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Question 1
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl presents with cold-like symptoms that have been present for over two weeks. She is originally from South America. Her mother reports that she has been extremely tired and has been complaining of various aches and pains. During the examination, enlarged lymph nodes are found in her neck, and splenomegaly is detected. She has multiple petechiae on her legs and arms. Her blood test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin: 7.4 g/dl (11.5-15.5 g/dl)
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 80 fl (75-87 fl)
Platelets: 34 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
White Cell Count (WCC): 34.4 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common type of leukaemia that occurs in childhood, typically affecting children between the ages of 2 and 5 years. The symptoms of ALL can vary, but many children initially experience an acute illness that may resemble a common cold or viral infection. Other signs of ALL include general weakness and fatigue, as well as muscle, joint, and bone pain. Additionally, children with ALL may have anaemia, unexplained bruising and petechiae, swelling (oedema), enlarged lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy), and an enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly).
In patients with ALL, a complete blood count typically reveals certain characteristics. These include anaemia, which can be either normocytic or macrocytic. Approximately 50% of patients with ALL have a low white blood cell count (leukopaenia), with a white cell count below 4 x 109/l. On the other hand, around 60% of patients have a high white blood cell count (leukocytosis), with a white cell count exceeding 10 x 109/l. In about 25% of cases, there is an extreme elevation in white blood cell count (hyperleukocytosis), with a count surpassing 50 x 109/l. Additionally, patients with ALL often have a low platelet count (thrombocytopaenia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing sudden difficulty breathing. Shortly after her arrival, she loses consciousness. The cardiac monitor displays ventricular fibrillation, confirming cardiac arrest.
Which of the following statements about cardiac arrest during pregnancy is NOT true?Your Answer: The uterus should be manually displaced to the right
Explanation:Cardiac arrest during pregnancy is a rare occurrence, happening in approximately 16 out of every 100,000 live births. It is crucial to consider both the mother and the fetus when dealing with cardiac arrest in pregnancy, as the best way to ensure a positive outcome for the fetus is by effectively resuscitating the mother.
The main causes of cardiac arrest during pregnancy include pre-existing cardiac disease, pulmonary embolism, hemorrhage, ectopic pregnancy, hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, amniotic fluid embolism, and suicide. Many cardiovascular problems associated with pregnancy are caused by compression of the inferior vena cava.
To prevent decompensation or potential cardiac arrest during pregnancy, it is important to follow these steps when dealing with a distressed or compromised pregnant patient:
– Place the patient in the left lateral position or manually displace the uterus to the left.
– Administer high-flow oxygen, guided by pulse oximetry.
– Give a fluid bolus if there is low blood pressure or signs of hypovolemia.
– Re-evaluate the need for any medications currently being administered.
– Seek expert help and involve obstetric and neonatal specialists early.
– Identify and treat the underlying cause.In the event of cardiac arrest during pregnancy, in addition to following the standard guidelines for basic and advanced life support, the following modifications should be made:
– Immediately call for expert help, including an obstetrician, anesthetist, and neonatologist.
– Start CPR according to the standard ALS guidelines, but adjust the hand position slightly higher on the sternum.
– Ideally establish IV or IO access above the diaphragm to account for potential compression of the inferior vena cava.
– Manually displace the uterus to the left to relieve caval compression.
– Tilt the table to the left side (around 15-30 degrees of tilt).
– Perform early tracheal intubation to reduce the risk of aspiration (seek assistance from an expert anesthetist).
– Begin preparations for an emergency Caesarean section.A perimortem Caesarean section should be performed within 5 minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest. This delivery will alleviate caval compression and increase the chances of successful resuscitation by improving venous return during CPR. It will also maximize the chances of the infant’s survival, as the best survival rate occurs when delivery is achieved within 5 minutes of the mother’s cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 72 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with suspected COVID-19 pneumonia and sepsis. It is decided to intubate him pending transfer to ITU. Your consultant requests you prepare propofol and suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation. What class of drug is suxamethonium?
Your Answer: Depolarising neuromuscular blocker
Explanation:Suxamethonium, also called succinylcholine, is currently the sole depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug used in clinical settings. It functions by binding to acetylcholine (Ach) receptors as an agonist. Unlike acetylcholine, it is not broken down by acetylcholinesterase, leading to a longer duration of binding and prolonged inhibition of neuromuscular transmission. Eventually, it is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase).
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by helicopter after being stranded on a hillside overnight. The rescue team informs you that according to the Swiss Staging system, he is at stage III.
What is the most accurate description of his current medical condition?Your Answer: Impaired consciousness without shivering
Correct Answer: Unconscious
Explanation:Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature drops below 35°C. It is categorized as mild (32-35°C), moderate (28-32°C), or severe (<28°C). Rescuers at the scene can use the Swiss staging system to describe the condition of victims. The stages range from clearly conscious and shivering to unconscious and not breathing, with death due to irreversible hypothermia being the most severe stage. There are several risk factors for hypothermia, including environmental exposure, unsatisfactory housing, poverty, lack of cold awareness, drugs, alcohol, acute confusion, hypothyroidism, and sepsis. The clinical features of hypothermia vary depending on the severity. At 32-35°C, symptoms may include apathy, amnesia, ataxia, and dysarthria. At 30-32°C, there may be a decreased level of consciousness, hypotension, arrhythmias, respiratory depression, and muscular rigidity. Below 30°C, ventricular fibrillation may occur, especially with excessive movement or invasive procedures. Diagnosing hypothermia involves checking the core temperature using an oesophageal, rectal, or tympanic probe with a low reading thermometer. Rectal and tympanic temperatures may lag behind core temperature and are unreliable in hypothermia. Various investigations should be carried out, including blood tests, blood glucose, amylase, blood cultures, arterial blood gas, ECG, chest X-ray, and CT head if there is suspicion of head injury or CVA. The management of hypothermia involves supporting the ABCs, treating the patient in a warm room, removing wet clothes and drying the skin, monitoring the ECG, providing warmed, humidified oxygen, correcting hypoglycemia with IV glucose, and handling the patient gently to avoid VF arrest. Rewarming methods include passive Rewarming with warm blankets or Bair hugger/polythene sheets, surface Rewarming with a water bath, core Rewarming with heated, humidified oxygen or peritoneal lavage, and extracorporeal Rewarming via cardiopulmonary bypass for severe hypothermia/cardiac arrest. In the case of hypothermic cardiac arrest, CPR should be performed with chest compressions and ventilations at standard rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 5
Correct
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You intend to utilize 1% lidocaine with adrenaline 1:200,000 for a peripheral nerve block on a 60 kg healthy young female. What is the maximum amount of lidocaine that can be administered in this scenario?
