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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man presented with progressive dyspepsia and weight loss. Endoscopy revealed a...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presented with progressive dyspepsia and weight loss. Endoscopy revealed a stenosing lesion that bled easily. A biopsy and histopathological examination revealed adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus.
      Which of the following is the most likely aetiological factor?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      Factors Contributing to Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is a common and aggressive tumour that can be caused by various factors. The two most common types of oesophageal cancer are squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. In developed countries, adenocarcinoma is more prevalent, while squamous cell carcinoma is more common in the developing world.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is the most common predisposing factor for oesophageal adenocarcinoma. Acid reflux can cause irritation that progresses to metaplasia, dysplasia, and eventually adenocarcinoma. Approximately 10-15% of patients who undergo endoscopy for reflux symptoms have Barrett’s epithelium.

      Cigarette smoking and chronic alcohol exposure are the most common aetiological factors for squamous cell carcinoma in Western cultures. However, no association has been found between alcohol and oesophageal adenocarcinoma. The risk of adenocarcinoma is also increased among smokers.

      Achalasia, a condition that affects the oesophagus, increases the risk of both adeno and squamous cell carcinoma. However, dysphagia is not mentioned as a contributing factor.

      Limited evidence suggests that excessive fruit and vegetable consumption may be protective against both types of cancer. Helicobacter pylori infection, which can cause stomach cancer, has not been associated with oesophageal cancer.

      Factors Contributing to Oesophageal Cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the...

    Correct

    • A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the outpatient clinic. She has no facial weakness, and examination of the eyes reveals a full range of movement. She reports no difficulties with vision, smell, taste, hearing or balance, and facial and pharyngeal sensation is normal. Her gag reflex is present and normal, and she can shrug her shoulders equally on both sides. Her speech is slurred and indistinct, and on protruding her tongue, it deviates to the right side and there is notable fasciculation and atrophy of the musculature on the right.
      With what are these findings most likely to be associated?

      Your Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right cranial nerve XII

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lesions of Cranial Nerves Involved in Tongue Movement and Sensation

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      Fasciculation and atrophy indicate a lower motor neurone lesion. In this case, the tongue deviates to the side of the damage due to unopposed action of the genioglossus of the opposite side. The cranial nerve involved in motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is the hypoglossal cranial nerve (XII).

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage, in this case to the left.

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage. Even though the tongue does deviate to the right in this case, the presence of atrophy is seen in LMN and not in UMN.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      This would cause lower motor neurone symptoms (weakness and flaccidity) on the left side.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Glossopharyngeal Nerve:
      The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) provides the posterior third of the tongue with taste and somatic sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      97
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-month-old toddler comes to your primary care clinic after experiencing a seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old toddler comes to your primary care clinic after experiencing a seizure. The parents are extremely worried as one of their relatives has epilepsy and they fear that their child may have it too. Upon examination, the child seems alert and has a temperature of 38.4C, which the parents say has been present for four days. They have been giving calpol, which has helped to bring it down from a high of 40.7ºC. You also notice a pink, maculopapular rash on the chest with minimal spread to the limbs, which the mother says she noticed this morning. The child has been eating but has had some diarrhea, and you can feel some enlarged glands on the back of their head. There is no rash in the mouth. Based on your observations, what do you think is the most probable underlying cause of the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: Herpes virus 6

      Explanation:

      Herpes virus 6 is responsible for causing Roseola infantum, which is identified by a high fever lasting for 3-5 days followed by a rash that appears on the chest and spreads to the limbs over a period of 2 days. This rash typically emerges as the fever subsides. Kaposi’s sarcoma is linked to Herpes virus 8 and is commonly observed in individuals with AIDS. ‘Slapped cheek syndrome’ is caused by Parvovirus B19, which initiates a rash that starts on the cheeks and then spreads. Group A Streptococcus is known to cause infections of the throat (also known as strep throat) and skin, including cellulitis, erysipelas, and impetigo.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution?

      Your Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and lactate

      Explanation:

      Hartmann’s Solution Composition and Metabolism

      Hartmann’s solution, also known as lactated Ringer’s solution, is an intravenous fluid that is isotonic in nature. It contains various compounds, including sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate. A litre of this solution contains 131 mmol of sodium, 111 mmol of chloride, 5 mmol of potassium, 2 mmol of calcium, and 29 mmol of lactate.

