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Question 1
Correct
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A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury as a result of a motorbike accident. He has had no benefit from paracetamol or ibuprofen. In addition, he has had an unsuccessful trial of amitriptyline. Following recent NICE guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate medication to consider?
Your Answer: Pregabalin
Explanation:Neuropathic pain may be defined as pain which arises following damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is often difficult to treat and responds poorly to standard analgesia.
The most recent update to the NICE guidelines for management of neuropathic pain occurred in 2013: first-line treatment* includes amitriptyline. If the first-line drug treatment does not work then move on to one of the other 3 drugs: duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. Tramadol may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may be used for localised neuropathic pain (e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia). Pain management clinics may be useful in patients with resistant problems.*please note that for some specific conditions the guidance may vary. For example carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?
Your Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4
Explanation:The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice.
Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities.
Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 51 year-old teacher presents complaining of numerous falls. He states he has difficulty walking up stairs, and he thinks it is because of his weak legs rather than blackouts. He is hypertensive and has suffered chronic back pain for many years. He has smoked for many years as well and has a chronic smokers cough. Upon examination, he has weakness of hip flexion and particularly knee extension. He is unable to keep his fingers flexed against force, with the right being weaker than the left. There are no sensory abnormalities and reflexes are preserved bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Correct Answer: Inclusion body myositis
Explanation:The pattern of muscle involvement seen with quadriceps and long-finger flexors is characteristic of inclusion body myositis, an inflammatory myopathy. Polymyositis is likely to cause a predominantly proximal weakness, associated with muscle pain. The signs and symptoms are not consistent with upper cord compression, as there would likely be sensory signs, reflex changes, and possible urinary symptoms. Motor neuron disease cannot be ruled out, but there are no findings of upper motor neuron or bulbar features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S?
Your Answer: It has a higher affinity for oxygen than HbA
Correct Answer: It is the result of a point mutation
Explanation:Hb S is the most common type of abnormal haemoglobin and the basis of sickle cell trait and sickle cell anaemia. It differs from normal adult haemoglobin (called haemoglobin A—Hb A) only by a single amino acid substitution due to point mutation—a valine replacing a glutamine in the sixth position of the beta chain of globin. Hb S molecules polymerize in hypoxic and acidic environments, imparting a sickle shape to the RBCs. Hb S molecules are less negatively charged than Hb A (due to the loss of glutamine) and have a lower affinity for oxygen (right shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, known to have small cell lung cancer and ischaemic heart disease (IHD), presents with increasing shortness of breath for the past 7 days. It becomes worse at night and is associated with an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. His cancer was diagnosed five months ago and he has recently completed a course of chemotherapy. From a cardiac point of view, he had a myocardial infarction (MI) two years ago following which he had primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has had no episode of angina since then. Clinical examination of his chest is unremarkable. He does, however, have distended neck veins and periorbital oedema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Heart failure secondary to chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is an oncological emergency caused by compression of the SVC and is most commonly associated with lung cancer.
Some causes of the condition include:
1. Common malignancies: non small cell lung cancer, lymphoma
2. Other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, breast cancer
3. Aortic aneurysm
4. Mediastinal fibrosisClinical features of SVC obstruction include:
1. Dyspnoea: most common
2. Swelling of the face, neck, and arms: conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
3. Headache: often worse in the morning
4. Visual disturbances
5. Pulseless jugular venous distensionManagement options are:
1. General: dexamethasone, balloon venoplasty, stenting
2. Small cell lung cancer: chemotherapy and radiotherapy
3. Non small cell lung cancer: radiotherapy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion. Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer: Dyspnoea normally improves on commencement of infusion
Correct Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use
Explanation:The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver. Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?
Your Answer: 40mg
Explanation:The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:
(Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
Hence,
60mg*2 = 120mg
120mg/3 = 40mgThe side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an unknown coagulopathy and has a previous history of stroke. She has been on warfarin therapy for the past 4 months. Her international normalised ratio (INR) was stabilised between 2.5 and 3.0. Noticing abnormal coagulation results, her surgeon has requested a medical consult. Her blood investigations revealed: White cell count: 13 × 109/L, Haemoglobin (Hb): 11 g/dL, Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): Normal Platelets: 140 × 109/L, INR: 6.0 Pancreatic enzymes and liver function tests were normal. Other investigations: An ultrasound of the abdomen was normal. An upper GI endoscopy revealed mild gastritis. What is the most appropriate step to be taken regarding warfarin therapy?
Your Answer: Stop warfarin and observe
Explanation:The most appropriate treatment in this patient would be to stop warfarin therapy and keep the patient under observation.
The drugs that lead to enhanced potency of warfarin include: disulfiram, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, aspirin, heparin, and clofibrate.
Liver disease, thrombocytopenia, hyperthyroidism also increase the oral anticoagulant potency.
