and C would usually be ruled out as a donor.
– HLA matching is necessary for kidney, heart, and lung transplants, but not for liver transplants: Blood-group compatibility is necessary, and a relative is more likely to be a match.
– Immunosuppression is usually required for life, not just 12 months after transplant: While the regimen can be reduced with time, complete withdrawal is only successful in a small number of individuals.
– Prednisolone is not the only immunosuppressant needed after transplant: A combination of drugs, including prednisolone, ciclosporin, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine, and sirolimus, are commonly used.
– Survival at one year after liver transplantation is higher than 50% in children: One-year survival is 80% for all children transplanted and may reach 90% for children with biliary atresia.It is important to dispel these myths and provide accurate information about pediatric liver transplantation to help families make informed decisions about their child’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents. They have noticed that he has developed a skin rash and bruising over last one to two days.
On reviewing the history the parents tell you that he has previously been a well child and the only recent unwellness was a viral upper respiratory tract infection just over a week ago.
On examination, he appears well in himself, with no temperature and is interacting and playful. However, there is marked superficial bruising and purpura over his trunk and legs. The purpura is not palpable. You also note two blood blisters on his tongue.
There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly and the remainder of the clinical examination is unremarkable with normal urine on dipstick testing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease
Correct Answer: Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is the most common cause of low platelets in children. It occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction and typically affects children between 2 and 10 years of age, usually after a viral infection. Children with ITP develop purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. Although intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it can be serious. However, ITP is usually an acute and self-limiting condition.
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) can also present with abnormal bruising, but the history and clinical features of the above child are more consistent with ITP. Other features of ALL include malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case.
Haemolytic-uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), meningococcal septicaemia, and Von Willebrand disease are other conditions that can cause purpura. However, HSP typically presents with a palpable purpura that affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces, while the trunk is usually spared. Meningococcal septicaemia causes serious illness, and Von Willebrand disease presents with a more chronic timescale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient comes in for a follow-up appointment one week after being prescribed a combination antibiotic and steroid spray for otitis externa. Despite the medication, her symptoms have not improved and the redness has spread to her ear. What is the recommended course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:When the erythema spreads, it is a sign that oral antibiotics are necessary. The preferred initial treatment is Flucloxacillin.
Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management
Otitis externa is a prevalent condition that often prompts primary care visits in the UK. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and can be caused by bacterial or fungal infections, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger for otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal may appear red, swollen, or eczematous.
The recommended initial management for otitis externa is the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. If there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, and if the canal is extensively swollen, an ear wick may be inserted. Second-line options include taking a swab inside the ear canal, considering contact dermatitis secondary to neomycin, or using oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin if the infection is spreading. Empirical use of an antifungal agent may also be considered.
It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, they should be referred to an ENT specialist. Malignant otitis externa is a more severe form of the condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics. While some ENT doctors disagree, concerns about ototoxicity may arise with the use of aminoglycosides in patients with perforated tympanic membranes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Ms Adebayo, a 26-year-old patient, presents with a complaint of feeling constantly tired. She believes this has been happening gradually over the past few months and has no other specific physical symptoms. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, a non-smoker, and reports drinking a bottle of wine per week. Ms Adebayo has a family history of thyroid disease and wonders if she is developing a thyroid problem. She also mentions that she has been a vegan for a couple of years and asks if this could be related.
After conducting various blood tests, an abnormal full blood count was discovered:
Hb 91 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 220 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
MCV 109 fL (80-100)
What is the likely underlying cause of Ms Adebayo's fatigue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:A deficiency in Vitamin B12 is a risk factor for megaloblastic anaemia, which is the most likely cause in this case. Vegans are particularly susceptible to B12 deficiency as it is only naturally found in animal products. To prevent this, vegans should consume B12 fortified products or take supplements.
Excessive alcohol consumption can also lead to megaloblastic anaemia, but there is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest this as the cause.
Iron deficiency is an incorrect answer as it causes microcytic anaemia. However, vegans should still ensure they consume enough iron in their diet.
Hyperthyroidism is also an incorrect answer as it is hypothyroidism that causes macrocytic anaemia.
Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.
Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 55-year-old woman who visits her GP for a medication review. She was prescribed 75 micrograms of thyroxine 6 months ago due to her TSH level being 6.5mU/L and her T4 level being 3.9 μg/dL. She takes her medication consistently at the same time every day and has not missed a dose. Her other medications include lisinopril, simvastatin, ferrous fumarate, and calcium carbonate.