Your Answer: 420 mg lidocaine hydrochloride
Explanation:The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 200 mg. However, when lidocaine is administered with adrenaline in a 1:200,000 ratio, the maximum safe dose increases to 7 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 500 mg.
In this particular case, the patient weighs 60 kg, so the maximum safe dose of lidocaine hydrochloride would be 60 multiplied by 7 mg, resulting in a total of 420 mg.
For more detailed information on lidocaine hydrochloride, you can refer to the BNF section dedicated to this topic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old dairy farmer presents with a flu-like illness that has been worsening for the past two weeks. He has high fevers, a pounding headache, and muscle aches. He has now also developed a dry cough, stomach pain, and diarrhea. During the examination, there are no notable chest signs, but a liver edge can be felt 4 cm below the costal margin.
Today, his blood tests show the following results:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 13.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
- White blood cell count (WCC): 21.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
- Neutrophils: 17.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
- Platelets: 567 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 187 mg/l (normal range: < 5 mg/l)
- Sodium (Na): 127 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K): 4.4 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine (Creat): 122 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
- Urea: 7.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
- Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 121 IU/l (normal range: 8-40 IU/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 296 IU/l (normal range: 30-200 IU/l)
- Bilirubin: 14 micromol/l (normal range: 3-17 micromol/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci
Correct Answer: Coxiella burnetii
Explanation:Q fever is a highly contagious infection caused by Coxiella burnetii, which can be transmitted from animals to humans. It is commonly observed as an occupational disease among individuals working in farming, slaughterhouses, and animal research. Approximately 50% of cases do not show any symptoms, while those who are affected often experience flu-like symptoms such as headache, fever, muscle pain, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.
In some cases, patients may develop an atypical pneumonia characterized by a dry cough and minimal chest signs. Q fever can also lead to hepatitis and enlargement of the liver (hepatomegaly), although jaundice is not commonly observed. Typical blood test results for Q fever include an elevated white cell count (30-40%), ALT/AST levels that are usually 2-3 times higher than normal, increased ALP levels (70%), reduced sodium levels (30%), and reactive thrombocytosis.
It is important to check patients for heart murmurs and signs of valve disease, as these conditions increase the risk of developing infective endocarditis. Treatment for Q fever typically involves a two-week course of doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Correct
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A student nurse on a clinical rotation in the Emergency Department experiences a needlestick injury from a patient with a history of chronic hepatitis B.
Which ONE statement about hepatitis B prophylaxis is accurate?Your Answer: An accelerated regime is available for post-exposure prophylaxis
Explanation:Hepatitis B vaccination is included in the routine childhood immunisation schedule to provide long-term protection against hepatitis for children under 1 year of age. For these children, the vaccination consists of a primary course that includes the diphtheria with tetanus, pertussis, hepatitis B, poliomyelitis, and Haemophilus influenza type B vaccine. This primary course is given at 4 weekly intervals.
The Hepatitis B vaccine is a conjugate vaccine that contains a surface antigen of the hepatitis virus (HBsAg) and is combined with an aluminium adjuvant to enhance its effectiveness. It is produced using a recombinant DNA technique.
When administering the vaccine to adults and older children, the preferred injection site is the deltoid muscle. However, in younger children, the anterolateral thigh is the preferred site. It is not recommended to inject the vaccine in the gluteal area as it has been found to have reduced efficacy.
The standard vaccination regime for Hepatitis B consists of three primary doses. The initial dose is followed by further doses at one and six months later. A booster dose is recommended at five years if the individual is still at risk.
In cases of post-exposure prophylaxis, an accelerated vaccination regime is used. This involves administering a vaccination at the time of exposure, followed by repeat doses at one and two months later.
In high-risk situations, Hepatitis B immunoglobulin can be given up to 7 days after exposure. Ideally, it should be administered within 12 hours, but according to the BNF, it can still be effective if given within 7 days after exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25 year old patient is brought into the resuscitation bay by paramedics after being pulled from a lake. The patient initially had a core temperature of 29.2ºC. CPR is underway. The patient's core temperature is rechecked after warming measures are introduced and the core temperature has increased to 32.5ºC. What changes, if any, would you make to administration of adrenaline during CPR in a patient with a core temperature of 32.5ºC compared to someone with a normal core temperature?
Your Answer: Interval between doses doubled
Explanation:When performing CPR on patients with a core temperature of 30-35°C, it is recommended to double the interval between IV drug doses compared to what is used for normothermic patients. However, if the core temperature is above 35°C, standard drug protocols should be followed.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the resuscitation area to assist with a patient experiencing status epilepticus.