      One of the unique features of Hartmann’s solution is the presence of lactate, which is metabolized by the liver to release bicarbonate. This process is important because bicarbonate would otherwise combine with calcium to form calcium carbonate, which can cause complications. Therefore, the metabolism of lactate helps to maintain the stability of the solution and prevent any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall off...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall off a ladder. She was witnessed to have lost consciousness at the scene and remained confused with the ambulance personnel. She is complaining of a headache and has vomited three times. Her eyes are open to voice and she is able to squeeze your hand using both hands, when asked, and wiggle her toes. She is confused about what has happened and does not remember falling. Her pupils are equal and reactive.
      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: CT head scan within 8 h

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head scan within 1 h

      Explanation:

      Management of Head Injury: Importance of CT Scan and Neuro Observation

      Head injury is a serious medical condition that requires prompt and appropriate management. The current imaging modality used to investigate brain injury is CT. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) head injury guidelines, patients who sustained a head injury and have any of the following risk factors should be scanned within 1 hour: GCS <13 on initial assessment in the Emergency Department, GCS <15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the Emergency Department, suspected open or depressed skull fracture, any sign of basal skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting. A provisional radiology report should be given to the requesting clinician within 1 hour of the scan performed to aid immediate clinical management. While waiting for the CT scan, the patient should be monitored using a neuro observation chart, and any deterioration needs to be immediately reported to the responsible clinician for the patient’s care. Admitting the patient for neuro observation is crucial to ensure prompt management of any changes in the patient’s condition. There is no indication to discuss the patient with the neurosurgical department at present. Once the imaging has been performed and if new surgically significant intracranial pathology is detected, then discussion of the care plan should take place with the local neurosurgical team. Discussion of the care plan with a neurosurgeon is warranted, regardless of imaging, if any of the following is present: GCS 8 or less persisting despite initial resuscitation, unexplained confusion lasting >4 hours, deterioration in GCS score after admission, progressing focal neurological signs, a seizure without full recovery, CSF leak, suspected/definitive.

      In conclusion, the immediate CT scan and neuro observation are crucial steps in the management of head injury. Discharging a patient with a high-risk head injury is inappropriate and can lead to serious consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She works as a teacher and is in a committed relationship. Upon examination, her abdomen is tender, particularly in the right upper quadrant, and there is mild jaundice. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has no significant medical history or regular medication use. After three days of hospitalization, her abdomen became distended and fluid thrill was detected. Laboratory tests show:
      Parameter Result
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 150 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Bilirubin 51 μmol/ 2–17 μmol/
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 1050 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 998 IU/l 5−30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 210 IU/l 36–76 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 108 IU/l 8–35 IU/l
      Albumin 30 g/l 35–55 g/l
      An ultrasound revealed a slightly enlarged liver with a prominent caudate lobe.
      What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Liver transplantation

      Explanation:

      Management of Budd-Chiari Syndrome: Liver Transplantation and Other Treatment Options

      Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a condition characterized by hepatic venous outflow obstruction, resulting in hepatic dysfunction, portal hypertension, and ascites. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound Doppler, and risk factors include the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill and genetic mutations such as factor V Leiden. Treatment options depend on the severity of the disease, with liver transplantation being necessary in cases of fulminant BCS. For less severe cases, the European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) recommends a stepwise approach, starting with anticoagulation and progressing to angioplasty, thrombolysis, and transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPSS) procedure if needed. Oral lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy, and anticoagulation is necessary both urgently and long-term. Therapeutic drainage of ascitic fluid and diuretic therapy with furosemide or spironolactone may also be used to manage ascites, but these treatments do not address the underlying cause of BCS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      88
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of haemoptysis and symmetrical polyarthritis in...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of haemoptysis and symmetrical polyarthritis in his hands and feet for the past four weeks. He has also noticed blood in his urine recently. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the results show positive for blood and protein, but negative for nitrites, leucocytes, and ketones, with a pH of 7.5. The doctor orders various blood tests to aid in the diagnosis.
      What blood test is most likely to assist in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ANCA antibodies

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, joint pain, and systemic features, ANCA associated vasculitis should be considered. This is especially true if the patient has haematuria and proteinuria on dipstick, as well as haemoptysis and inflammatory arthritis. ANCA associated vasculitis can be diagnosed by testing for various serum ANCA antibodies. While a raised eosinophil count may suggest eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, it is not specific enough to make a diagnosis. IgA levels can help diagnose IgA nephropathy, but this is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Similarly, IgG is commonly raised in multiple myeloma, but this is not the diagnosis here.