Her recent blood test results are as follows:
- Sodium (Na+): 137 mmol/L (135-145)
- Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 5.8 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 80 µmol/L (55-120)
- Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): >90 ml/min/1.73m²
- Cholesterol: 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L)
- TSH: 6.0mU/L (0.4-4.0 mU/L)
- T4: 4.2 μg/dL (4.6-11.2 μg/dL)
What is the most likely explanation for Sarah's continued abnormal thyroid function?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He is taking the thyroxine as the same time as ferrous sulphate
Explanation:To avoid reducing the absorption of thyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be taken 4 hours apart from it. Despite taking the medication regularly, the patient is still hypothyroid. This is likely due to the binding of thyroxine in the gut by iron supplements. Atorvastatin is not expected to have an impact on thyroxine absorption. It is recommended to take thyroxine on an empty stomach in the morning.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner accompanied by his wife, she reports that over the last 18 months she has noticed his memory decline and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. He has a particularly poor memory of recent events and his wife notices that he sometimes struggles with day-to-day activities such as making a cup of tea or getting dressed. He denies feeling low in mood, and his wife doesn't feel that his mood has changed recently. He scores 21/30 on the mini-mental state examination. His blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg and his heart rate is 80/min and regular. He has no history of heart disease and previous stroke.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia: Differential Diagnosis for Memory Impairment
Memory impairment is a common symptom in older adults, and it can be caused by various conditions, including dementia. Dementia affects approximately 5% of people over 65 and 20% of individuals over 80. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia, accounting for around 60% of cases. However, other types of dementia should also be considered in the differential diagnosis.
Depression is an important differential diagnosis in an older person presenting with memory impairment. Apathy and disconnection with activities that the patient previously enjoyed are common symptoms of depression. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is another condition that can cause memory impairment. However, MCI is characterized by memory impairment with preservation of other cognitive domains and intact activities of daily living.
Lewy-body dementia is a type of dementia that accounts for approximately 20% of cases. It usually presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations. Vascular dementia (vascular cognitive impairment) is another type of dementia caused by cerebrovascular disease. It is a progressive disease where deteriorations may be sudden or gradual but tend to progress in a stepwise manner.
In this case, the patient’s mini-mental state examination result supports the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease. The patient (or their relatives) commonly complains of difficulty with common activities of daily living and short-term memory loss. It is important to consider all possible causes of memory impairment to provide appropriate treatment and support for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of polymyalgia rheumatica has been taking prednisolone 10 mg for the past 6 months. A DEXA scan shows the following results:
L2 T-score -1.6 SD
Femoral neck T-score -1.7 SD
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D + calcium supplementation + oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Supplementation of vitamin D and calcium along with oral bisphosphonate.
Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids
Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.
The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.
The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle. The male GP takes a detailed history and requests to examine the genital area, offering a chaperone. The patient agrees, and a female nurse practitioner acts as a chaperone. The GP conducts the examination, speaking only when necessary. Following the examination, he documents the chaperone's acceptance, last name, and role.
Has anything been done incorrectly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recording of only the last name and role
Explanation:It is important to document the full name and role of a chaperone when they are used during an intimate or intrusive examination. The chaperone should be impartial and not related to the patient. Patients are allowed to express a preference for the gender of the chaperone. During the examination, it is recommended that the GP only speaks if necessary.
GMC Guidelines on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones
The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided comprehensive guidance on how to conduct intimate examinations and the role of chaperones in the process. Intimate examinations refer to any procedure that a patient may consider intrusive or intimate, such as examinations of the genitalia, rectum, and breasts. Before performing such an examination, doctors must obtain informed consent from the patient, explaining the procedure, its purpose, and the extent of exposure required. During the examination, doctors should only speak if necessary, and patients have the right to stop the examination at any point.
Chaperones are impartial individuals who offer support to patients during intimate examinations and observe the procedure to ensure that it is conducted professionally. They should be healthcare workers who have no relation to the patient or doctor, and their full name and role should be documented in the medical records. Patients may also wish to have family members present for support, but they cannot act as chaperones as they are not impartial. Doctors should not feel pressured to perform an examination without a chaperone if they are uncomfortable doing so. In such cases, they should refer the patient to a colleague who is comfortable with the examination.
It is not mandatory to have a chaperone present during an intimate examination, and patients may refuse one. However, the offer and refusal of a chaperone should be documented in the medical records. If a patient makes any allegations against the doctor regarding the examination, the chaperone can be called upon as a witness. In cases where a patient refuses a chaperone, doctors should explain the reasons for offering one and refer the patient to another service if necessary. The GMC guidelines aim to ensure that intimate examinations are conducted with sensitivity, respect, and professionalism, while also protecting the interests of both patients and doctors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In an emergency surgery one morning you see a 12-year-old patient with an infective exacerbation of asthma. She is under the respiratory specialist at the local hospital as she has had longstanding problems with poor disease control. Her current medications consist of salbutamol 2 puffs PRN, Symbicort 400/6 2 puffs BD, montelukast 10 mg OD and theophylline 400 mg BD. She is allergic to penicillin.
She reports a one week history of progressive chest tightness and cough productive of green purulent phlegm. Following your assessment you feel she warrants antibiotic treatment.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The Importance of Drug Interactions in Theophylline Metabolism
Theophylline is a medication that undergoes hepatic metabolism, making it susceptible to interactions with other drugs. These interactions can either increase or decrease its metabolism, affecting its plasma concentration and ultimately its clinical effectiveness. Due to its narrow therapeutic index, concurrent prescription of drugs that affect its metabolism can lead to toxicity or limit its effectiveness.
Certain antibiotics, such as azithromycin, ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin, can increase the plasma concentration of theophylline if co-prescribed. Therefore, it is important to consider these interactions when prescribing medications to patients taking theophylline.
