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  • Question 1 - You are shadowing a registrar on the pediatric ward, who is asked to...

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    • You are shadowing a registrar on the pediatric ward, who is asked to help their consultant confirm a suspected case of brain stem death.
      Which of the following would the doctors be assessing for?

      Your Answer: Corneal reflex

      Explanation:

      To confirm brain death, there are six tests that need to be conducted. These tests include the pupillary reflex, corneal reflex, oculovestibular reflex, cough reflex, absent response to supraorbital pressure, and no spontaneous respiratory effort. Out of these tests, the corneal reflex is the only one that is specifically tested for in suspected brain stem death. The Babinski reflex is used to test for upper motor neuron damage, while the Moro reflex is a primitive reflex that is only tested for in neonates. Lastly, the ankle jerk reflex is a deep tendon reflex that tests cutaneous innervation, motor supply, and cortical input at the S1 level.

      Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death

      Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.

      The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculovestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.

      It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.

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  • Question 2 - In 2015, NICE released guidelines on preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in hospitalized patients....

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    • In 2015, NICE released guidelines on preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) in hospitalized patients. What would be considered a risk factor for VTE according to these guidelines?

      Your Answer: Dehydration

      Explanation:

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.

      There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.

      In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.

      Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.

      Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated on the surgical ward due to complaints...

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    • A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated on the surgical ward due to complaints of abdominal pain and vomiting. She underwent a gallstone removal procedure earlier in the day. Her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 102 beats/min, blood pressure of 132/92 mmHg, temperature of 38.6ºC, oxygen saturation of 99% in room air, and respiratory rate of 20/min. Blood tests are ordered and a CT scan of the abdomen is requested. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent complication of ERCP is acute pancreatitis, which is indicated by the patient’s symptoms. These may include abdominal pain that spreads to the back, nausea and vomiting, tachycardia caused by pain, and fever. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count, lipase, and CT abdomen should be ordered.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old male is being seen on the surgical ward round, four days...

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    • A 35-year-old male is being seen on the surgical ward round, four days after his abdominal surgery. He complains of a peculiar sensation over the wound while shifting in bed. Upon removing the dressings, it is discovered that the wound is gaping open, with visible internal organs. Despite this, his vital signs are all normal, and he does not seem to be bothered by the situation. The wound is covered with gauze impregnated with saline. While waiting for additional surgical assistance, what other urgent treatment should be provided?

      Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The initial management for abdominal wound dehiscence involves covering the wound with saline impregnated gauze and administering broad-spectrum antibiotics intravenously. In this case, a combination of ceftriaxone and metronidazole would be appropriate. Flucloxacillin is not broad enough to cover the range of organisms that may be present. While fluids are important, a 1 L stat bolus is excessive at this stage. Analgesia should be provided, but it is less urgent than antibiotics. Oxygen is not indicated based on the patient’s current condition.

      Abdominal wound dehiscence is a serious issue that surgeons who perform abdominal surgery frequently encounter. It occurs when all layers of an abdominal mass closure fail, resulting in the protrusion of the viscera externally. This condition is associated with a 30% mortality rate and can be classified as either superficial or complete, depending on the extent of the wound failure.

      Several factors increase the risk of abdominal wound dehiscence, including malnutrition, vitamin deficiencies, jaundice, steroid use, major wound contamination (such as faecal peritonitis), and poor surgical technique. To prevent this condition, the preferred method is the mass closure technique, also known as the Jenkins Rule.

      When sudden full dehiscence occurs, the wound should be covered with saline impregnated gauze, and the patient should receive IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, analgesia, and IV fluids. Arrangements should also be made for a return to the operating theatre.

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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to your clinic...

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    • A 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse presents to your clinic after being diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. You inform him that this diagnosis increases his likelihood of developing diabetes mellitus. What tests should you suggest to assess his risk for this condition?

      Your Answer: Annual HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Type 3c diabetes mellitus is a rare complication of pancreatitis that is more difficult to manage than type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus due to the accompanying exocrine insufficiency, which leads to malabsorption and malnutrition. The development of diabetes mellitus may take years after the onset of pancreatitis, necessitating lifelong monitoring through annual HbA1c measurements. An ultrasound of the pancreas will not provide any indication of diabetes development. Additionally, it is crucial to counsel the patient on their alcohol misuse, as it may exacerbate their pancreatitis.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

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  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner after discovering a suspicious lump...