Which ONE statement about the utilization of benzodiazepines in status epilepticus is accurate?Your Answer: Most patients require multiple doses to terminate their seizure
Correct Answer: Diazepam can be given by the intravenous route
Explanation:Between 60 and 80% of individuals who experience seizures will have their seizure stopped by a single dose of intravenous benzodiazepine. Benzodiazepines have a high solubility in lipids and can quickly pass through the blood-brain barrier. This is why they have a fast onset of action.
As the initial treatment, intravenous lorazepam should be administered. If intravenous lorazepam is not accessible, intravenous diazepam can be used instead. In cases where it is not possible to establish intravenous access promptly, buccal midazolam can be utilized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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You assess a patient with a significantly elevated calcium level.
Which of the following is NOT a known cause of hypercalcemia?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia, which is an elevated level of calcium in the blood, is most commonly caused by primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to hypercalcaemia as well. These include an increase in dietary intake of calcium, excessive intake of vitamin D, tertiary hyperparathyroidism, overactive thyroid gland (hyperthyroidism), Addison’s disease, sarcoidosis, Paget’s disease, multiple myeloma, phaeochromocytoma, and milk-alkali syndrome. Additionally, certain medications such as lithium, thiazide diuretics, and theophyllines can also lead to hypercalcaemia. It is important to be aware of these various causes in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A middle-aged individual comes in with hearing loss on one side, ringing in the ears, dizziness, and numbness in the face. An MRI scan shows the presence of an acoustic neuroma.
Which of the following nerves is the LEAST likely to be affected?Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve
Explanation:An acoustic neuroma, also referred to as a vestibular schwannoma, is a slow-growing tumor that develops from the Schwann cells of the vestibulocochlear nerve (8th cranial nerve). These growths are typically found at the cerebellopontine angle or within the internal auditory canal.
The most commonly affected nerves are the vestibulocochlear and trigeminal nerves. Patients typically present with a gradual deterioration of hearing in one ear, along with numbness and tingling in the face, ringing in the ears, and episodes of dizziness. Additionally, some patients may have a history of headaches. In rare cases, the facial nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, vagus nerve, or accessory nerve may also be affected.
It is important to note that the trochlear nerve, which passes through the superior orbital fissure, is not impacted by an acoustic neuroma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 12
Correct
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A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is requesting admission for ‘inpatient detox’ and states he would like some ‘medication to alleviate his symptoms’.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for admitting this patient?Your Answer: Previous successful inpatient detox
Explanation:NICE provides a list of reasons for admitting patients with acute alcohol withdrawal. These include individuals who are deemed to be at risk of experiencing withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Additionally, young people under the age of 16 who are going through acute alcohol withdrawal may also require admission. Furthermore, vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties, may also benefit from being admitted for acute alcohol withdrawal. For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper lip, and his hands. He has a confirmed diagnosis of hereditary angioedema.
What is the pattern of inheritance for this disorder?Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Hereditary angioedema is a condition caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that is part of the complement system. It is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Symptoms usually start in childhood and continue sporadically into adulthood. Attacks can be triggered by minor surgical procedures, dental work, and stress. The main clinical signs of hereditary angioedema include swelling of the skin and mucous membranes, with the face, tongue, and extremities being the most commonly affected areas. There is often a tingling sensation before an attack, sometimes accompanied by a non-itchy rash.
Angioedema and anaphylaxis resulting from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency do not respond to adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma, both of which contain C1 esterase inhibitor. In situations that may trigger an attack, short-term prophylaxis can be achieved by administering C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions prior to the event. For long-term prevention, androgenic steroids like stanozolol or antifibrinolytic drugs such as tranexamic acid can be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the mode of action of VX gas in a suspected CBRN incident with a high number of casualties?
Your Answer: Prevention of oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.
The first compounds to be created are referred to as the G agents (with G representing German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).
In the 1950s, the V agents (with V standing for venomous) were synthesized, and they are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).
One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 lost their lives.
The nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female visits the emergency department complaining of abdominal cramps and bloating that are alleviated by defecation. Blood tests and an abdominal X-ray are conducted, all of which come back normal. It is observed that the patient has visited the hospital twice in the past 4 months with similar symptoms and has also consulted her primary care physician regarding these recurring issues. The suspicion is that the patient may be suffering from irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). What diagnostic criteria would be most suitable for diagnosing IBS?
Your Answer: Modified Marsh
Correct Answer: ROME IV
Explanation:The ROME IV criteria are utilized in secondary care to diagnose IBS, as recommended by NICE. The DSM-5 criteria are employed in diagnosing various mental health disorders. Coeliac disease diagnosis involves the use of modified marsh typing. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease diagnosis relies on the Lyon Consensus.
Further Reading:
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.
Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.
Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.
Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of central abdominal pain which has now moved to the right-hand side. His appetite is poor, and he is complaining of nausea. He has a history of chronic constipation and recently had an episode of sudden, unexplained rectal bleeding for which he has been referred to the general surgical outpatient clinic by his GP. His observations are as follows: temperature 38.4°C, HR 112, BP 134/78, RR 18. On examination, he is tender in the right iliac fossa, and his PR examination revealed rectal tenderness.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute diverticulitis
Explanation:Acute diverticulitis occurs when a diverticulum becomes inflamed or perforated. This inflammation can either stay localized, forming a pericolic abscess, or spread and cause peritonitis. The typical symptoms of acute diverticulitis include abdominal pain (most commonly felt in the lower left quadrant), fever/sepsis, tenderness in the left iliac fossa, the presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa, and rectal bleeding. About 90% of cases involve the sigmoid colon, which is why left iliac fossa pain and tenderness are commonly seen.
To diagnose acute diverticulitis, various investigations should be conducted. These include blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, C-reactive protein, and blood cultures. Imaging studies like abdominal X-ray, erect chest X-ray, and possibly an abdominal CT scan may also be necessary.