If the patient has minor bleeding and the international normalized ratio (INR) is >6.0, warfarin should be stopped; the INR should be rechecked daily and in addition to the stoppage of warfarin, vitamin K 2.5 mg oral or 0.5 mg intravenously should also be administered.
In a patient with INR of 2.0 or 3.0, it takes two or three times longer for that individual’s blood to clot than someone who is not taking any anticoagulants. Most patients on warfarin have an INR goal of 2 to 3.If there is major bleeding then prothrombin complex concentrates 50 u/kg or fresh-frozen plasma 15 ml/kg may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic with chronic fatigue. She has 3 children and a full-time job and is finding it very difficult to hold everything together. There is no significant past medical history. On examination, her BP is 145/80 mmHg and her BMI is 28. Investigations show: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 6.7 x109/L, PLT 204 x109/L, Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 120 μmol/L, Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, TSH 7.8 U/l, Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (10-22), Free T3 4.9 pmol/l (5-10). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis
Correct Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism
Explanation:Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
– Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
– Weight gain
– Decreased appetite
– Cold intolerance
– Dry skin
– Hair loss
– Sleepiness
– Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
– Depression
– Emotional lability, mental impairment
– Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
– Decreased perspiration
– Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
– Blurred vision
– Decreased hearing
– Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
– Weight gain
– Slowed speech and movements
– Dry skin
– Jaundice
– Pallor
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
– Dull facial expression
– Coarse facial features
– Periorbital puffiness
– Macroglossia
– Goitre (simple or nodular)
– Hoarseness
– Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
– Bradycardia
– Pericardial effusion
– Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
– Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
– Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
– Pitting oedema of lower extremities
– Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Where is secretin secreted from?
Your Answer: I cells in upper small intestine
Correct Answer: S cells in upper small intestine
Explanation:Secretin is a peptide hormone produced in the S cells of the duodenum, which are located in the intestinal glands. In humans, the secretin peptide is encoded by the SCT gene.
Secretin helps regulate the pH of the duodenum by
1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and
(2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate from the ductal cells of the pancreas.
G cells in the antrum of the stomach release gastrin
I cells in upper small intestine release CCK
D cells in the pancreas & stomach secrete somatostatin
K cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide, an incretin, which also promotes triglyceride storage. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?
Your Answer: Presence of pruritis
Correct Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman with a 30 pack year history of smoking presents with a persistent cough and occasional haemoptysis. A chest x-ray which is done shows no abnormality. What percentage of recent chest x-rays were reported as normal in patients who are subsequently diagnosed with lung cancer?
Your Answer: 35%
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:A retrospective cohort study of the primary care records of 247 lung cancer patients diagnosed between 1998–2002 showed that 10% of the X-rays were reported as normal.
Other tests may include:
– Imaging tests: A CT scan can reveal small lesions in your lungs that might not be detected on an X-ray.
– Sputum cytology: sputum may reveal the presence of lung cancer cells.
– Tissue sample (biopsy): A sample of abnormal cells may be removed for histological analysis. A biopsy may be performed in a number of ways, including bronchoscopy, mediastinoscopy and needle biopsy. A biopsy sample may also be taken from adjacent lymph nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of following does not promote the release of endothelin?
Your Answer: Hypoxia
Correct Answer: Prostacyclin
Explanation:Prostacyclin (PGI2) generated by the vascular wall is a potent vasodilator, and the most potent endogenous inhibitor of platelet aggregation so far discovered. Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cyclic AMP levels. Prostacyclin is a circulating hormone continually released by the lungs into the arterial circulation. Circulating platelets are, therefore, subjected constantly to prostacyclin stimulation and it is via this mechanism that platelet aggregability in vivo is controlled.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria
Explanation:Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
– Psoriasis
– Atopic eczema
– Erythema multiforme
– Seborrheic dermatitis
– Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
– Mycosis fungoides
– Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
– Porphyria cutanea tarda
Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
– Systemic lupus erythematosus
– Sjögren’s syndrome
– Sinear Usher syndrome
– Rosacea
– Dermatomyositis
– Darier’s disease
– Kindler-Weary syndrome
Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric tumour is revealed, later established as an adenocarcinoma. The patient refuses any treatment and claims that his condition is not influencing the quality of his life. Clinical examination has nothing particularly interesting to show and the patient seems to be conscious of his decision, regardless of the likely curative nature of surgery. What is the single most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Arrange a CT head and check bloods to exclude cerebral metastases and hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Respect his wishes and book a follow-up appointment for four weeks
Explanation:The patient seems to be conscious about his decision, which should be respected. According to Mental Capacity Act 2005, a person who makes an unwise decision should not be treated as unable to make a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis. On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg. Investigations show: Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600), Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20), Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20), Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450), Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22), TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Drug induced
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.