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    • A 49-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner after discovering a suspicious lump in her left breast. Upon referral to a breast surgeon, she is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm HER2+ carcinoma. Although there are no palpable axillary lymph nodes during clinical examination, her pre-operative axillary ultrasound reveals multiple nodes that appear suspicious. What is the recommended course of action for managing the patient's axilla?

      Your Answer: Sentinel node biopsy

      Explanation:

      If a woman with breast cancer does not have any detectable lymph node swelling, a pre-operative axillary ultrasound can be used to identify any suspicious nodes. If a positive result is obtained, a sentinel node biopsy should be performed to determine the extent of nodal metastasis. This is preferred over a total axillary node clearance as it is less invasive. Letrozole is recommended for controlling the recurrence of the primary tumor in cases of ER+ disease. In situations where extensive nodal burden is identified during SNB, axillary radiotherapy can be used as an alternative to axillary node clearance. However, axillary clearance should not be the first option for managing axillary metastases, unless the sentinel node biopsy reveals a large number of involved nodes. The source of this information is the 2018 Nice guideline NG101.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling in her...

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    • A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling in her left breast. Despite receiving three rounds of antibiotics from her primary care physician over the past four weeks, the erythema and tenderness have not subsided. During the examination, there is noticeable redness and swelling in the breast, and a tender lump can be felt along with swollen lymph nodes in the armpit. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Incision and drainage

      Correct Answer: Urgent mammogram

      Explanation:

      Breast Abscess Diagnosis in Older Women

      The diagnosis of a breast abscess in older women, particularly those over 70 years old, should be approached with caution as it is a rare occurrence in this age group. If there are additional symptoms such as the presence of a mass or lymphadenopathy, along with the typical signs of erythema and oedema, it is important to consider the possibility of an inflammatory breast cancer. To confirm the diagnosis, a mammogram or ultrasound should be performed, followed by a tissue biopsy. Only after a confirmed diagnosis can appropriate treatment options be considered. It is crucial to be vigilant and thorough in the diagnosis of breast abscesses in older women to ensure that any underlying conditions are identified and treated promptly.

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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe...

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    • A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his right upper quadrant. He reports that the pain is sharp and worsens when he takes a breath. Over the past few days, he has been feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath, and he has been coughing up bloody, purulent sputum. He has a fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. He recently returned from a week-long vacation during which he consumed 20 units of alcohol per day. What is the most probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Upper quadrant abdominal pain can be a symptom of lower lobe pneumonia.

      Despite the patient’s complaint of abdominal pain, their other symptoms suggest that they may have pneumonia. The presence of signs of infection (such as fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea), along with shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum, all point towards a diagnosis of pneumonia. This question serves to emphasize that pneumonia can sometimes manifest as abdominal pain, particularly in cases of lower lobe pneumonia.

      It is important to note that hepatitis, gallstones, and pancreatitis do not typically cause shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum. Additionally, the patient’s history of high alcohol intake is not relevant to this question.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old female is being evaluated before an elective cholecystectomy due to two...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female is being evaluated before an elective cholecystectomy due to two severe episodes of biliary colic. She has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and smokes 2-3 cigarettes daily, but has no other medical conditions. She inquires about when she should discontinue her oral contraceptive pill. What is the recommended protocol?

      Your Answer: No need to stop oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks prior

      Explanation:

      It is important to consider the type of surgery the patient is undergoing when answering this question. In this case, the patient is having an elective procedure that requires general anesthesia and is a smoker and overweight, which are risk factors for blood clots. Therefore, it is recommended that she stop taking her oral contraceptive pill for four weeks prior to the surgery. However, if the surgery is being performed under local anesthesia, stopping the pill may not be necessary.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the...

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    • A 45-year-old man comes to you with a chronic inguinal hernia. During the examination, you notice a small, direct inguinal hernia. He asks about the likelihood of strangulation if he chooses not to have surgery within the next year. What is the estimated risk of strangulation over the next 12 months?

      Your Answer: <5%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Indirect hernias are more likely to cause bowel obstruction, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Elective repair of hernias is generally safe, but emergency repair carries a higher risk of mortality, especially in older patients.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 11 - A 44-year-old man is recovering on the ward several weeks after being treated...