Complications that can arise from acute diverticulitis include perforation leading to abscess formation or peritonitis, intestinal obstruction, massive rectal bleeding, fistulae, and strictures.
In the emergency department, the treatment for diverticulitis should involve providing suitable pain relief, administering intravenous fluids, prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics (such as intravenous co-amoxiclav), and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking. It is also important to refer the patient to the on-call surgical team for further management.
For more information on diverticular disease, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving in the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 110 bpm, BP is 120/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been 30 ml. She is currently mildly anxious. The patient weighs approximately 65 kg.
How would you classify her haemorrhage according to the ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification?Your Answer: Class II
Explanation:This patient is showing a slightly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate, as well as a slightly reduced urine output. These signs indicate that the patient has experienced a class II haemorrhage at this point. It is important to be able to recognize the degree of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification provides a way to link the amount of blood loss to expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg patient. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five liters, which accounts for about 7% of their total body weight.
The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is summarized as follows:
CLASS I:
– Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
– Pulse rate: Less than 100 bpm
– Systolic BP: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
– Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Slightly anxiousCLASS II:
– Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
– Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
– Systolic BP: Normal
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Mildly anxiousCLASS III:
– Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
– Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
– Systolic BP: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
– CNS/mental status: Anxious, confusedCLASS IV:
– Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
– Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
– Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
– Systolic BP: Decreased
– Pulse pressure: Decreased
– Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
– Urine output: Negligible
– CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 18
Correct
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A 42-year-old male patient with epilepsy complains of feeling down. You observe that he has rough facial features, gum hypertrophy, and noticeable facial acne. Additionally, he exhibits an unsteady gait while walking.
Which ONE anti-epileptic medication is most likely causing his symptoms?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin is a potent anti-epileptic drug that is no longer recommended as the initial treatment for generalized or partial epilepsy due to its toxic effects. Users often experience common symptoms such as ataxia, nystagmus, diplopia, tremor, and dysarthria. Additionally, other side effects may include depression, decreased cognitive abilities, coarse facial features, acne, gum enlargement, polyneuropathy, and blood disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are caring for a 68-year-old patient who has been intubated and placed on a ventilator and is not expected to recover. Consider the facilitation of organ and tissue donation. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: Tissue retrievals can occur up to 7 days after death
Correct Answer: The emergency department doctor is not involved in gaining consent from the next of kin for tissue donation
Explanation:The emergency department doctor does not play a role in obtaining consent from the next of kin for tissue or organ donation. Instead, it is important to involve the Specialist Nurse in Organ Donation (SNOD) as early as possible. The SNOD can provide valuable support and guidance to both the medical team and the family. They will assess the patient’s suitability for organ donation and approach the next of kin for consent, if appropriate. On the other hand, for tissue donation, a referral should be made to the tissue donation national referral centre. Retrievals can take place within 24 hours after death. In the UK, referrals can be made by phone to the tissue donation national referral centre (the contact number can be found in the notes below). It is important to note that the responsibility of gaining consent from the next of kin does not fall on the emergency department doctor.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 20
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with brief episodes of vertigo that are worse in the evening and is triggered by head movement and turning in bed. Each episode lasts only a couple of minutes. He experiences nausea during the attacks but has not vomited. He has no previous history of hearing loss or tinnitus.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Explanation:Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) occurs when there is dysfunction in the inner ear. This dysfunction causes the otoliths, which are located in the utricle, to become dislodged from their normal position and migrate into one of the semicircular canals over time. As a result, these detached otoliths continue to move even after head movement has stopped, leading to vertigo due to the conflicting sensation of ongoing movement with other sensory inputs.
While the majority of BPPV cases have no identifiable cause (idiopathic), approximately 40% of cases can be attributed to factors such as head injury, spontaneous labyrinthine degeneration, post-viral illness, middle ear surgery, or chronic middle ear disease.
The main clinical features of BPPV include symptoms that are provoked by head movement, rolling over, and upward gaze. These episodes are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are often worse in the mornings. Unlike other inner ear disorders, BPPV does not cause hearing loss or tinnitus. Nausea is a common symptom, while vomiting is rare. The Dix-Hallpike test can be used to confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
It is important to note that vestibular suppressant medications have not been proven to be beneficial in managing BPPV. These medications do not improve symptoms or reduce the duration of the disease.
The treatment of choice for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre. This maneuver aims to reposition the dislodged otoliths back into the utricles from the semicircular canals. A 2014 Cochrane review concluded that the Epley manoeuvre is a safe and effective treatment for BPPV, with a number needed to treat of 2-4.
Referral to an ENT specialist is recommended for patients with BPPV in the following situations: if the treating clinician is unable to perform or access the Epley manoeuvre, if the Epley manoeuvre has not been beneficial after repeated attempts (minimum two), if the patient has been symptomatic for more than 4 weeks, or if the patient has experienced more than 3 episodes of BPPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A father brings his 3-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department. They have previously presented 8 times over the past nine months and on each occasion have been discharged. She has previously been investigated for multiple episodes of abdominal pain, and no cause found. Investigations have included routine blood tests, a negative ultrasound for appendicitis, and a negative CT scan. Four weeks ago, she presented with dad being concerned about the possibility of a urinary tract infection but was discharged without treatment, and dad had been reassured. Today she has presented having had several alleged episodes of diarrhea and vomiting at home. She has not been eating or drinking and has been spiking fevers. She appears undistressed and has had no witnessed vomiting episodes in the department. Her observations today are: temperature: 37.0°C, heart rate 110 bpm, SaO2 99% on air, RR 30, capillary refill time <2 seconds.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Somatic symptom disorder
Correct Answer: Meadow syndrome
Explanation:Meadow syndrome, formerly known as Munchausen syndrome by proxy, is the most likely diagnosis in this case. It involves a caregiver intentionally creating the appearance of health problems in another person, usually their own child. This can involve causing harm to the child or manipulating test results to make it seem like the child is sick or injured.