In cases where the patient is penicillin allergic, doxycycline is a safe option as it doesn’t interfere with theophylline metabolism. By being aware of these interactions, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective use of theophylline in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment regarding her treatment. She visited two weeks ago and was diagnosed with moderate depression and a few symptoms of anxiety. You prescribed Citalopram 20 mg to treat her condition.
During the review, she reports feeling terrible. She experiences muscle twitches, tremors, and constant stomach gurgling. She used to feel sluggish and lethargic, but now she can't sit still and paces around the room. These symptoms worsened after a recent migraine attack.
Upon examination, she appears agitated, and her pulse is 90 bpm sinus rhythm with a BP of 160/90. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, and a brief neurological examination of the limbs is normal, except for brisk reflexes all around. Recent thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and full blood count were normal.
Her medical history includes endometriosis and migraines. She takes co-codamol 8/500 tablets and Sumatriptan tablets as needed. She has also been taking St John's wort for the past three months. She used to drink two units of alcohol per week.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdraw the Citalopram completely
Explanation:Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a condition that is often overlooked in primary care. It occurs when there is an excessive amount of serotonergic activity in the body, which can be caused by the initiation of medication affecting serotonin activity or an interaction between medicines that affect serotonin activity. Patients who take medications such as codeine, triptans, and St. John’s wort are at a higher risk of developing serotonin syndrome when co-prescribed with an SSRI.
If a patient presents with symptoms of serotonin syndrome, it is important to withdraw the offending medicine, such as Citalopram. However, it is also important to consider other factors that may have contributed to the onset of symptoms, such as the use of a triptan for a migraine. Prescribing pizotifen or referring the patient for counseling may not alleviate their symptoms.
It is important to note that some authorities caution against the use of propranolol, as it can result in hypotension and mask the response to treatment by slowing the pulse. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of serotonin syndrome, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of daily headaches that last most of the day. Despite this, she is able to carry out her usual activities. She also reports experiencing clumsiness and frequently bumping into objects on the periphery of her vision, which has been gradually worsening. Apart from these symptoms, she feels fine. The patient is currently taking the COCP and mentions that she had infrequent periods before starting it, and had not had a period for about a year. On examination, her BMI is 19kg/m², vital signs are normal, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:– Prolactinoma may cause headaches, amenorrhoea, and visual field defects.
– If a person experiences headaches, amenorrhoea, and visual field defects, a possible underlying condition is prolactinoma.Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma
Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.
In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.
Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.
Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You see a 29-year-old woman who has recently become pregnant. She has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health.
At 12 weeks gestational age what should be initiated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman with polymyalgia rheumatica was started on prednisolone 15 mg daily and had a great therapeutic response. The steroid dose has now been reduced to 10 mg daily, and the plan is to continue tapering the prednisolone dose by 1 mg per month, aiming to discontinue prednisolone in one year's time. Routine bloods are normal except for mild anaemia and a significant elevation in erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
What is the best approach to osteoporosis prophylaxis for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alendronic acid and calcium carbonate and vitamin D
Explanation:Bone Protective Therapy for Patients on Long-Term Corticosteroids
Patients on long-term corticosteroids are at an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, even at low doses of 5 mg daily. The loss of bone mineral density is most significant in the first few months of therapy, but fracture risk decreases rapidly after stopping. Patients over 65 years of age or with a prior fragility fracture are considered high risk and should begin bone protective therapy at the start of corticosteroid treatment.
Bisphosphonate monotherapy is not sufficient for long-term steroid patients, and combination therapy with calcium and vitamin D is necessary. Alendronic acid is a commonly prescribed bisphosphonate for bone protection. Calcium carbonate is also important in preventing osteoporotic fractures when combined with alendronic acid and vitamin D.
A dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan is not necessary before starting bone protection treatment for long-term corticosteroid patients. However, a DEXA scan is recommended for patients over 50 years of age with a history of fragility fracture or those under 40 years of age with a major risk factor for fragility fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has Parkinson's disease and is started on treatment. A month later he presents and is concerned that his urine is dark red in color.
Select the most probable cause.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L-Dopa treatment
Explanation:Understanding Acute Interstitial Nephritis and its Causes
Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that results in acute kidney injury. The most common cause of this condition is a drug hypersensitivity reaction, accounting for 40-60% of cases. However, drugs used for Parkinson’s disease are not known to cause nephritis.
Wilson’s disease, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by abnormal copper metabolism. It typically presents as liver disease in children and adolescents, and as neuropsychiatric illness in young adults, which may include Parkinsonian features. Although haematuria has been reported in Wilson’s disease, gross haematuria is uncommon in urinary tract infection.
L-Dopa is the primary treatment for Parkinson’s disease, and it can cause reddish discolouration of urine and other body fluids. In contrast, bromocriptine doesn’t have this side effect. While the BNF reports that the side effect of bromocriptine is uncommon, it would still be wise to test the urine for blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome presents to you with concerns about her fertility. She has a history of oligomenorrhea and discontinued her use of combined oral contraceptive pills six months ago, but is still experiencing irregular periods. Her BMI is 28 kg/m^2. In addition to recommending weight loss, what is the most effective intervention to improve her chances of becoming pregnant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:When it comes to treating infertility in PCOS, clomifene is usually the first choice. Metformin can also be used, but only after anti-oestrogens like clomifene have been tried.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.
Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with established type 2 diabetes presents for her annual review. Her HbA1c has been stable on the maximal dose of metformin for the past few years and her BP has always been well controlled. She doesn't take any other regular medications. Her HbA1c result 1 year ago was 52 mmol/mol.
The results of her most recent review are as follows:
HbA1c 59 mmol/mol
eGFR 91 ml/min/1.73m² (>90 ml/min/1.73m²)
Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) 2 mg/mmol (<3 mg/mmol)
BMI 25 kg/m²
QRISK score 6.8%
According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing her diabetes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfonylurea
Explanation:For a patient with T2DM on metformin whose HbA1c has increased to 58 mmol/mol, the appropriate second-line option would depend on the individual clinical scenario. In this case, the correct answer is sulfonylurea, which would be suitable for a patient with a normal BMI, no history of established cardiovascular disease or heart failure, and not at an increased risk of CVD based on their QRISK score.
GLP-1 mimetic would not be a suitable second-line option but could be considered if triple therapy with metformin and two other oral hypoglycemic agents was not effective or tolerated, provided certain criteria are met.
Repaglinide is not the correct answer as it is a meglitinide that is typically used as initial treatment if metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated.
SGLT-2 inhibitor could be an appropriate option if certain NICE criteria are met. However, in the absence of established cardiovascular disease, heart failure, or an increased risk of CVD, a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea can be offered as dual therapy with metformin in the first instance, as there is no indication that these would be inappropriate based on the patient’s history.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man who is injecting heroin and abusing alcohol requests detoxification.
Which treatment option should the patient be offered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine before detoxification is attempted
Explanation:Detoxification from Opioid Addiction: Best Practices and Considerations
Detoxification from opioid addiction is a complex process that requires careful planning and monitoring. Stabilisation on methadone or buprenorphine is recommended before attempting detoxification. Both drugs are approved by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for substitute prescribing, for both detoxification and maintenance to prevent opioid withdrawal symptoms.
Patients may prefer a faster reduction at the start of a detoxification regimen, but a slower reduction over months or even years is also possible. It is important for patients to stay on their optimal dose of methadone until they have stopped using heroin completely and then reduce the dose at their own pace.
Alcohol detoxification can occur simultaneously with heroin detoxification, but careful monitoring and support are crucial. Patients should be aware of the loss of opioid tolerance during and following detoxification, which increases the risk of overdose and death from any illicit drug use, especially when combined with alcohol or benzodiazepines.
Detoxification with buprenorphine is also an option, and if the patient has been on methadone or buprenorphine for maintenance, detoxification should usually be undertaken using the same drug.
There are no set time limits for a detoxification regimen, but a common regime is to come off methadone over 12 weeks with a reduction of around 5 mg every 1-2 weeks. Detoxification can be done as an inpatient or outpatient, depending on the patient’s needs and preferences. Community-based organisations often administer these types of substance abuse programmes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the percentage of the population that falls within 2 standard deviations of the mean for a given biochemical test in the hospital laboratory?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 85%
Explanation:Understanding Normal Distribution
When it comes to understanding normal distribution, it’s important to know that one standard deviation includes 68% of the population. This means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 68% of the scores would fall within one standard deviation of the mean. Two standard deviations include approximately 95% of the population, which means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 95% of the scores would fall within two standard deviations of the mean. Finally, three standard deviations include 99.7% of the population, which means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 99.7% of the scores would fall within three standard deviations of the mean. Understanding normal distribution is important in many fields, including statistics, finance, and science.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with an increase in stool frequency and passing around 4 bloody stools per day. Previous colonoscopies have shown rectal disease. On examination, her heart rate is 62 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and temperature is 36.8ºC. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine
Explanation:For a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended initial treatment is rectal aminosalicylates. This patient is experiencing a moderate flare with four bloody stools per day and no systemic symptoms, indicating the use of topical aminosalicylates.
While oral aminosalicylates, topical corticosteroids, and corticosteroids are also options for managing mild to moderate ulcerative colitis flares, rectal aminosalicylates are the first-line treatment.
Severe flares of ulcerative colitis may require hospitalization for intravenous steroids, but this is not necessary for this patient who is passing less than six bloody stools per day and has no systemic symptoms.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 8 week old baby girl and reports that she has noticed that the lips of her baby's vagina appear 'sewn' together. She has also noticed that since birth the baby always cries when urinating. On examination you note that the child has a normal vagina, however it appears that the labia minora are fused together.
What would be your next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of topical oestrogen cream
Explanation:In infant girls, the labia minora may fuse together due to low levels of estrogen. This typically doesn’t cause any symptoms, but in some cases, it may lead to discomfort or pain during urination. Fortunately, labial adhesions usually resolve on their own during puberty and do not have any lasting effects. Treatment is typically unnecessary unless there is pain or discomfort, in which case a brief course of topical estrogen cream may be beneficial.
Labial Adhesions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.
Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.
Conservative management is usually appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.