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    • A 44-year-old man is recovering on the ward several weeks after being treated for acute pancreatitis caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Despite being clinically stable, he continues to experience pain in the epigastric region. Routine blood tests and an abdominal ultrasound scan are performed, revealing the following results:

      - Bilirubin: 28 µmol/l
      - Albumin: 38 g/l
      - ALT: 39 u/l
      - γGT: 68 u/l
      - CRP: 11.2 mg/l
      - Amylase: 541 u/l

      The abdominal ultrasound scan shows normal kidney and liver appearances, as well as a normal aortic diameter. However, a cystic lesion measuring 53 mm x 61 mm is present in the head of the pancreas. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient's pancreatic lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conservative management

      Explanation:

      When a cystic lesion and elevated amylase levels are observed after pancreatitis, it is likely to be a pancreatic pseudocyst. In such cases, it is best to initially manage the condition conservatively, especially if the patient is stable and liver function is not significantly affected. Procedures such as radiological fine-needle aspiration should be avoided as they can increase the risk of infection and have a high morbidity and mortality rate. Active drainage is only necessary if there are signs of infection, mass effect on abdominal organs, or if the pseudocyst persists beyond 12 weeks. Even if the patient experiences symptoms, conservative management is often preferred as the risks of a procedure outweigh the benefits.

      Acute pancreatitis can lead to various complications, both locally and systemically. Local complications include peripancreatic fluid collections, which occur in about 25% of cases and may develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis, which involves both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, can also occur and is directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses may result from infected pseudocysts and can be treated with drainage methods. Haemorrhage may also occur, particularly in cases of infected necrosis.

      Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which has a high mortality rate of around 20%. Local complications such as peripancreatic fluid collections and pancreatic necrosis can also lead to systemic complications if left untreated. It is important to manage these complications appropriately, with conservative management being preferred for sterile necrosis and early necrosectomy being avoided unless necessary. Treatment options for local complications include endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy, aspiration, and drainage methods. Overall, prompt recognition and management of complications is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with acute pancreatitis.

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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old woman is one day post-anterior resection for rectal cancer. During the...

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    • A 55-year-old woman is one day post-anterior resection for rectal cancer. During the morning ward round, she complains of severe abdominal pain, refractory to IV paracetamol, which the patient is currently prescribed. The consultant examines the patient and feels that the pain is due to the procedure and that there are no signs of any acute complications. The patient reports that she is allergic to morphine. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Common Pain Medications and Their Uses

      Oxycodone is a potent synthetic opioid used for managing severe pain, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate morphine. Codeine phosphate, on the other hand, is a weak opioid primarily used for mild to moderate pain and would not be suitable for severe pain management. Gabapentin is indicated for neuropathic pain and is not recommended for acute pain management, such as post-operative pain. Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for musculoskeletal pain and biliary/renal colic, but it is a weak analgesic and not effective for severe pain. Tramadol is a weak opioid prescribed for moderate pain. Understanding the differences between these medications can help healthcare providers choose the appropriate treatment for their patients.

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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old overweight woman presents to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal...

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    • A 45-year-old overweight woman presents to the emergency department with severe upper abdominal pain that started suddenly 10 hours ago. The pain is at its worst 15 minutes after onset and radiates to her back. She finds some relief by sitting forward. She has also experienced nausea and vomiting but denies any diarrhea or fever. She has been on the combined oral contraceptive pill for the past 4 years and drinks one glass of wine per day but denies any recreational drug use. On examination, she appears unwell, has a pulse rate of 110/min, and is tender in the epigastric region. She has a history of biliary colic but no significant past medical history or previous surgery. What diagnostic test is most likely to yield a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum lipase

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis, likely caused by gallstones, can be diagnosed by checking for an elevation of more than 3 times the upper limit of normal in a serum lipase test. While chest and abdominal x-rays are not useful for diagnosing pancreatitis, they can help rule out other potential causes of abdominal pain and detect complications of pancreatitis. Full blood examination, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests do not directly aid in the diagnosis of pancreatitis but can help assess the severity of the disease or provide clues to its cause. Initial investigations to determine the cause may include an abdominal ultrasound, calcium level, and lipid profile.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in her right medial thigh that has...