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitis such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      100
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He had been doing some DIY work at home without wearing any goggles for the past few days prior to the onset of pain.
      On examination, his visual acuities are 6/18 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. The cornea is tested with fluorescein and it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea which looks like a dendrite. On examination of his face, there are some small vesicles at the corner of his mouth as well.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corneal abrasion

      Correct Answer: Viral keratitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Eye Conditions and Diagnosis for a Patient with Corneal Ulcer

      Upon examination of a patient with a corneal ulcer, several possible eye conditions can be considered. However, based on the presence of a dendritic ulcer and a history of cold sores, a viral keratitis, specifically herpes simplex keratitis, is likely. A corneal abrasion is unlikely as there is no history of eye injury. A corneal foreign body is also unlikely as there is no visible foreign object on the cornea. Fungal keratitis is unlikely as there are no risk factors present. Microbial keratitis is a possibility, but it typically presents with a round-shaped ulcer. Overall, a viral keratitis diagnosis seems most probable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 48-year-old male presents to the urology clinic with complaints of impotence. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male presents to the urology clinic with complaints of impotence. He has a history of hypertension and reports the absence of morning erections. Upon further inquiry, the patient describes experiencing pain in his buttocks that intensifies with movement. Physical examination reveals muscle atrophy, while the penis and scrotum appear normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: S3-S4 cord lesion

      Correct Answer: Leriche syndrome

      Explanation:

      Leriche syndrome is a condition that typically affects men and is characterized by three main symptoms: claudication (painful cramping) in the buttocks and thighs, muscle wasting in the legs, and impotence caused by nerve paralysis in the L1 region. This condition is caused by atherosclerosis, which leads to blockages in the abdominal aorta and/or iliac arteries. Treatment involves addressing underlying risk factors such as high cholesterol and smoking cessation. Diagnosis is typically made through angiography.

      Understanding Leriche Syndrome

      Leriche syndrome is a condition that affects the iliac vessels, causing atheromatous disease that can compromise blood flow to the pelvic viscera. This can result in symptoms such as buttock claudication and impotence. To diagnose the condition, angiography is often used to identify any iliac occlusions. Treatment typically involves endovascular angioplasty and stent insertion to address the occlusions and improve blood flow.

      In summary, Leriche syndrome is a condition that can have significant impacts on a patient’s quality of life. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic and treatment options available, healthcare providers can help patients manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of symptoms consistent with premenstrual syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of symptoms consistent with premenstrual syndrome. She reports experiencing severe pain that prevents her from working for 3-4 days before the start of her period each month. She has a regular 29-day cycle and has only recently started experiencing pain in the past year. She has never given birth and uses the progesterone-only pill for contraception. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Trial of tranexamic acid

      Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      Patients experiencing secondary dysmenorrhoea should be referred to gynaecology for further investigation as it is often associated with underlying pathologies such as endometriosis, adenomyosis, fibroids, or pelvic inflammatory disease. While the combined oral contraceptive pill may provide relief, it is important to determine the root cause first. Fluoxetine is not appropriate for managing secondary dysmenorrhoea, as it is used for premenstrual dysphoric disorder. Intra-uterine devices may actually cause secondary dysmenorrhoea and should not be used. Tranexamic acid is not indicated for the management of secondary dysmenorrhoea, but rather for menorrhagia.

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old patient visits the clinic with symptoms of diarrhoea and a stool...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient visits the clinic with symptoms of diarrhoea and a stool culture is ordered. The microbiology laboratory at the nearby hospital sends you the results. Can you identify which of the following is not a part of the normal flora found in the large bowel and faecal matter?

      Your Answer: Shigella spp

      Explanation:

      Shigella and Other Pathogenic Organisms in the Colon

      Shigella is a bacterium that attaches itself to the lining of the colon and can lead to dysentery. While other organisms may also be present in the colon, they typically do not cause harm unless antibiotic therapy is administered. In such cases, these organisms may grow uncontrollably and become pathogenic, resulting in conditions such as antibiotic-associated colitis. Therefore, it is important to monitor the presence of these organisms in the colon and use antibiotics judiciously to prevent the development of harmful infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old alcoholic man presents to the hospital with severe epigastric pain, having been admitted multiple times in the past six months for the same issue. His admission blood work reveals the following:
      Na+ 143 mmol/l Bilirubin 8 µmol/l
      K+ 3.8 mmol/l ALP 88 u/l
      Urea 4.3 mmol/l ALT 33 u/l
      Creatinine 88 µmol/l γGT 33 u/l
      Amylase 103 u/l Albumin 49 g/l
      The medical team suspects chronic pancreatitis. Which imaging modality would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI pancreas

      Correct Answer: CT pancreas with intravenous contrast

      Explanation:

      The preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis is a CT scan of the pancreas, which uses intravenous contrast to detect pancreatic calcification. This is because calcification may not be visible on plain abdominal X-rays, which are less sensitive. While a CT scan of the abdomen may also detect calcifications, it is less clear for the pancreas than a pancreatic protocol CT. MRI and ultrasound are not effective for imaging a non-inflamed pancreas, and MRI is particularly poor at detecting calcification as it relies on fluid in the imaged tissues, which calcified tissue lacks.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities like pancreas divisum and annular pancreas.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays can show pancreatic calcification in 30% of cases, while CT scans are more sensitive at detecting calcification with a sensitivity of 80% and specificity of 85%. Functional tests like faecal elastase may be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants, although the evidence base for the latter is limited. It is important to understand the causes, symptoms, and management of chronic pancreatitis to effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      59.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old retired man with a history of chronic hepatitis B infection presents...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old retired man with a history of chronic hepatitis B infection presents with jaundice and significant abdominal distention. The patient does not drink, and smokes ten cigarettes a day.
      On examination, the patient is found to have ascites and hepatomegaly. The patient is admitted for further investigations; the results of one tumour marker test is suggestive of a possible hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
      Which of the following tumour markers is usually raised in primary HCC?