There are several features that support a diagnosis of Meadow syndrome. These include symptoms or signs that only appear when the parent or guardian is present, symptoms that are only observed by the parent or guardian, and symptoms that do not respond to treatment or medication. Additionally, there may be a history of unlikely illnesses, such as a significant amount of blood loss without any change in physiological data. The parent or guardian may also seek multiple clinical opinions despite already receiving a definitive opinion, and they may persistently disagree with the clinical opinion.
Another characteristic of Meadow syndrome is the significant impact it has on the child’s normal activities, such as frequent school absenteeism. The child may also use aids to daily living that are seemingly unnecessary, like a wheelchair. It is important to note that a principal risk factor for this condition is the parent having experienced a negative event or trauma during their own childhood, such as the death of a parent or being a victim of child abuse or neglect.
It is crucial not to confuse Meadow syndrome with Munchausen syndrome, where an individual pretends to be ill or deliberately produces symptoms in themselves. Hypochondriasis is another condition where a person excessively worries about having a serious illness. Somatic symptom disorder, previously known as somatisation disorder, is characterized by an intense focus on physical symptoms that causes significant emotional distress and impairs functioning. Lastly, Ganser syndrome is a rare dissociative disorder that involves giving nonsensical or incorrect answers to questions and experiencing other dissociative symptoms like fugue, amnesia, or conversion disorder, often accompanied by visual pseudohallucinations and a decreased state of consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents having experienced a minor fall while shopping with her husband. He has observed that she has been forgetful for quite some time and that her condition has been gradually deteriorating over the past few years. She frequently forgets the names of people and places and struggles to find words for things. Lately, she has also been experiencing increased confusion. She has no significant medical history of note.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is the leading cause of dementia, accounting for approximately half of all cases. It involves the gradual degeneration of the cerebral cortex, resulting in cortical atrophy, the formation of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques, and a decrease in acetylcholine production from affected neurons. The exact cause of this disease is still not fully understood.
The onset of Alzheimer’s disease is typically slow and subtle, progressing over a span of 7 to 10 years. The symptoms experienced by individuals vary depending on the stage of the disease. In the early stages, family and friends may notice that the patient becomes forgetful, experiencing lapses in memory. They may struggle to recall the names of people and places, as well as have difficulty finding the right words for objects. Recent events and appointments are easily forgotten. As the disease advances, language skills deteriorate, and problems with planning and decision-making arise. The patient may also exhibit apraxia and become more noticeably confused.
In the later stages of Alzheimer’s disease, symptoms become more severe. The patient may wander aimlessly, become disoriented, and display apathy. Psychiatric symptoms, such as depression, are common during this stage. Hallucinations and delusions may also occur. Behavioral issues, including disinhibition, aggression, and agitation, can be distressing for the patient’s family.
Considering the absence of a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, vascular dementia is less likely. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia typically has a more sudden onset and exhibits stepwise increases in symptom severity.
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder closely associated with Parkinson’s disease. It can be distinguished from Alzheimer’s disease by the presence of mild Parkinsonism features, fluctuations in cognition and attention, episodes of transient loss of consciousness, and early occurrence of visual hallucinations and complex delusions.
Frontotemporal dementia is a progressive form of dementia that primarily affects the frontal and/or temporal lobes. It typically occurs at a younger age than Alzheimer’s disease, usually between 40 and 60 years old. Personality changes often precede memory loss in this condition.
Pseudodementia, also known as depression-related cognitive dysfunction, is a condition characterized by a temporary decline in cognitive function alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. While depression is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the Emergency Department with an infection. Upon reviewing her medications, you discover that she is taking furosemide as part of her management.
Which ONE of the following antibiotics should be avoided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:When furosemide and gentamicin are prescribed together, there is a higher chance of experiencing ototoxicity and deafness. It is recommended to avoid co-prescribing these medications. For more information, you can refer to the BNF section on furosemide interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A child presents with a severe acute asthma attack. After a poor response to their initial salbutamol nebulizer, you administer a second nebulizer that also contains ipratropium bromide.
What is the estimated duration of action for ipratropium bromide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-6 hours
Explanation:Ipratropium bromide is a medication that falls under the category of antimuscarinic drugs. It is commonly used to manage acute asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). While it can provide short-term relief for chronic asthma, it is generally recommended to use short-acting β2 agonists as they act more quickly and are preferred.
According to the guidelines set by the British Thoracic Society (BTS), nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) can be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.
For mild cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, aerosol inhalation of ipratropium can be used for short-term relief, as long as the patient is not already using a long-acting antimuscarinic drug like tiotropium. The maximum effect of ipratropium occurs within 30-60 minutes after use, and its bronchodilating effects can last for 3-6 hours. Typically, treatment with ipratropium is recommended three times a day to maintain bronchodilation.
The most common side effect of ipratropium bromide is dry mouth. Other potential side effects include constipation, cough, paroxysmal bronchospasm, headache, nausea, and palpitations. It is important to note that ipratropium can cause urinary retention in patients with prostatic hyperplasia and bladder outflow obstruction. Additionally, it can trigger acute closed-angle glaucoma in susceptible patients.