In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can cause problems with urination. While conservative management is usually effective, medical intervention may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Applies to patients of any age
Explanation:The Mental Capacity Act is not applicable to minors. It is important to presume that all patients have the ability to make decisions, regardless of their condition, until it is demonstrated otherwise.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old construction worker presents with symptoms of dizziness, blurred vision and difficulty walking after a long day at a construction site. During examination, there is a significant difference in blood pressure between his right and left arms.
Select from the list the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Subclavian Steal Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes
Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is a blockage or narrowing of the subclavian artery, which leads to a reversal of blood flow in the vertebral artery on the same side. While some patients may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from compromised blood flow to the vertebrobasilar and brachial regions, resulting in paroxysmal vertigo, syncope, and arm claudication during exercise. In addition, blood pressure in the affected arm may drop significantly. Based on the patient’s occupation and the marked decrease in arm blood pressure, subclavian steal syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has been ongoing for 4 months. She reports a dull ache in both breasts that occurs 1-2 weeks before her period. She has no other medical issues and is not sexually active.
Upon examination, there are no palpable breast lumps or skin changes.
What is the next best course of action in managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice on a supportive bra and simple analgesia
Explanation:The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia is a supportive bra and basic pain relief.
Cyclical breast pain is a common condition that affects up to two-thirds of women, typically beginning two weeks before their menstrual cycle. Breast pain, in the absence of other breast cancer symptoms such as a lump or changes in the nipple or skin, is not linked to breast cancer. Referral to a breast specialist may be considered if the pain is severe enough to impact quality of life or sleep and doesn’t respond to first-line treatment after three months, but there is no need for referral in this case.
Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of cyclical breast pain, as there is no evidence to support their use.
According to current NICE CKS guidelines, the combined oral contraceptive pill or progesterone-only pill should not be used to treat cyclical breast pain, as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness compared to a placebo.
The first-line approach to managing cyclical breast pain involves advising patients to wear a supportive bra and take basic pain relief. This is based on expert consensus, which suggests that most cases of cyclical breast pain can be managed conservatively with a watchful-waiting approach, as long as malignancy has been ruled out as a cause.
Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents to the surgical department with complaints of a sore throat. She is running a temperature of 39.2ºC and is experiencing difficulty in eating due to the pain, although she is able to tolerate fluids. There are no other associated symptoms such as cough or rash. On examination, her heart rate is 120/min and chest auscultation is normal. Bilateral tonsils are covered in exudate, while ear examination is unremarkable. Apart from supportive care, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting signs of systemic disturbance and requires antibiotic treatment. A 7 to 10-day antibiotic regimen is recommended to effectively eliminate any potential Streptococcus infection. The BNF recommends Phenoxymethylpenicillin as the primary antibiotic option.
Management of Sore Throat
Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with burning pains in both feet that have been ongoing for several months. On examination, she has easily palpable pedal pulses but reduced light touch sensation in both feet up to her ankles. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 76 mmol/mol (9.1%) with normal full blood count, renal and liver function. She is currently taking metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and simvastatin 40 mg ON. You discuss the importance of tighter glycemic control and potential medications that may help alleviate her symptoms. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for her burning foot pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The key points include offering a choice of amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin as initial treatment for all neuropathic pain (except trigeminal neuralgia). If the initial treatment is not effective or not tolerated, one of the remaining three drugs should be offered, with consideration for switching again if necessary. Tramadol should only be considered for acute rescue therapy, and capsaicin cream may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Nortriptyline is no longer recommended as an alternative to amitriptyline, and lamotrigine and venlafaxine are not recommended in non-specialized settings. It is important to note that there are many plausible options for medication, but the test is to select the one listed in the options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman with a limp presents to you with heel pain that started after she hurried to catch a bus five days ago. You suspect a ruptured Achilles tendon. She has a medical history of temporal arteritis and is currently taking prednisolone 10 mg per day. Additionally, she is on an antibiotic prescribed during her last hospital visit, but she cannot recall the name of the medication nor does she have it with her. Which antibiotic is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Quinolones and Achilles Tendon Damage
Achilles tendon damage is a well-known side effect of quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin and ofloxacin. This risk is particularly high in individuals over the age of 60, heart, lung, or kidney transplant recipients, and patients taking corticosteroids. Patients with a history of tendon disorders related to quinolone use should not take these antibiotics. If tendonitis is suspected, the use of quinolones should be discontinued immediately. It is important to note that other antibiotics do not cause tendon damage and are safe to use. By being aware of the risks associated with quinolones, healthcare providers can make informed decisions when prescribing antibiotics to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You receive in your inbox the results of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test for a 25-year-old man. The antibodies and p24 antigen are reported as negative. You check the records and find it was requested by your colleague who is on holiday. The patient had requested an HIV test after an encounter with a sex worker; your colleague had asked him to attend the sexual health clinic but he had declined, wanting tests done via the GP. The HIV test had been taken 4 weeks after the episode.
What should the patient be informed about the negative HIV test result?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV infection unlikely but test needs to be repeated at 12 weeks post-exposure
Explanation:If an asymptomatic patient initially tests negative for HIV, it is recommended to offer a repeat test at 12 weeks to confidently exclude the diagnosis. The preferred test for HIV is the combined HIV test for HIV-1 and HIV-2 antibodies and p24 antigen. It is important to note that although most cases of HIV infection can be detected by 4 weeks, a repeat test at 12 weeks is still recommended.