      Your Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tumour Markers: Types and Associated Cancers

      Tumour markers are compounds whose blood levels increase due to the presence of a particular malignant tumour. They are useful for diagnosis and detecting recurrence. However, they are not always specific, and different tumours may secrete the same marker. Here are some common tumour markers and the cancers they are associated with:

      Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): Associated with liver and testicular cancers.

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA): Associated with prostate cancer.

      Chemical nature Name Associated tumour
      Enzyme PSA
      NSE
      LDH Prostate
      Small cell lung cancer
      Non-specific, mainly haematological
      Hormone HCG
      Calcitonin
      Parathormone Testes
      Medullary thyroid carcinoma
      Parathyroid carcinoma
      Immunoglobulin IgG, IgA, etc. Multiple myeloma
      Glycoprotein AFP
      CA-125
      CA-19-9
      CA-15-3
      CEA Liver, also testes
      Ovary
      Pancreas
      Breast
      Colon, stomach

      However, not all primary liver malignancies have AFP as a tumour marker. Certain types of liver malignancy, such as fibrolamellar carcinoma, hepatoblastoma, and hepatic angiosarcoma, do not secrete this protein. The first two usually occur in young persons. Hepatomas can occur de novo but are usually present because of an underlying disease such as hepatitis B infection (chronic) or cirrhosis of the liver. Alcoholism, aflatoxin, and obesity are also risk factors for hepatoma.

      CA-125 is associated with ovarian cancer, CA-19-9 with pancreatic cancer, and HCG with testicular cancer. Understanding tumour markers and their associated cancers can aid in early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Cooked liver

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is recommended to avoid consuming liver due to its high levels of vitamin A, which is a teratogen.

      Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women

      During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.

      Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended for pregnant women. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided as it may be teratogenic. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and women who have stopped smoking may use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) after discussing the risks and benefits with their healthcare provider.

      Pregnant women should also be cautious of food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella. They should avoid certain foods such as unpasteurized milk, ripened soft cheeses, pate, undercooked meat, raw or partially cooked eggs, and meat, especially poultry. Women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits at work, and the Health and Safety Executive should be consulted if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy.

      Air travel during pregnancy should also be approached with caution. Women who are over 37 weeks pregnant with a singleton pregnancy and no additional risk factors should avoid air travel. Women with uncomplicated, multiple pregnancies should avoid air travel once they are over 32 weeks pregnant. Pregnant women should also avoid certain activities such as high-impact sports where there is a risk of abdominal trauma and scuba diving. However, sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes during pregnancy.

      Overall, pregnant women should be informed of these lifestyle recommendations to ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder after presenting with haematuria. Are there any recognised occupational exposures that increase the risk of developing bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Aflatoxin

      Correct Answer: Aniline dye

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the lower abdomen that stores urine. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing bladder cancer. One of the most significant risk factors is smoking, which can cause harmful chemicals to accumulate in the bladder and increase the risk of cancer. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry, as well as rubber manufacture, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Additionally, the use of cyclophosphamide, a chemotherapy drug, can increase the risk of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis, a parasitic infection that is common in certain parts of the world, is also a risk factor for bladder cancer, particularly for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old man presents with seizures. He has a past medical history of...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents with seizures. He has a past medical history of dementia and severe COPD for which he uses salbutamol, ipratropium and oral theophylline. His son reports seeing his father taking a lot of pills this morning.

      Given his history of COPD and possible substance toxicity, an arterial blood gas (ABG) was performed.

      pH 7.21 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 3.3kPa (4.5-6.0)
      pO2 7.8 kPa (10.0 - 14.0)
      HCO3- 18 mmol/L (22-26)

      What is the definitive management to treat the possible toxicity?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for theophylline toxicity is haemodialysis.

      The presence of seizures and metabolic acidosis indicates that the pills ingested may contain theophylline. Theophylline can also lead to respiratory failure and ultimately, respiratory arrest, which explains the low pO2 levels. Confirmatory diagnosis can be made by measuring blood theophylline levels. While activated charcoal should be administered to all patients, regardless of the time of presentation, it is not the definitive treatment. Naloxone is specifically used for opiate toxicity.