For more information on the management of asthma, it is recommended to refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 52 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening chest pain associated with shortness of breath and dizziness over the past 24 hours. You note the patient has a long history of smoking and has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On examination you note decreased breath sounds on the left side and dullness to percussion. The patient's observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg
Pulse 92 bpm
Respiration rate 20 bpm
Temperature 37.2ºC
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone
Explanation:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a condition where bacteria infect the fluid in the abdomen, known as ascites. It is commonly seen in patients with ascites. Symptoms of SBP include fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and mental confusion. To diagnose SBP, a procedure called paracentesis is done to analyze the fluid in the abdomen. If the neutrophil count in the fluid is higher than 250 cells/mm³, it confirms the diagnosis of SBP, regardless of whether bacteria are found in the culture. The initial treatment for acute community-acquired SBP is usually a 3rd generation cephalosporin antibiotic like cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. However, hospital-acquired SBP may require different antibiotics based on local resistance patterns. Patients who have had SBP in the past are at a high risk of recurrence and may need long-term antibiotic prophylaxis.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with an inability to close their mouth following an accidental elbow to the jaw. The suspicion is a dislocated temporomandibular joint (TMJ). Typically, in which direction does TMJ dislocation occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior
Explanation:In most cases, TMJ dislocation occurs in an anterior and bilateral manner.
TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.
The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.
Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.
If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.
Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.
Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.
After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 27
Incorrect
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While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur does not radiate, and his pulse character is normal.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis
Explanation:Aortic sclerosis is a condition that occurs when the aortic valve undergoes senile degeneration. Unlike aortic stenosis, it does not result in any obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. To differentiate between aortic stenosis and aortic sclerosis, the following can be used:
Feature: Aortic stenosis
– Symptoms: Can be asymptomatic, but may cause angina, breathlessness, and syncope if severe.
– Pulse: Slow rising, low volume pulse.
– Apex beat: Sustained, heaving apex beat.
– Thrill: Palpable thrill in the aortic area can be felt.
– Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
– Radiation: Radiates to carotids.Feature: Aortic sclerosis
– Symptoms: Always asymptomatic.
– Pulse: Normal pulse character.
– Apex beat: Normal apex beat.
– Thrill: No thrill.
– Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
– Radiation: No radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You plan to administer ketamine to sedate a toddler before suturing. After obtaining consent and ensuring there are no contraindications, what is the recommended initial dosage of ketamine for pediatric sedation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection
Explanation:To achieve sedation in children, it is recommended to administer an initial dose of ketamine at a rate of 1.0 mg/kg through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least one minute. It is important to note that administering the medication too quickly can lead to respiratory depression. In some cases, an additional dose of 0.5 mg/kg may be necessary to maintain the desired level of sedation.
Further Reading:
Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.
Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.
During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.
Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.
Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.
Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old type 2 diabetic visits the emergency department on the weekend complaining of persistent bloody diarrhea and developing a fever over the past three days. During triage, the patient's temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC. The patient mentions seeing their general practitioner on the day the symptoms started, and due to recent travel to the Middle East, a stool sample was sent for testing. Upon reviewing the pathology result, it is found that the stool sample tested positive for campylobacter. The decision is made to prescribe antibiotics. What is the most appropriate choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, when treating a campylobacter infection, clarithromycin is recommended as the first choice of antibiotic. Antibiotics are typically only prescribed for individuals with severe symptoms, such as a high fever, bloody or frequent diarrhea, or for those who have a weakened immune system, like this patient who has diabetes. NICE advises a dosage of clarithromycin 250-500 mg taken twice daily for a duration of 5-7 days. It is best to start treatment within 3 days of the onset of illness.
Further Reading:
Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of gastrointestinal infections, particularly travellers diarrhoea. It is a gram-negative bacterium that appears as curved rods. The infection is transmitted through the feco-oral route, often through the ingestion of contaminated meat, especially poultry. The incubation period for Campylobacter jejuni is typically 1-7 days, and the illness usually lasts for about a week.
The main symptoms of Campylobacter jejuni infection include watery, and sometimes bloody, diarrhea accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, malaise, and headache. In some cases, complications can arise from the infection. Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) is one such complication that is associated with Campylobacter jejuni. Approximately 30% of GBS cases are caused by this bacterium.
When managing Campylobacter jejuni infection, conservative measures are usually sufficient, with a focus on maintaining hydration. However, in cases where symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhea, or high-output diarrhea, or if the person is immunocompromised, antibiotics may be necessary. NICE recommends the use of clarithromycin, administered at a dose of 250-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days, starting within 3 days of the onset of illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female is brought into the emergency department with burns sustained in a house fire. You evaluate the patient for potential inhalation injury and the severity of the burns to the patient's limbs. In terms of the pathophysiology of burns, what is the central component of the burn known as according to the Jackson's Burn wound model?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zone of coagulation
Explanation:Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) has been diagnosed with anaemia of chronic disease.
Which SINGLE statement regarding anaemia of chronic disease is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Total iron binding capacity is usually reduced
Explanation:Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that can occur in various chronic conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, tuberculosis, malignancy, malnutrition, hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, chronic kidney disease, and chronic liver disease. The underlying mechanisms of this type of anaemia are complex and not fully understood, with multiple contributing factors involved. One important mediator in inflammatory diseases like rheumatoid arthritis is interleukin-6 (IL-6). Increased levels of IL-6 lead to the production of hepcidin, a hormone that regulates iron balance. Hepcidin prevents the release of iron from the reticulo-endothelial system and affects other aspects of iron metabolism.
Anaemia of chronic disease typically presents as a normochromic, normocytic anaemia, although it can also be microcytic. It is characterized by reduced serum iron, reduced transferrin saturation, and reduced total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). However, the serum ferritin levels are usually normal or increased. Distinguishing anaemia of chronic disease from iron-deficiency anaemia can be challenging, but in iron-deficiency anaemia, the TIBC is typically elevated, and serum ferritin is usually low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male smoker comes in with a severe episode of chest pain that spreads to his left arm and jaw. The pain lasted for about half an hour before being relieved by GTN spray and aspirin. A troponin test is done 12 hours later, which comes back positive. His ECG at the time of presentation reveals widespread ST depression.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction
Explanation:This patient has developed a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals widespread ST depression, indicating widespread subendocardial ischemia. Additionally, the troponin test results are positive, indicating myocyte necrosis.