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    • A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in her right medial thigh that has been bothering her for the past week. She reports no alterations in her bowel movements. During the physical examination, you observe a lump the size of a grape located below and to the right of the pubic tubercle, which is challenging to reduce. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with new onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male construction worker presents to the Emergency Department with new onset frank haematuria. He has been passing blood and clots during urination for the past three days. He denies any dysuria or abdominal pain. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft without tenderness or palpable masses in the abdomen or renal angles. He has a 30 pack-year history of smoking. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to determine the cause of his haematuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexible cystoscopy

      Explanation:

      When lower urinary tract tumour is suspected based on the patient’s history and risk factors, cystoscopy is the preferred diagnostic method for bladder cancer. If a bladder tumour is confirmed, a CT scan or PET-CT may be necessary to evaluate metastatic spread. While a CT-angiogram can identify a bleeding source, it is unlikely to be useful in this case as the patient is stable and a bleeding source is unlikely to be detected.

      Bladder cancer is the second most common urological cancer, with males aged between 50 and 80 years being the most commonly affected. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons such as 2-Naphthylamine increase the risk of the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, including inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are uncommon.

      Urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma is the most common type of bladder malignancy, accounting for over 90% of cases. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma are less common. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with up to 70% having a papillary growth pattern. Superficial tumors have a better prognosis, while solid growths are more prone to local invasion and may be of higher grade, resulting in a worse prognosis. TNM staging is used to determine the extent of the tumor and the presence of nodal or distant metastasis.

      Most patients with bladder cancer present with painless, macroscopic hematuria. Incidental microscopic hematuria may also indicate malignancy in up to 10% of females over 50 years old. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy and biopsies or transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT), with pelvic MRI and CT scanning used to determine locoregional spread and distant disease. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, radical cystectomy with ileal conduit, or radical radiotherapy, depending on the extent and grade of the tumor. Prognosis varies depending on the stage of the tumor, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T with N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

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  • Question 16 - Mrs. Johnson is a 36-year-old woman who complains of nausea, vomiting, high-pitched bowel...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Johnson is a 36-year-old woman who complains of nausea, vomiting, high-pitched bowel sounds, and worsening abdominal pain. She reports a history of abdominal surgery due to a ruptured appendix a few years ago. What is the definitive diagnostic test to determine the cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal CT

      Explanation:

      The definitive diagnostic investigation for small bowel obstruction is CT abdomen, while AXR is the first-line investigation for suspected bowel obstruction. Although AXR may provide information, it is not a definitive diagnostic tool.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.

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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old woman undergoes a left hemicolectomy for colon cancer. The pathology report...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman undergoes a left hemicolectomy for colon cancer. The pathology report reveals that the tumour has invaded the muscle layer surrounding the colon but there is no lymph node involvement or distant metastasis on the CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis. What is the Dukes stage of the tumour in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      The tumour in this patient is classified as Duke Stage B, as it has invaded the local tissue outside of the mucosa but does not involve any lymph nodes, which would make it Duke Stage C. Duke Stage D would involve distant metastases. Staging is crucial in determining prognosis and further management.

      While Dukes staging is still widely used, TNM classification is gradually replacing it for colorectal tumours. Tumours that are still within the mucosal wall are classified as T1 or T2, while those that have spread outside the mucosal wall are classified as T3 or T4. Lymph node involvement is classified as N0 (no involvement), N1 (up to 3 regional lymph nodes), or N2 (4 or more regional lymph nodes). Metastasis is classified as either M0 (no metastasis) or M1 (metastasis present).

      Duke Stage B can be classified as either T3N0M0 or T4N0M0.

      Dukes’ Classification: Stages of Colorectal Cancer

      Dukes’ classification is a system used to describe the extent of spread of colorectal cancer. It is divided into four stages, each with a different level of severity and prognosis. Stage A refers to a tumour that is confined to the mucosa, with a 95% 5-year survival rate. Stage B describes a tumour that has invaded the bowel wall, with an 80% 5-year survival rate. Stage C indicates the presence of lymph node metastases, with a 65% 5-year survival rate. Finally, Stage D refers to distant metastases, with a 5% 5-year survival rate (although this increases to 20% if the metastases are resectable).

      Overall, Dukes’ classification is an important tool for doctors to use when determining the best course of treatment for patients with colorectal cancer. By understanding the stage of the cancer, doctors can make more informed decisions about surgery, chemotherapy, and other treatments. Additionally, patients can use this information to better understand their prognosis and make decisions about their own care.