      Understanding Theophylline Toxicity and Its Management

      Theophylline is a medication used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it can also cause toxicity if not properly managed. The drug is metabolized by the cytochromes P450 enzymes located in the liver, which can be inhibited by acute illness and certain medications like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin. This inhibition can lead to the accumulation of theophylline in the body, causing toxicity.

      The symptoms of theophylline toxicity include vomiting, agitation, dilated pupils, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, and hypokalemia. To manage the condition, acute levels should be measured as they correlate well with clinical severity. Regardless of the time of presentation, activated charcoal should be given to reduce absorption. Supportive management may include antiemetics, IV crystalloid for hypotension, correction of hypokalemia, benzodiazepines for seizures, and IV beta-blockers for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Definitive treatment is with hemodialysis.

      In summary, understanding theophylline toxicity and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals who prescribe or administer the medication. Prompt recognition and appropriate management can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - During a cholecystectomy, the consultant ligates the cystic artery. Which vessel is the...

    Incorrect

    • During a cholecystectomy, the consultant ligates the cystic artery. Which vessel is the cystic artery typically a branch of, supplying the gallbladder?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Correct Answer: Right hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      The Hepatic Arteries and Their Branches

      The liver is a vital organ that requires a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients. This is provided by the hepatic arteries and their branches. Here are some important branches of the hepatic arteries:

      1. Right Hepatic Artery: This artery supplies the right side of the liver and is the main branch of the hepatic artery proper. It usually gives rise to the cystic artery, which supplies the gallbladder.

      2. Gastroduodenal Artery: This artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery and supplies the pylorus of the stomach and the proximal duodenum.

      3. Right Gastric Artery: This artery is a branch of the hepatic artery proper and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach.

      4. Hepatic Proper Artery: This artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery and divides into the right and left hepatic arteries. These arteries supply the right and left sides of the liver, respectively.

      5. Left Hepatic Artery: This artery is a branch of the hepatic artery proper and supplies the left side of the liver.

      In summary, the hepatic arteries and their branches play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP due to a painful genital ulcer. The patient reports that the skin lesion has evolved over time, initially presenting as pustular after he returned from South America. During the examination, you observe that the ulcer base is filled with a foul-smelling yellow discharge, and there is tender lymphadenopathy on one side upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Genital Ulcer Disease: A Case of Chancroid

      A patient presents with a genital ulcer, which has developed from a papule to a painful ulcer. The lesion is diagnosed as chancroid, a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is endemic in Asia, South America, and Africa, and typically presents as a single lesion in men and multiple lesions in women. Painful unilateral lymphadenopathy may be present, which can progress to suppurative buboes.

      Other possible differential diagnoses include genital herpes, which produces multiple painful and itchy ulcers, and syphilis, which produces a single painless ulcer (chancre) at an early stage. However, due to the patient’s recent travel and the presence of pain, these are less likely diagnoses.

      Donovanosis, or granuloma inguinale, is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and produces multiple nodules that burst into painless ulcers. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is minimal, making this an unlikely differential. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, produces a painless ulcer at the contact site, but the patient’s ulcer is painful. In the second stage of LGV infection, painful lymphadenopathy and bubo development occur.

      In conclusion, chancroid is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s genital ulcer, and other differential diagnoses should be considered based on clinical presentation and travel history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the GP with a 3-week history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the GP with a 3-week history of a painful left breast. The pain has been getting worse over the last seven days, despite following her midwife's advice. She is exclusively breastfeeding her first baby but had some attachment issues in the first few days. During the examination, you notice that she is sweating, her temperature is 38.5 °C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and there is a tender, palpable, fluctuant lump in the left outer lower quadrant, with erythema and oedema of the overlying skin. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence oral antibiotics and review in three days

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and aspiration

      Explanation:

      Management of Breast Abscess and Lactational Mastitis: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Breast abscess and lactational mastitis are common conditions affecting lactating women. While lactational mastitis is a self-limiting condition, breast abscess requires immediate medical attention. In this article, we will discuss the risk factors, symptoms, and treatment options for these conditions.

      Risk factors for breast abscess include previous mastitis, immunosuppression, poor hygiene, poor socio-economic status, and Staphylococcus aureus colonization. Mastitis can lead to breast abscess if left untreated. Symptoms of breast abscess include fever, malaise, painful, swollen lump in the breast with overlying erythema, heat, and edema. The lump is usually described as fluctuant.

      Treatment of breast abscess involves four principles: treating the infection with appropriate intravenous antibiotics, managing the pain with analgesia, emptying the breast and continuing the milk flow, and emptying the abscess. Antibiotics alone are not as effective in treating an abscess as combination treatment. Aspiration under ultrasound guidance is attempted in a first instance. If the abscess refills and the patient fails to improve, then surgical incision and drainage is usually advised.