The acute coronary syndromes consist of unstable angina, non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
Unstable angina is characterized by one or more of the following: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, angina episodes occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. The ECG may show T-wave/ST-segment changes, similar to this case. Cardiac enzymes are typically normal, and the troponin test is negative in unstable angina.
Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) typically presents with sustained cardiac chest pain lasting more than 20 minutes. The ECG often shows abnormalities in T-waves or ST-segments. Cardiac enzymes are elevated, and the troponin test is positive.
ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) usually presents with typical cardiac chest pain suggestive of an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG reveals ST-segment elevation and the development of Q waves. Cardiac enzymes are elevated, and the troponin test is positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old individual is preparing to board a flight for a business conference and has concerns regarding the potential risk of developing DVT. They would like to inquire about the minimum duration of travel that is considered to pose an elevated risk of DVT during air travel.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 hours
Explanation:The World Health Organisation Research into Global Hazards of Travel (Wright) Project found that the main factor contributing to deep venous thrombosis is being immobile, and the risk of developing a blood clot is higher when traveling for more than 4 hours. According to the Wright Study, the absolute risk of experiencing deep venous thrombosis during flights lasting over 4 hours was found to be one in 4656. For more information on this topic, you can refer to the guidance provided by the Civil Aviation Authority for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 25 year old female is brought into the emergency department during a heat wave after being found collapsed on the ground wearing workout clothes. The patient appears disoriented and is unable to answer questions clearly. Core body temperature is measured as 40.8ºC. You determine to initiate active cooling techniques. What is the desired core body temperature to aim for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 38.5ºC
Explanation:The desired core body temperature when cooling a patient with heat stroke is
Heat Stroke:
– Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
– Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
– Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
– Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
– Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
– Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
– Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
– Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°CHeat Exhaustion:
– Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
– Core temperature elevated but <40°C
– Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
– Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
– Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and restOther Heat-Related Illnesses:
– Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
– Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
– Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydrationRisk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
– Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factorsManagement:
– Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
– Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
– Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
– Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
– Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
– Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with increasing difficulty breathing, a raspy voice, and pain radiating down the inner side of his left upper arm into his forearm and hand. He has a history of heavy smoking and has been diagnosed with COPD. Upon examination, he exhibits weakness and noticeable muscle wasting in his forearm and hand on the same side. Additionally, he has a Horner's syndrome on the affected side. The Chest X-ray image is provided below:
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:This patient presents with a noticeable mass at the top of the right lung, which is clearly visible on the chest X-ray. Based on the symptoms and clinical presentation, it is highly likely that this is a Pancoast tumor, and the overall diagnosis is Pancoast syndrome.
A Pancoast tumor is a type of tumor that develops at the apex of either the right or left lung. It typically spreads to nearby tissues such as the ribs and vertebrae. The majority of Pancoast tumors are classified as non-small cell cancers.
Pancoast syndrome occurs when the tumor invades various structures and tissues around the thoracic inlet. This includes the invasion of the cervical sympathetic plexus on the same side as the tumor, leading to the development of Horner’s syndrome. Additionally, there may be reflex sympathetic dystrophy in the arm on the affected side, resulting in increased sensitivity to touch and changes in the skin.
Patients with Pancoast syndrome may also experience shoulder and arm pain due to the tumor invading the brachial plexus roots C8-T1. This can lead to muscle wasting in the hand and tingling sensations in the inner side of the arm. In some cases, there may be involvement of the unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve, causing unilateral vocal cord paralysis and resulting in a hoarse voice and/or a bovine cough. Phrenic nerve involvement is less common but can also occur.
Horner’s syndrome, which is a key feature of Pancoast syndrome, is caused by compression of the sympathetic chain from the hypothalamus to the orbit. The three main symptoms of Horner’s syndrome are drooping of the eyelid (ptosis), constriction of the pupil (pupillary miosis), and lack of sweating on the forehead (anhydrosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department following a fall. The patient is accompanied by her children who inform you that there have been several falls in recent weeks. These falls tend to happen in the morning when the patient gets out of bed and appear to have worsened since the GP altered the patient's usual medication. You suspect orthostatic hypotension. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure lying and standing blood pressure (BP) with repeated BP measurements while standing for 3 minutes
Explanation:To measure blood pressure while standing, you will need to take repeated measurements for a duration of 3 minutes. This involves measuring both lying and standing blood pressure.
Further Reading:
Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.
When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.
During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.
There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 37
Incorrect
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John is a 68-year-old man with a history of memory impairment and signs of cognitive decline.
Which ONE of the following signs is MOST indicative of a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease rather than vascular dementia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early loss of insight
Explanation:Vascular dementia is not as common as Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for about 20% of dementia cases compared to 50% for Alzheimer’s. Most individuals with vascular dementia have a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and/or hypertension.
There are notable differences in how these two diseases present themselves. Vascular dementia often has a sudden onset, while Alzheimer’s disease has a slower onset. The progression of vascular dementia tends to be stepwise, with periods of stability followed by sudden declines, whereas Alzheimer’s disease has a more gradual decline. The course of vascular dementia can also fluctuate, while Alzheimer’s disease shows a steady decline over time.
In terms of personality and insight, individuals with vascular dementia tend to have relatively preserved personality and insight in the early stages, whereas those with Alzheimer’s disease may experience early changes and loss in these areas. Gait is also affected differently, with individuals with vascular dementia taking small steps (known as marche a petit pas), while those with Alzheimer’s disease have a normal gait.