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  • Question 18 - A 75-year-old male presents for his annual abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) screening test....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents for his annual abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) screening test. He has a past medical history of a small AAA, which has consistently measured 3.2 cm in width on annual follow up scans since it was discovered 6 years ago. On assessment, it is discovered the patient's AAA has grown by 1.6cm, to a new width of 4.8 cm since his last assessment one year ago. He is asymptomatic and feels well at the time of assessment.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-week-wait referral for surgical repair

      Explanation:

      If an aneurysm is rapidly enlarging, regardless of its size, it should be repaired even if there are no symptoms present. In the case of this patient, their AAA has grown from a small aneurysm to a medium-sized one, which would typically require ultrasound screening every three months. However, since the aneurysm has grown more than 1 cm in the past year, it is considered rapidly enlarging and requires referral for surgical repair within two weeks. Urgent surgical repair is only necessary if there is suspicion of a ruptured AAA. For non-rapidly enlarging, medium-sized AAAs, a repeat scan in three months is recommended, while a repeat scan in six months is not necessary for any AAA case.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old presents with acute abdominal pain and is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old presents with acute abdominal pain and is found to have a perforated sigmoid colon due to colonic cancer. He is peritonitic on examination and requires an emergency Hartmann's procedure. What is a true statement regarding his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He requires an end colostomy

      Explanation:

      In cases of perforation of the rectosigmoid bowel leading to peritonitis, an emergency Hartmann’s procedure may be necessary. This involves removing the affected portion of the colon, creating an end colostomy, and sewing the rectal stump. The perforation may be caused by conditions such as colon cancer, diverticulitis, or trauma. The colostomy is typically placed on the left side of the abdomen and sewn flush with the skin.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old is set to have a proctocolectomy for ulcerative colitis. They are...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old is set to have a proctocolectomy for ulcerative colitis. They are currently on a daily dose of prednisolone 10 mg to manage their condition. They do not take any other regular medications. Are there any necessary adjustments to their medication regimen prior to the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supplement with hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Prior to surgery, patients taking prednisolone require additional steroid supplementation with hydrocortisone to prevent an Addisonian crisis. This is especially important for those taking the equivalent of 10 mg or more of prednisolone daily, as their adrenals may be suppressed and unable to produce enough cortisol to meet the body’s increased requirements during surgery. Without supplementation, the risk of Addisonian crisis is higher, and stopping prednisolone peri-operatively can further increase this risk. Hydrocortisone is preferred for supplementation as it is shorter acting than dexamethasone and prednisolone.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

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  • Question 21 - A 51-year-old man undergoes excision of a bladder tumour. postoperatively, he has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man undergoes excision of a bladder tumour. postoperatively, he has a small amount of haematuria. His urine output is as follows:
      Time Urine output
      13:00 60 ml/hr
      14:00 68 ml/hr
      15:00 52 ml/hr
      16:00 0 ml/hr
      17:00 0 ml/hr
      18:00 0 ml/hr
      You are asked to see the patient by his nurse who is concerned about the low urine output.
      What is the correct next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flush the catheter with 50 ml of normal saline

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Fluid Management in Post-Operative Patients

      In post-operative patients, appropriate fluid management is crucial to prevent complications and promote healing. However, it is important to use the correct interventions based on the patient’s specific condition. Here are some examples:

      Flush the Catheter with 50 ml of Normal Saline
      This intervention is appropriate when there is an abrupt drop in urine output on a background of haematuria, which is likely caused by a clot obstructing the catheter tube. Flushing the catheter with a small amount of normal saline can dislodge the clot and reinstate urine flow without damaging the bladder and healing.

      Give a 250 ml Intravenous (IV) Bolus of Normal Saline
      This intervention is appropriate when there is a gradual reduction in urine output, suggesting dehydration and hypovolaemia. However, it is not appropriate for an abrupt drop in urine output caused by catheter obstruction.

      Give a 2000 ml IV Bolus of Normal Saline
      This intervention is only appropriate in cases of severe hypovolaemia or septic shock, following a lack of response to a small fluid bolus of 250-500 ml. It should not be used in other situations as it can lead to fluid overload and other complications.

      Flush the Catheter with 1500 ml of Normal Saline
      This intervention is not appropriate as flushing the catheter with such a large volume of fluid can increase bladder pressure, damage the bladder mucosa, and impair the healing process.

      Prescribe 40 mg of Furosemide IV to Encourage Diuresis
      This intervention is not appropriate in patients with low urine output in the post-operative period as reduced output may be an indication of hypovolaemia, in which case diuretics are contraindicated.

      In summary, appropriate fluid management in post-operative patients requires careful consideration of the patient’s specific condition and the appropriate interventions to prevent complications and promote healing.