In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Tetracycline is not recommended in pregnancy because of the risk to fetal development (bones, teeth!). Metronidazole in pregnancy: currently not thought to be an increased risk in pregnancy; however this is not effective against chlamydia. Amoxicillin is shown to be an adequate treatment for chlamydia, so this is the correct answer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Correct
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A 20 year old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. Which of the following arterial blood gas results (taken on room air) are most consistent with this?
Your Answer: pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa
Explanation:In mild-to-moderate heroin overdoses, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. In more severe overdoses, tissue hypoxia is common, leading to mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg (4.67 to 5.99 kPa). Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range (i.e., >45 mm Hg) with an accompanying academia (i.e., pH < 7.35). In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (i.e., >30 mEq/L).
Arterial blood gases with pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa would indicate respiratory acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis?
Your Answer: Raised JVP
Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat
Explanation:Apex beat displacement is caused by mitral regurgitation and because it is not found in mitral stenosis, it is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other given responses occur in mitral stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Varicose eczema
Explanation:Varicose eczema is a common problem, particularly in elderly patients due to stasis or blood pooling from insufficient venous return; the alternative name of varicose eczema comes from a common cause of this being varicose veins. It is often mistaken for cellulitis, but cellulitis is rarely bilateral and is painful rather than itchy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?
Your Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance
Explanation:Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old teacher with multiple sclerosis complains that her vision becomes blurred during a hot bath. Which of the following explain this?
Your Answer: Werdnig-Hoffman's sign
Correct Answer: Uhthoff's phenomenon
Explanation:Uhthoff’s phenomenon is worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature.
Lhermitte’s sign describes paraesthesia in the limbs on neck flexion.
Oppenheim’s sign is seen when scratching of the inner side of leg leads to extension of the toes. It is a sign of cerebral irritation and is not related to multiple sclerosis.
Werdnig-Hoffman’s disease is also known as spinal muscular atrophy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true regarding Escherichia coli infection?
Your Answer: The O157:H7 strain is typically spread via shellfish
Correct Answer: E coli is an important cause of neonatal meningitis
Explanation:Escherichia coli (also known as E. coli) is a gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms. Most E. coli strains are harmless, but some serotypes can cause serious food poisoning in their hosts, and are occasionally responsible for product recalls due to food contamination. The harmless strains are part of the normal flora of the gut, and can benefit their hosts by producing vitamin K2, and preventing colonization of the intestine with pathogenic bacteria. Virulent strains can cause gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, and neonatal meningitis.
The most common causes of neonatal meningitis is bacterial infection of the blood, known as bacteremia (specifically Group B Streptococci (GBS; Streptococcus agalactiae), Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes). Although there is a low mortality rate in developed countries, there is a 50% prevalence rate of neurodevelopmental disabilities in E. coli and GBS meningitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old's chest x-ray showed diffuse bilateral alveolar shadows. He also suffers from shortness of breath, weight loss and dry cough due to Kaposi's sarcoma but no fever was noted. Which is the most likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Actinomyces israelii
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci
Explanation:Pneumocystis Jiroveci. This causative organism is responsible for pneumonia in individuals that have a compromised immune system. Symptoms include cyanosis, dry cough and in some cases, diffuse bilateral alveolar shadows on CXR. Co-trimoxazole is normally the treatment for this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?
Your Answer: Anti-Ro
Correct Answer: Anti-Sm
Explanation:Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease?
Your Answer: Onset is typically in the third decade
Correct Answer: May be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound
Explanation:Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) is less common than ADPKD (dominant form) but can already present with symptoms and be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a 22 year old man with seropositive rheumatoid arthritis who is planning to start a family?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Prednisolone although has many undesirable side effects it may be considered relatively safe compared to the drugs that are provided here. Prolonged treatment with sulphasalazine may depress semen quality and cause irreversible infertility. Methotrexate and leflunomide both inhibit purine/pyrimidine synthesis (the former by inhibiting folate metabolism) and are contraindicated in pregnancy or while trying to conceive. In males, a temporary or permanent decrease in sperm count may occur with cyclophosphamide. Because the recovery of fertility after cyclophosphamide therapy is variable, sperm banking should be considered before treatment is begun.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer: It has a half-life of 12 h
Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
Explanation:The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?
Your Answer: Pyelonephritis
Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome
Explanation:Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.
The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following, except?
Your Answer: Galactorrhoea
Correct Answer: Hypohydrosis
Explanation:Acromegaly occurs due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) after the growth plate cartilage fuses in adulthood.