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.
Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is worried and wants advice if she should continue taking it.
How would you counsel this woman on the risks of ondansetron use during pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester
Explanation:The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE’s antenatal care guidance suggests that ondansetron may increase the chance of a baby being born with a cleft lip or palate, but there are no recognised risks for the mother or newborn. Claims of a risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies or severe congenital heart defects in newborns are not supported by current evidence.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has asthma and depression. He is dissatisfied with the treatment he has received for his asthma and files a complaint. He requests to view his medical records. Upon reviewing the records, you notice that another healthcare provider has written insufficient personality in the notes. You believe that if the patient were to read this, it would be devastating.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients cannot see results of investigations
Explanation:Restricting Access to Patient Medical Records
You have the ability to limit access to certain parts of a patient’s medical record if you believe that it could cause harm to the patient or another person. Additionally, you can restrict access to any references to named third parties, such as a spouse’s recent treatment. However, it is important to note that there is no requirement to limit access to paper records, results, or x-rays. It is not acceptable to completely obstruct access to all of a patient’s records without a valid reason. By carefully considering the potential consequences and taking appropriate action, you can ensure that patient privacy is protected while still providing necessary medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports decreased hypoglycemic awareness following his recent hospital discharge. He was started on several new medications during his admission. Which medication is the most probable cause of this issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.
Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman has a 2-year history of right-sided throbbing headache that comes and goes, accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light. She often experiences visual disturbances before the headache starts. Despite trying various over-the-counter pain relievers, she has found little relief. Her doctor has prescribed an oral medication to be taken at the onset of the headache, with the option of taking another tablet after 2 hours if needed. What is a typical adverse effect of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tightness of the throat and chest
Explanation:Triptans are prescribed for migraines with aura and should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of the headache. A second dose can be taken if needed, with a minimum interval of 2 hours between doses. However, triptans may cause tightness in the throat and chest.
Understanding Triptans for Migraine Treatment
Triptans are a type of medication used to treat migraines. They work by activating specific receptors in the brain called 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. Triptans are usually the first choice for acute migraine treatment and are often used in combination with other pain relievers like NSAIDs or paracetamol.
It is important to take triptans as soon as possible after the onset of a migraine headache, rather than waiting for the aura to begin. Triptans are available in different forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.
While triptans are generally safe and effective, they can cause some side effects. Some people may experience what is known as triptan sensations, which can include tingling, heat, tightness in the throat or chest, heaviness, or pressure.
Triptans are not suitable for everyone. People with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease should not take triptans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deranged liver function is common in infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Infectious Mononucleosis: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications
Infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). While many patients may not show any symptoms, studies suggest that 90% of people over the age of 25 have antibodies to EBV. The virus is transmitted through droplet exchange and can continue to be excreted for several months.
Symptoms of mono include deranged liver function, mild hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, which can cause tenderness over the spleen. Jaundice is rare in young adults but can occur in up to 30% of infected elderly patients. It is important for patients to avoid contact sports for at least a month after infection to prevent the risk of splenic rupture.
It is crucial to note that ampicillin and amoxicillin should not be given to any patient who may have infectious mononucleosis, as they can cause an itchy maculopapular rash. The illness is typically self-limiting and of short duration, but fatigue and myalgia may persist for several months after the acute infection has resolved.
In conclusion, infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause various symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent transmission and seek medical attention if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman is discharged from the orthopaedic ward where there have been a number of outbreaks of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
Her daughter comes armed with a number of concerns about MRSA and tells you she knows a lot about the condition.
Which of her beliefs is well founded?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is safe to kiss her mother
Explanation:Understanding MRSA Infections
MRSA is a type of bacteria that can colonize wounds and venous access sites. While its community nasal carriage rate is typically less than 1%, this rate may increase in patients who have recently taken beta-lactam antibiotics. Fortunately, MRSA infections can still be treated with a variety of antibiotics, including IV vancomycin. Patients with MRSA are properly isolated on hospital wards to prevent the spread of infection. It’s important to note that MRSA infections can occur outside of hospitals as well. Therefore, it’s crucial to understand the causes and symptoms of MRSA infections to prevent their spread.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient presents with episodes of blurred vision. The vision is blurred in both eyes. This has been going on for a few weeks but seems worse over the last couple of days. She has not had any headaches. Her eyes look normal and are not red or injected. Visual acuity using a Snellen chart is 6/4. When a pinhole occluder is used to assess her vision, her vision improves.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest she attends her optician for a vision assessment
Explanation:Using a pinhole occluder can help identify if refractive errors are causing a patient’s blurred vision. Refractive errors are the most common cause of blurred vision, and a pinhole occluder can partially improve symptoms. However, visual acuity may be reduced when using a Snellen chart. If a patient complains of blurred vision, they should see an optician for an assessment and may need an updated prescription.