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  • Question 22 - A 47-year-old woman has been experiencing constipation lately and noticed blood in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman has been experiencing constipation lately and noticed blood in her stool this morning. She decided to see her GP and reported having constipation for almost two months with only one instance of blood in her stool. Her husband, who accompanied her, mentioned that she has lost a considerable amount of weight recently. The woman confirmed this and stated that she has not been intentionally trying to lose weight. The GP is alarmed and orders an urgent investigation. What is the most appropriate investigation to be ordered at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      This man has recently experienced constipation, weight loss, and one instance of blood in his stool. The most probable diagnosis for these symptoms is colorectal cancer (CRC), and further investigation should focus on confirming or ruling out CRC. According to NICE CG131 guidelines, patients without significant comorbidities should be offered a colonoscopy to diagnose CRC.

      If the patient had upper GI symptoms such as dysphagia, dyspepsia, or epigastric pain, an upper GI endoscopy would be appropriate. A Faecal Occult Blood Test (FOBT) would have been suitable for screening purposes, as is currently done in the UK. An abdominal X-ray is not necessary as there is no evidence to suggest a likely diagnosis of bowel obstruction, infarction, or perforation that would require X-ray imaging.

      Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.

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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man with a history of alcoholism and type 2 diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of alcoholism and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency department with a sudden onset of malaise and deterioration. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 37.8°C, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 95/54 mmHg. He is dehydrated with dry mucous membranes. There are no significant findings on respiratory and cardiovascular examinations. However, he has mild suprapubic tenderness and florid erythema, swelling, and blistering of his scrotum and perineum. A repeat examination 30 minutes later reveals spreading of the erythema and crepitations on palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fournier's gangrene

      Explanation:

      Fournier’s Gangrene: A Urological Emergency

      Fournier’s gangrene is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. It is a type of necrotising fasciitis that affects the perineum and can quickly spread to the skin of the scrotum and penis. The condition can progress rapidly, with the infection spreading at a rate of 1-2 cm/h. Mortality rates are high, averaging between 20-30%.

      There are several risk factors associated with Fournier’s gangrene, including diabetes mellitus, alcohol dependence, immunosuppressive therapy, longstanding steroid therapy, malnutrition, HIV, extremes of age, and low socio-economic status. Early recognition and surgical debridement are crucial for successful treatment.

      It is important to differentiate Fournier’s gangrene from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Cellulitis, for example, is a non-necrotising inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues that is related to acute infection but does not involve the fascia or muscles. A scrotal abscess may also present with tenderness and swelling, but there are no signs of rapid spread of infection or necrosis. Epididymo-orchitis is a localised infection of the epididymis and testis, while a hydrocele is a painless collection of peritoneal fluid between the parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis.

      In summary, Fournier’s gangrene is a serious urological emergency that requires prompt medical attention. Early recognition and surgical intervention are essential for successful treatment. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure appropriate management.

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  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old female presents to breast clinic following a left total mastectomy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presents to breast clinic following a left total mastectomy and sentinel lymph node biopsy for breast cancer. The histological analysis reveals complete excision of the tumour and clear malignancy in all 3 lymph nodes. The tumour is an invasive ductal carcinoma of grade 1, with ER and PR positivity and HER2 negativity. What additional treatment options should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anastrozole

      Explanation:

      The recommended adjuvant hormonal therapy for postmenopausal women with ER+ breast cancer is anastrozole. This medication is an aromatase inhibitor that reduces estrogen levels in the body and is typically given for 5 years. Common side effects include hot flashes, insomnia, and low mood.

      Axillary node clearance (ANC) is not necessary in this case since the lymph nodes sampled from the sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) did not show any evidence of malignancy. ANC can increase the risk of lymphoedema, so it should only be performed if needed to clear disease.

      Herceptin (trastuzumab) is a type of adjuvant therapy for breast cancer that is used for patients with HER2+ breast cancer. However, since the patient in this case had HER2 receptor status that was negative, Herceptin is not indicated.