      In cases of lactational mastitis, where there are no indications for admission or any signs of infection, the woman should be reassured that symptoms will settle and given advice to continue breastfeeding from both breasts (affected and unaffected) and to take regular analgesia. Antibiotics are reserved for women with a nipple fissure, symptoms that are not settling with initial conservative treatment, or where a culture has been positive.

      In conclusion, breast abscess and lactational mastitis are common conditions affecting lactating women. Early diagnosis and appropriate treatment are essential to prevent complications. Women should be advised to continue breastfeeding from both breasts and seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when...

    Incorrect

    • You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when you are called to assess a 16-month-old toddler presenting with a runny nose, dry cough, increased respiratory effort, and an elevated respiratory rate. Upon examination, you note a mild generalised wheeze, along with fever and feeding difficulties. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions in Children: Understanding the Differences

      Bronchiolitis, Pneumonia, Asthma, Viral Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI), and Croup are all respiratory conditions that can affect children. However, it is important to understand the differences between them in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory condition caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) that mostly affects children under 18 months old. It presents with coryzal symptoms before progressing to dyspnoea, cough, and fever. Difficulty feeding may occur due to dyspnoea, but most cases do not require admission.

      Pneumonia, on the other hand, is likely to present with a toxic child due to the bacteraemia. Localising signs such as dullness to percussion over the affected lobe may also be present.

      Asthma, which causes wheezing, would not cause fever. It is also important to note that the diagnosis of asthma should be avoided in patients below the age of 5.

      A viral URTI confined to the upper respiratory tract would not cause wheezing or significant respiratory compromise as described in the case history.

      Croup, which typically affects older children between the ages of 2-6 years, presents with a barking cough and, in severe cases, stridor.

      Understanding the differences between these respiratory conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and care for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are working on the neonatal ward and are called to see a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working on the neonatal ward and are called to see a newborn who the nurses have noticed is persistently 'floppy'. You assess the newborn and find no acute cause for concern and wonder whether there might be an underlying issue.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the underlying cause of neonatal hypotonia in this case?

      Your Answer: Becker Muscular Dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi is one of the conditions that can cause neonatal hypotonia, along with neonatal sepsis, spinal muscular atrophy, and hypothyroidism.

      Understanding Neonatal Hypotonia and Its Causes

      Neonatal hypotonia is a condition characterized by low muscle tone in newborns. This can be caused by various factors, including neonatal sepsis, Werdnig-Hoffman disease (spinal muscular atrophy type 1), hypothyroidism, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Maternal factors such as drug use, particularly benzodiazepines, and myasthenia gravis can also contribute to neonatal hypotonia.

      Neonatal hypotonia can have serious consequences, including difficulty with feeding and breathing, delayed motor development, and even death in severe cases. It is important for healthcare providers to identify the underlying cause of hypotonia in newborns and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

      Understanding the potential causes of neonatal hypotonia can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and develop an effective treatment plan. With proper care and management, many newborns with hypotonia can go on to lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of constipation and back pain for the past 6 months. Her husband, who accompanies her, also mentions that she has been acting strangely during this time. On examination, a nodule is found in the patient's neck, just left of the midline. Further investigations reveal an elevated parathyroid hormone level and abnormal levels of various electrolytes. The patient undergoes surgery and subsequently develops hoarseness. What is the most probable cause of the patient's voice change?

      Your Answer: Damage to the spinal accessory nerve

      Correct Answer: Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Effects of Nerve Damage on Laryngeal Function

      Hypercalcaemia and Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Hypercalcaemia, often caused by parathyroid adenoma, can lead to transection of the recurrent laryngeal nerve during surgical removal of the adenoma. This can result in hoarseness.

      External Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Transection of the external laryngeal nerve can affect the cricothyroid muscle, leading to difficulty in increasing the pitch of one’s voice.

      Internal Laryngeal Nerve Damage
      Damage to the internal laryngeal nerve can impair sensation in the pharynx above the vocal cords, but it does not cause hoarseness.

      Spinal Accessory Nerve Damage
      Damage to the spinal accessory nerve can impair shoulder shrugging and head rotation.

      Vagus Nerve Damage
      Damage to the vagus nerve can cause widespread effects involving autonomic dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe bony pain. Despite being treated with increasing doses of opioids as an outpatient, he now reports experiencing intense pain in his right shoulder that worsens with movement. This pain is distinct from the metastatic bone pain he has been experiencing in his lower limbs. There is no history of trauma. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Request MRI shoulder

      Correct Answer: Arrange a shoulder x ray and give him a broad arm sling

      Explanation:

      Managing Bony Pain in Patients with Metastatic Carcinoma

      The common assumption is that all bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma is solely due to bone metastases. However, it is important to consider other possible causes, especially if the pain is worsened by movement and has a different character from known bone metastases. Patients with advanced malignancy are prone to low-force fractures, particularly in the neck of the humerus, even without a history of trauma.