There are no indications in the patient’s history that suggest an acute Intracranial cause for their symptoms. Therefore, there is no need for an urgent CT head or referral to neurology. However, if the patient experiences sudden loss of vision or other associated symptoms such as limb weakness or changes in speech, it may indicate an acute intracranial or vascular cause that requires urgent investigation.
Triptan-based medications are typically used to treat migraines, which can present with blurred vision as an ‘aura’ before the onset of a headache. However, this is not the case for this patient.
Vitamin A deficiency can cause dry skin and hair, inability to gain weight, and skin sores. It may also lead to reduced night vision or decreased ability to see in the dark. However, there is no evidence that supplementing the patient’s vitamin A would improve their blurred vision. It is best for the patient to be assessed by an optician first.
Blurred vision refers to a loss of clarity or sharpness in one’s vision. It is a common symptom experienced by patients with long-term refractive errors. However, the term can have different meanings for different patients and doctors, so it is important to assess for other associated symptoms such as visual loss, double vision, and floaters.
There are various causes of blurred vision, including cataracts, retinal detachment, age-related macular degeneration, acute angle closure glaucoma, optic neuritis, and amaurosis fugax. To determine the underlying cause, a visual acuity test using a Snellen chart, pinhole occluders, visual fields, and fundoscopy may be conducted.
Management of blurred vision depends on the suspected underlying cause. If the onset is gradual, corrected by a pinhole occluder, and there are no other associated symptoms, an optician review may be the next step. However, patients with other associated symptoms such as visual loss or pain should be seen by an ophthalmologist urgently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You are assessing a senior gentleman with prostate cancer. Regrettably, his pain is presently uncontrolled with co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets qds and diclofenac 50 mg tds. Your plan is to transition him to oral morphine. Can you provide the conversion factor between oral codeine and oral morphine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Divide by 10
Explanation:Codeine can be converted to morphine by dividing its dosage by 10.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 40
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 63-year-old man who has castrate-resistant prostate cancer. He has widespread bony metastases in multiple lumbar vertebrae, left ilium, and left proximal femur. The patient is experiencing increased hip pain while on his current dose of modified release morphine sulphate tablets (MST Continus). He is currently taking 50 mg twice daily and has taken an additional 40 mg of PRN oramorph for breakthrough pain in the last 24 hours.
What is the most appropriate approach to manage his pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase MST to 70 mg twice daily
Explanation:To determine the correct dosage, one can calculate the total daily amount of morphine needed. For example, if the total daily amount required is 140mg, the appropriate dosage would be 70 mg taken twice daily. However, if this calculation results in a dosage exceeding 50 mg, an alternative approach may be necessary.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A father comes to see you for some advice regarding immunisation of his toddler son who is HIV positive. He is not sure if his son is able to have the usual routine childhood immunisations.
You review his clinical record and discuss things further. The child is well at present with no clinical or biochemical evidence of immunosuppression.
What do you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should only receive 'inactivated' vaccines and 'live' vaccines are absolutely contraindicated
Explanation:Immunisation for HIV-positive patients
Immunisation is a crucial aspect of managing HIV-positive patients. Inactivated vaccines are safe to administer as they pose no risk of infection. However, the response to the vaccine may not be as effective as in immunocompetent individuals. Live vaccines carry a risk of infection, and therefore, certain restrictions apply. For instance, the MMR vaccine is a live vaccine that requires an assessment of immune status before administration. The Department of Health recommends that HIV-positive individuals receive the MMR vaccine according to national guidelines, provided they do not have severe immunosuppression. However, for children under 12, CD4 counts may not be an accurate assessment of immune status, and expert assessment is advised. In conclusion, routine immunisations can be safely given to HIV-positive individuals without evidence of immunosuppression, but specialist advice should be sought to clarify this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of 'pale skin' on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine.
What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy comes to see you with his father; they have returned from a holiday to Egypt and the father is very concerned as his son is lethargic, tired and has most recently become jaundiced, with dark urine. He is nauseated all the time and hardly able to eat.
On examination he is pyrexial 38.2°C, with jaundice and evidence of scratch marks on his skin.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 118 g/L (135 - 180)
WCC 8.2 ×109/L (4 - 10)
Platelets 190 ×109/L (150 - 400)
Sodium 140 mmol/L (134 - 143)
Potassium 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Creatinine 105 µmol/L (60 - 120)
Bili 142 (<26)
ALT 680 (<36)
Which one of the following is true of his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You can reassure her mother that she will almost certainly make a full recovery
Explanation:Hepatitis A in North Africa
This child is suffering from hepatitis A, a common condition in North Africa where most people are exposed to it and develop immunity as children. However, children from the United Kingdom are not immune and may become infected while on holiday through the faeco-oral route.
Fortunately, supportive care is all that is needed, including bed rest, proper nutrition, fluid intake, and pain relief. Only a small percentage of patients progress to fulminant hepatic failure.