      Radiotherapy is also not necessary in this case since the patient had a total mastectomy, the lesion was completely removed, and no lymph nodes were involved. Therefore, radiotherapy would unlikely provide any benefit.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with sudden onset epigastric pain that spreads to the right side. During examination, his sclera appear yellow, and he experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen with localized guarding. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 95/min, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg, saturation 99% on 2L, temperature 39.5ºC, and Glasgow coma score 14/15 (confused speech). Which of the following diagnoses could account for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Charcot’s cholangitis triad consists of three symptoms: fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant pain. Meanwhile, Reynolds Pentad, which includes jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, fever/rigors, shock, and altered mental status, is linked to ascending cholangitis. Before conducting further investigations on the biliary tree, such as ultrasound or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography for common bile duct stones, or endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, the patient must first receive adequate resuscitation.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a lump in her groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a lump in her groin area that she noticed last week. The lump is painless. During the examination, a soft, non-tender mass is palpable on her left inguinal area, medial and superior to the pubic tubercle. The lump disappears when she lies down, but when you try to reduce it and press on the mid-point of the inguinal ligament, it still protrudes if the patient stands up. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any medication. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      The hernia in question is a direct inguinal hernia, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. Direct inguinal hernias enter the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, while indirect inguinal hernias enter via the deep inguinal ring. To differentiate between the two, one can try to reduce the hernia and press on the deep inguinal ring. If the hernia stops protruding, it is an indirect hernia, but if it continues to protrude, it is a direct hernia. Femoral hernias are found below and lateral to the pubic tubercle and are more common in women, while obturator hernias pass through the obturator foramen and typically present with bowel obstruction. The patient in this case does not have any symptoms of obstruction. It should be noted that the type of hernia can only be confirmed during surgery.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.

      The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.

      Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 27 - You are the F2 in general practice. You see a 75-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are the F2 in general practice. You see a 75-year-old man who is complaining of changes in the appearance of his legs. On examination, you can see areas of brown on the legs, dry skin, and the calves appear significantly wider at the knee than the ankle.
      What is the man most at risk of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venous ulcers

      Explanation:

      Chronic venous insufficiency is indicated by brown pigmentation (haemosiderin), lipodermatosclerosis (resembling champagne bottle legs), and eczema. These symptoms increase the likelihood of developing venous ulcers, which typically appear above the medial malleolus. Arterial ulcers are more commonly associated with peripheral arterial disease, while neuropathic ulcers are prevalent in individuals with diabetes.

      Venous leg ulcers are the most common and are caused by venous hypertension. Arterial ulcers occur on the toes and heel and are painful without palpable pulses. Neuropathic ulcers commonly occur over the plantar surface and can lead to amputation in diabetic patients. Marjolin’s ulcers are squamous cell carcinomas that occur at sites of chronic inflammation. Pyoderma gangrenosum is associated with inflammatory bowel disease and presents as erythematosus nodules or pustules that ulcerate. Management varies depending on the type of ulcer.

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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old male presents to your GP evening clinic with complaints of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to your GP evening clinic with complaints of abdominal pain. He reports experiencing pain in the lower left abdomen which has worsened throughout the day. He also feels feverish, nauseous, and has vomited twice in the past hour. He cannot recall the last time he passed urine or stool and mentions having a small painless lump on his lower left abdomen for the past month which he has not sought medical attention for.

      Upon examination, the patient appears unwell and clammy. He is tachycardic and normotensive. His abdomen is mildly distended and very tender to touch, with evidence of localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Additionally, you notice a 2 cm x 2 cm erythematosus lump in the left inguinal area which is now extremely painful to touch.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call 999 and arrange an urgent assessment of your patient in hospital

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to manually reduce strangulated inguinal hernias while awaiting surgery. In the scenario of a patient with an acute abdomen and signs of a strangulated hernia, the appropriate response is to call 999 for urgent assessment and inform the surgical registrar on-call. Attempting to manually reduce the hernia can worsen the patient’s condition. Requesting a urine sample or discussing an appendicectomy is not appropriate in this situation.

      Understanding Strangulated Inguinal Hernias

      An inguinal hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the superficial inguinal ring. This can happen directly through the deep inguinal ring or indirectly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Hernias should be reducible, meaning that the herniated tissue can be pushed back into place in the abdomen through the defect using a hand. However, if a hernia cannot be reduced, it is referred to as an incarcerated hernia, which is at risk of strangulation. Strangulation is a surgical emergency where the blood supply to the herniated tissue is compromised, leading to ischemia or necrosis.