      Before increasing opioid dosage or adding NSAIDs, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and immobilize the fracture site. A broad arm sling can often provide sufficient pain relief. Bisphosphonates should not be used unless hypercalcemia has been confirmed. When a fracture is suspected, an x-ray is a simpler investigation modality than a bone scan or MRI. However, an MRI may be necessary to provide detail if a pathological fracture requires surgical repair, such as a neck of femur fracture associated with metastatic deposit.

      While dexamethasone can be used as an adjunct in pain management, it should not be the next step. Proper diagnosis and immobilization of the fracture site should be the primary focus in managing bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been on...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been on a cardiac glycoside for atrial fibrillation for a while. The cardiologist is worried about the medication's toxicity and wants to switch to a different one.
      What aspect of this medication is causing the most concern for the cardiologist?

      Your Answer: Narrow therapeutic index

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, but it has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning that even small changes in dosage or interactions with other medications can cause harmful side effects. Other drugs with a narrow therapeutic index include lithium, gentamicin, and vancomycin. High protein binding is also important in toxicology, as medications can compete for the same binding sites, leading to increased levels of free medication in the body. Amiodarone, if used long-term, can cause pulmonary toxicity, limiting its use in younger patients who may require it for extended periods. Variable first-pass metabolism can make it difficult to determine the appropriate dosage for a desired drug concentration, as the amount of drug metabolized can vary. Propranolol is an example of a drug affected by variable first-pass metabolism. Finally, zero-order kinetics refers to a constant rate of drug metabolism that is not related to drug concentration. Drugs affected by zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and ethanol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What are the typical changes in the haematogenous system during infancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the typical changes in the haematogenous system during infancy?

      Your Answer: Neutrophil production increases

      Correct Answer: Extramedullary haematopoiesis stops

      Explanation:

      Haematopoiesis and Immunological Development in Infancy

      At birth, the liver is responsible for producing blood cells, but this process stops within the first year of life. Haematopoiesis, or the production of blood cells, can also occur outside of the bone marrow, known as Extramedullary haematopoiesis. During fetal development, the liver and spleen are responsible for haematopoiesis while the bone marrow develops. However, once the infant is born, the bone marrow takes over the production of blood cells, and haematopoiesis in the liver and spleen ceases. In some cases, such as beta-thalassaemia major, Extramedullary haematopoiesis can continue and expand to other areas of the body.

      Immunoglobulin production begins after six months, with maternal IgG providing most of the antibody coverage for the first three months of life. This means that infants are most vulnerable to encapsulated bacterial infections between three and nine months of age. Lymphatic tissue mass remains relatively unchanged during infancy but increases during early childhood, which may account for the increase in viral infections experienced by children. Neutrophil production does not increase unless there is a bacterial infection present, and the total white cell count decreases during infancy. Additionally, the production of fetal haemoglobin, or HbF, decreases steadily during the first year of life as it is replaced by HbA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She typically takes the combined contraceptive pill but missed her pills on days 2 and 3 of the first week of her current packet. On day 4, she engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). As a solution, you prescribe ulipristal acetate as an emergency contraceptive.

      What is the appropriate time for her to resume her regular hormonal contraception?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: Wait 5 days

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before resuming regular hormonal contraception. This is because hormonal contraception may be less effective when taken with ulipristal acetate, which could compromise its ability to prevent ovulation. However, there is an exception to this rule. If a patient is already taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has missed pills later than the first week of taking them, they can resume the COCP immediately after taking ulipristal acetate. Otherwise, patients should wait for 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception and use barrier methods during this period. It is not necessary to take a pregnancy test after taking ulipristal acetate unless the patient’s next period is more than 7 days late or lighter than usual. It is not contraindicated to use hormonal contraception with ulipristal acetate, but it is recommended to wait for 5 days before resuming it.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of thick, well-defined, red...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of thick, well-defined, red patches with silvery scales on the extensor surfaces of his elbows and knees. He has been experiencing these skin lesions intermittently for the past 3 years. The lesions tend to improve during the summer months, worsen during times of stress, and reappear at the site of trauma, particularly where he scratches. A skin biopsy specimen reveals epidermal hyperplasia and parakeratosis, with neutrophils present within the epidermis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Plaque psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Psoriasis is a skin condition characterized by a rash with typical histology and location. The Koebner phenomenon, where lesions occur at sites of trauma, is a common feature of psoriasis. Treatment involves exposure to ultraviolet light, tar-based treatments, and immunosuppressant drugs. Pruritus is not always present.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis presents as itchy, ill-defined erythema and greasy scaling on the scalp, nasolabial folds, or post-auricular skin in adults and adolescents.