It can be an insidious disease. Symptoms, which may precede diagnosis by several years, can be divided into the following groups:
1. Symptoms due to local mass effects of an intracranial tumour
Tumour damage to the pituitary stalk may cause hyperprolactinemia (Increased blood prolactin levels associated with galactorrhoea) due to loss of inhibitory regulation of prolactin secretion by the hypothalamus
2. Symptoms due to excess of GH/IGF-I including:
– Hyperhidrosis (Not hypohidrosis)
– Arthritis
– Peripheral Neuropathies e.g. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia presented with productive cough, fever with chills and loss of appetite for 4 days. On examination he was unwell and febrile with a temperature of 38.3. His blood pressure was 130/80mmHg and pulse rate was 140 bpm. Respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute. On auscultation there were crepitations over the left lower zone of his chest. His abdomen was soft and non-tender. ECG showed an irregular narrow complex tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute management to treat his tachycardia?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Antibiotics
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is acute atrial fibrillation (AF) precipitated by acute pneumonia. History of fever, cough and the auscultation findings support it. So the most appropriate management is treating the pneumonia with antibiotics. Treating the underlying cause will reduce the heart rate. Other responses are helpful in the management of chronic AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 70 year old male complained of poor vision at night which has gradually worsened with time. He has changed his glasses several times but there has been no improvement. On examination his pupils and cornea were normal. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Cataract
Explanation:Senile cataract is an age-related, vision-impairing disease characterized by gradual progressive clouding and thickening of the lens of the eye. Patients with senile cataracts often present with a history of gradual progressive visual deterioration and disturbance in night and near vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following statements regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia is incorrect?
Your Answer: Side-effects of 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors include ejaculation disorders and gynaecomastia
Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases
Explanation:Goserelin (Zoladex) is usually prescribed to treat hormone-sensitive cancers of the breast and prostate not for BPH. All other statements are correct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who works in a pharmacy comes to the clinic for review. Over the past few months, she has lost increasing amounts of weight and has become increasingly anxious about palpitations, which occur mostly at night. Her TSH is <0.1 IU/l (0.5-4.5). On examination, her BP is 122/72 mmHg, her pulse is 92 and regular. You cannot palpate a goitre or any nodules on examination of her neck. Which of the following investigations can differentiate between self-administration of thyroid hormone and endogenous causes of thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer: Ultrasound thyroid
Correct Answer: Radioactive uptake thyroid scan
Explanation:Once thyrotoxicosis has been identified by laboratory values, the thyroid radio-iodine uptake and scan may be used to help distinguish the underlying aetiology. Thyroid radioiodine uptake is raised in Graves’ disease. It may be normal or raised in patients with a toxic multinodular goitre. It is very low or undetectable in thyrotoxicosis resulting from exogenous administration of thyroid hormone or the thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history of chronic renal failure, who complains of increasing shortness of breath. Bloods reveal a creatinine of 570 μmol/l, urea of 48 mmol/l. He is also anaemic with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 8.9 g/dl. On examination he has a pericardial rub and there are bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure. Which of the following represents the best treatment option for this patient?
Your Answer: Intravenous iron replacement
Correct Answer: Urgent haemodialysis
Explanation:This case presents with symptoms and lab results suggestive of uremic pericarditis, which is an indication for immediate haemodialysis. Uremic pericarditis is caused by inflammation of the membranes of the pericardial sac, which usually resolves after a period of intensive dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old physiotherapist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a painful, red left eye. Visual acuity is normal. Fundoscopy is also unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Correct Answer: Scleritis
Explanation:Scleritis, or inflammation of the sclera, is usually painful whereas episcleritis is not painful.
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is usually bilateral and associated more with dryness, burning and itching.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old pharmacist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a two day history of a red right eye. There is no itch or pain. Pupils are 3mm, equal and reactive to light. Visual acuity is 6/5 in both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scleritis
Correct Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are common, with 25% of patients having eye problems. These manifestations include keratoconjunctivitis sicca (most common), episcleritis (erythema), scleritis (erythema and pain), corneal ulceration, and keratitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?
Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia
Explanation:Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:
– Idiopathic
– Trauma, excessive manicuring
– Infection: especially fungal
– Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis
– Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s
– Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda
– Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).
– Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acid fast bacilli
Explanation:History and CXR are suggestive of tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli should be seen on microscopy to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 50 yr. old male presented with episodes of collapse during the last month. Each episode persisted for about 2-3 minutes. They were self-limiting and associated with twitching of the limbs. There was no associated tonic-clonic movements, tongue biting, urinary or faecal incontinence. On examination he had reversed splitting of S2 and an ejection systolic murmur at the right sternal border. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed left ventricular hypertrophy with strain pattern. CXR showed an area of calcification over the cardiac silhouette. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:The classic triad of symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis is chest pain, heart failure and syncope. Pulsus parvus et tardus, pulsus alternans, hyperdynamic left ventricle, reversed splitting of the S2, prominent S4 and systolic murmur are some of the common findings of aortic stenosis. A calcified aortic valve is found in almost all adults with hemodynamically significant aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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