      Symptoms of a strangulated hernia include pain, fever, an increase in the size of a hernia or erythema of the overlying skin, peritonitic features such as guarding and localised tenderness, bowel obstruction, and bowel ischemia. Imaging can be used in cases of suspected strangulation, but it is not considered necessary and is more useful in excluding other pathologies. Repair involves immediate surgery, either from an open or laparoscopic approach with a mesh technique. This is the same technique used in elective hernia repair, however, any dead bowel will also have to be removed. While waiting for the surgery, it is not recommended that you manually reduce strangulated hernias, as this can cause more generalised peritonitis. Strangulation occurs in around 1 in 500 cases of all inguinal hernias, and indications that a hernia is at risk of strangulation include episodes of pain in a hernia that was previously asymptomatic and irreducible hernias.

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  • Question 29 - A 24-hour-old full-term neonate is attempting to feed from her mother, but is...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-hour-old full-term neonate is attempting to feed from her mother, but is unable to keep anything down. The vomit appears green, indicating possible bile staining. The delivery was uncomplicated and vaginal. The neonate appears healthy and stable otherwise. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intestinal atresia

      Explanation:

      Bilious vomiting occurring on the first day of life is most likely caused by intestinal atresia, specifically duodenal atresia or ileal/jejunal atresia. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound is necessary. Malrotation is not the most likely cause as it typically presents with haemodynamic instability on the third day of life. Meconium ileus is also unlikely as it usually presents with abdominal distention within the first 48 hours. A milk allergy is not a probable cause as it does not typically result in bilious vomiting.

      Causes and Treatments for Bilious Vomiting in Neonates

      Bilious vomiting in neonates can be caused by various disorders, including duodenal atresia, malrotation with volvulus, jejunal/ileal atresia, meconium ileus, and necrotising enterocolitis. Duodenal atresia occurs in 1 in 5000 births and is more common in babies with Down syndrome. It typically presents a few hours after birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows a double bubble sign. Treatment involves duodenoduodenostomy. Malrotation with volvulus is usually caused by incomplete rotation during embryogenesis and presents between 3-7 days after birth. An upper GI contrast study or ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves Ladd’s procedure. Jejunal/ileal atresia is caused by vascular insufficiency in utero and occurs in 1 in 3000 births. It presents within 24 hours of birth and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels. Treatment involves laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis. Meconium ileus occurs in 15-20% of babies with cystic fibrosis and presents in the first 24-48 hours of life with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Diagnosis involves an abdominal X-ray that shows air-fluid levels, and a sweat test can confirm cystic fibrosis. Treatment involves surgical decompression, and segmental resection may be necessary for serosal damage. Necrotising enterocolitis occurs in up to 2.4 per 1000 births, with increased risks in prematurity and inter-current illness. It typically presents in the second week of life and can be diagnosed through an abdominal X-ray that shows dilated bowel loops, pneumatosis, and portal venous air. Treatment involves conservative and supportive measures for non-perforated cases, while laparotomy and resection are necessary for perforated cases or ongoing clinical deterioration.

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  • Question 30 - A patient with a history of Crohn's disease for many years visits a...

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    • A patient with a history of Crohn's disease for many years visits a Crohn's clinic with complaints of pain, swelling, and pus around the anus. The patient reports being stable otherwise, and their vital signs are normal. During a rectal exam, the patient experiences pain, and an inflamed opening is visible in the skin surrounding the anus, leading to a suspicion of an anal fistula. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic MRI

      Explanation:

      When dealing with patients who have been diagnosed with anal fistula, the priority is to determine the course of the fistula. This information is crucial in deciding whether surgery is necessary and what type of surgery would be most appropriate. Surgical exploration may be necessary in emergency situations, but it is generally not advisable to perform surgery without first understanding the structure and course of the fistula. The most effective way to characterise the fistula course is through an MRI, as CT scans and x-rays are not as effective in visualising the soft tissue of the fistula. Blood tests are not useful in providing information about the structure and course of the fistula. Currently, the patient is stable and in good health.

      Fistulas are abnormal connections between two epithelial surfaces, with the majority arising from diverticular disease and Crohn’s in the abdominal cavity. They can be enterocutaneous, enteroenteric or enterocolic, enterovaginal, or enterovesicular. Conservative measures may be the best option for management, but high output fistulas may require octreotide and TPN for nutritional support. Surgeons should avoid probing perianal fistulae with acute inflammation and use setons for those secondary to Crohn’s disease. It is important to delineate the fistula anatomy using barium and CT studies for intraabdominal sources and recalling Goodsall’s rule for perianal fistulae.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (7/10) 70%
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