      Lichen planus is characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques. Lesions are often located on the wrist, with papules demonstrating central dimpling.

      Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by itchy, red rashes often found in the flexor areas of joints.

      Tinea corporis is a ringworm infection characterized by expanding patches with central clearing and a well-defined active periphery. The active periphery is raised, pruritic, moist, erythematosus, and scaly, with papules, vesicles, and pustules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man has been brought into Accident and Emergency, after being rescued from a fire in his home by firefighters. He has extensive burns across most of his torso and lower limbs; however, on assessment, his airway is patent and he currently has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11. Paramedics have already been able to gain bilateral wide-bore access in both antecubital fossae. He weighs approximately 90 kg, and estimates from the paramedics are that 55% of his body is covered by burns, mostly second-degree, but with some areas of third-degree burns. His observations are:
      Temperature 36.2 °C
      Blood pressure 102/73 mmHg
      Heart rate 112 bpm
      Saturations 96% on room air
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min
      What would be the most appropriate initial method of fluid resuscitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hartmann’s 2 litre over 1 h

      Explanation:

      Fluid Management in Burn Patients: Considerations for Initial Resuscitation and Maintenance

      Burn patients require careful fluid management to replace lost fluid volume and electrolytes. In the initial resuscitation phase, it is important to administer fluids rapidly, with warm intravenous fluids considered to minimize heat loss. Accurate fluid monitoring and titration to urine output is vital. While colloids such as Gelofusin may be used, crystalloids like Hartmann’s or normal saline are preferred. Maintenance fluids should be based on the modified Parkland formula, with electrolyte losses in mind. However, in the initial phase, replacing lost fluid volume takes priority over maintenance fluids based on oral intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - As an FY2 doctor in the Emergency Department, you are attending to a...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY2 doctor in the Emergency Department, you are attending to a patient who is experiencing severe abdominal pain. The patient is unable to localise the pain, and reports feeling faint. Upon examination, you observe a pulsatile expansile mass above their umbilicus, along with generalised abdominal tenderness. The patient's blood pressure is 95/51 mmHg, and their pulse is 114 bpm. While awaiting a surgical review, the patient is receiving fluid resuscitation for their low blood pressure. In this scenario, which of the following would provide the most useful information for planning the patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan

      Explanation:

      Imaging Options for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Clinical diagnosis may be possible based on the presence of a pulsatile expansile mass and severe shock, but a computerised tomography (CT) scan is needed to assess the dimensions and anatomical relations of the aneurysm. This information is crucial in determining the most suitable type of surgical repair, such as endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR).

      X-rays are not useful for visualising soft tissue structures, while intravenous arteriograms are completely inappropriate as the contrast can cause peritonitis and worsen the patient’s condition. Ultrasound scans are good for confirming suspected AAAs in stable patients, but they cannot provide accurate information for surgical planning.

      In summary, a CT scan is the most appropriate imaging option for diagnosing and planning treatment for AAA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      0
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  • Question 30 - An 81-year-old patient is admitted with dysuria and confusion. She is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old patient is admitted with dysuria and confusion. She is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and treated with ciprofloxacin. After 3 days, she develops a profuse offensive diarrhoea. Her pulse is 82 bpm, blood pressure 140/78 mmHg and temperature 37.4 °C. Her abdomen is mildly tender throughout, but no guarding. Bloods show a white cell count of 28.7 × 109/l (was 11.6).
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Diarrhoea: Clostridium difficile, Ulcerative Colitis, Pyelonephritis, Quinolone-resistant UTI, and Overflow Diarrhoea

      When a patient presents with diarrhoea, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of a patient who recently started antibiotics and developed profuse diarrhoea, Clostridium difficile infection is the most likely cause. This infection is characterized by foul-smelling diarrhoea, a tender abdomen, fever, and vomiting, along with a raised white cell count.

      While ulcerative colitis can also present with similar symptoms, it typically has a longer history of gastrointestinal issues and does not occur acutely after starting antibiotics. Pyelonephritis, on the other hand, can cause fever, vomiting, and abdominal pain, but it does not typically cause diarrhoea. Quinolone-resistant UTI may cause continued fevers and UTI symptoms, but it would not cause diarrhoea. Finally, overflow diarrhoea is a possible diagnosis in elderly patients, but it would not typically present with foul-smelling diarrhoea and a raised white cell count.

      In summary, when a patient presents with diarrhoea, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses, including Clostridium difficile, ulcerative colitis, pyelonephritis, quinolone-resistant UTI, and overflow diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/3) 33%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/2) 0%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Breast (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Palliative Care (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Passmed