To prevent infection, it is recommended to get vaccinated for hepatitis A before traveling to areas where exposure is likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 44
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidance on the diagnosis of asthma in children, which of the following results constitute a positive THRESHOLD for diagnosing asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak flow variability of less than 20%
Explanation:Diagnostic Thresholds for Asthma Tests
FeNO tests, which measure nitric oxide levels in breath, are used to detect lung inflammation and asthma. The positive test threshold for adults is 40 ppb, while for children and young people it is 35 ppb or more. Obstructive spirometry, which measures FEV1/FVC ratio, has a positive test threshold of less than 70% for all age groups. Peak flow variability, which measures the difference between the highest and lowest peak flow readings, has a positive test threshold of over 20% for all age groups. While a peak flow variability of 50% is indicative of asthma, a threshold of 20% is used for diagnosis. It is important to note that some GP practices may not have access to FeNO testing equipment, which is a relatively new development in asthma diagnosis. Familiarizing oneself with these diagnostic thresholds is crucial in the context of NICE guidance, as the RCGP may test changes to guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents after a fall with an acutely swollen knee and difficulty bending the joint. The knee became swollen within two hours of the injury. He can still stand on the leg, although it is painful. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise fit and well, although a little overweight.
What diagnosis can best be made, based on this patient's history?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A haemarthrosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of joint effusion
Joint effusion, the accumulation of fluid within a joint, can have various causes. A rapid onset of pain and swelling after trauma suggests a haemarthrosis, which may be associated with clotting disorders or anticoagulant use. Dislocation of the patella typically causes severe pain, a popping sensation, and difficulty bearing weight. Ligamentous injuries, such as anterior cruciate ligament tears, often occur during sports and may be accompanied by haemarthrosis. Osteoarthritis usually causes a gradual development of effusion. Traumatic synovitis, which involves inflammation of the synovial membrane, may also cause a gradual accumulation of fluid, especially if there is a meniscal tear. A careful history, physical examination, and imaging studies can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is elderly and was previously treated with antibiotics has now developed Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection.
Which of the following is most likely to have caused this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection
Antibiotics are known to increase the risk of patients developing C. difficile infection. However, certain antibiotics are more frequently associated with this infection than others. These include clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins.
If a patient does develop C. difficile infection, there are treatments available. Metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly used to treat this infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with antibiotics and to use them judiciously to prevent the development of C. difficile infection. By doing so, patients can receive the necessary treatment without experiencing unnecessary complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is nervous every time he is intimate with his new partner. He can still achieve his own erections and has morning erections. His recent NHS health screening blood tests were all normal, and he has normal blood pressure. The GP examines his medication history and advises him against using sildenafil. Which of the following medications listed below is not recommended to be used with sildenafil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN)
Explanation:When considering treatment options for this patient, it is important to note that PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil are contraindicated when used in conjunction with nitrates and nicorandil. This is due to the potential for severe hypotension. Therefore, alternative treatment options should be explored and discussed with the patient.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that has been black for a few weeks. He suspects that he may have injured the nail while working, but he expected the discoloration to have disappeared by now. Upon examination, you notice a dark stripe running along the length of the nail plate of his left thumb. The adjacent nail fold is also dark.
What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral (2 week wait) to dermatology
Explanation:If a new pigmented line appears in a nail, especially if there is damage to the nail, it is important to be highly suspicious of subungual melanoma and seek urgent referral. Subungual melanoma is a type of acral-lentiginous melanoma that can be mistaken for trauma. It typically presents as a longitudinal, pigmented band on the nail, with wider bands being more likely to be melanoma. Hutchinson’s sign, where the pigment extends onto the nail fold, may also be present. The lesion may also cause ulceration and destruction of the nail-plate.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old child is waiting in the GP's office when he suddenly experiences facial swelling and difficulty breathing. An elderly patient is snacking on a bag of cashew nuts in the waiting room. The patient is in good health and had come with his mother for her appointment. As the attending GP, you diagnose the child with anaphylaxis. What would be the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to administer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline 300 mcg IM STAT
Explanation:If a child between the ages of 6 and 11 is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, they should be given a dose of 300 micrograms (0.3ml) of adrenaline. This dose can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. Based on the patient’s age of 8 years old, it is recommended to administer the adrenaline at a dose of 300 micrograms IM immediately, as stated in the BNF. It is likely that the child is having an anaphylactic reaction to the nuts they were exposed to in the GP waiting room.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old Asian female presents with gingival hypertrophy. What is the most likely cause of her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Causes of Gum Hypertrophy
Gum hypertrophy, or an abnormal increase in the size of the gums, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of certain drugs such as phenytoin, which is used to treat seizures. Acute myeloid leukaemias can also lead to gum hypertrophy.
Scurvy, a condition caused by vitamin C deficiency, can result in swollen and bleeding gums, but it is not typically associated with true gingival hypertrophy. Instead, petechiae, or small red or purple spots, may appear on the mucosae.
Lead toxicity can cause pigmentation of the gums, while carbamazepine, a medication used to treat seizures and bipolar disorder, is not typically associated with gum hypertrophy. However, it can cause other side effects such as ataxia, drowsiness, and blood dyscrasias.
In summary, while gum hypertrophy can be caused by various factors, phenytoin and acute myeloid leukaemias are the most likely culprits. Scurvy may cause swollen and bleeding gums, but it is not typically associated with true gingival hypertrophy. Lead toxicity can cause pigmentation of the gums, while carbamazepine is not typically associated with gum hypertrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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