Sleep disturbance is less common in vascular dementia compared to Alzheimer’s disease, which commonly presents with sleep disturbances. Focal neurological signs, such as sensory and motor deficits and pseudobulbar palsy, are more common in vascular dementia, while they are uncommon in Alzheimer’s disease.
To differentiate between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia, the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can be used. This scale assigns scores based on various features, such as abrupt onset, stepwise deterioration, fluctuating course, nocturnal confusion, preservation of personality, depression, somatic complaints, emotional incontinence, history of hypertension, history of strokes, evidence of associated atherosclerosis, focal neurological symptoms, and focal neurological signs. A score of 2 or greater suggests vascular dementia.
Overall, understanding the differences in presentation and using tools like the modified Hachinski ischemia scale can help in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents having ingested an overdose of an unknown substance. He is drowsy and slurring his speech. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 116 beats per minute, blood pressure 91/57 mmHg, oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Glasgow Coma Scale score is 11 out of 15. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air are as follows:
pH: 7.24
pO2: 9.4 kPa
PCO2: 3.3 kPa
HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
Na+: 143 mmol/l
Cl–: 99 mmol/l
Lactate: 5 IU/l
Which SINGLE statement regarding this patient is true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her anion gap is elevated
Explanation:Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is essential for evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. The normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analyzers, but generally, they fall within the following ranges:
pH: 7.35 – 7.45
pO2: 10 – 14 kPa
PCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPa
HCO3-: 22 – 26 mmol/l
Base excess: -2 – 2 mmol/lIn this particular case, the patient’s history indicates an overdose. However, there is no immediate need for intubation as her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 11/15, and she can speak, albeit with slurred speech, indicating that she can maintain her own airway.
The relevant ABG findings are as follows:
– Mild hypoxia
– Decreased pH (acidaemia)
– Low PCO2
– Normal bicarbonate
– Elevated lactateThe anion gap is a measure of the concentration of unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is calculated by subtracting the primary measured cations from the primary measured anions in the serum. The reference range for anion gap varies depending on the methodology used, but it is typically between 8 to 16 mmol/L.
In this case, the patient’s anion gap can be calculated using the formula:
Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]
Using the given values:
Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]
Anion gap = 22Therefore, it is evident that she has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. It is likely a type A lactic acidosis resulting from tissue hypoxia and hypoperfusion. Some potential causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:
Type A lactic acidosis:
– Shock (including septic shock)
– Left ventricular failure
– Severe anemia
– Asphyxia
– Cardiac arrest
– Carbon monoxide poisoning
– Respiratory failure
– Severe asthma and COPD
– Regional hypoperfusionType B lactic acidosis:
– Renal failure
– Liver failure
– Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
– Thiamine deficiency
– Al -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman develops an irritating rash after a recent viral infection. The rash is characterized by multiple wheals of varying sizes on her skin, surrounded by redness. It is extremely itchy and accompanied by a slight burning sensation. The rash lasts for a few hours but is now nearly gone. She has a history of mild asthma but no other significant medical conditions.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urticaria
Explanation:Urticaria is a condition characterized by a raised, itchy rash on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be localized or widespread and affects about 15% of people at some point in their lives. There are two forms of urticaria: acute and chronic, with the acute form being more common.
In about 50% of cases of acute urticaria, a specific trigger can be identified. Common triggers include allergies (such as foods, bites, stings, and drugs), skin contact with irritants (like chemicals, nettles, and latex), physical stimuli (such as firm rubbing, pressure, and extremes of temperature), and viral infections.
The main skin lesion seen in urticaria is called a wheal or wheel. Wheals typically have three characteristics: a central swelling that can be red or white in color, surrounded by a red area (known as the flare), and they are usually very itchy, sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Wheals are temporary and usually disappear within 1 to 24 hours, returning the skin to its normal appearance.
Wheals can vary in size, ranging from a few millimeters to lesions as large as 10 cm in diameter. They can appear as single lesions or multiple ones, and sometimes they merge together to form large patches. In some cases, urticaria can also cause swelling of the soft tissues in the eyelids, lips, and tongue, known as angioedema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes in with a painful throat and a dry cough that has been bothering her for two days. During the examination, she does not have a fever and has a few tender lymph nodes in the front of her neck. Her throat and tonsils look red and inflamed, but there is no pus on her tonsils.
What is her FeverPAIN score?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system that is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, different recommendations are given regarding the use of antibiotics.
If the score is 0-1, it is unlikely to be a streptococcal infection, with only a 13-18% chance of streptococcus isolation. Therefore, antibiotics are not recommended in this case. If the score is 2-3, there is a higher chance (34-40%) of streptococcus isolation, so delayed prescribing of antibiotics is considered, with a 3-day ‘back-up prescription’. If the score is 4 or higher, there is a 62-65% chance of streptococcus isolation, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended if the infection is severe. Otherwise, a 48-hour short back-up prescription is suggested.
The Fever PAIN score was developed from a study that included 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was then tested in a trial that compared three different prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, and combining the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in antibiotic prescribing, both by one third. However, the addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.
Overall, the FeverPAIN score is a useful tool for assessing acute sore throats and guiding antibiotic prescribing decisions. It has been shown to be effective in reducing unnecessary antibiotic use and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after falling at the park. She has a bruise and a small scrape on her right knee and is walking with a slight limp, but she can put weight on her leg. Her pain is evaluated using a numerical rating scale, and the triage nurse informs you that she has 'mild discomfort'.
According to the RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended for managing mild discomfort in a child of this age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen 10 mg/kg
Explanation:A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.
To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.
The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.
To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant is referred by the community pediatrician following a well-child visit with a rash. After an assessment by the dermatology team and subsequent investigations, the infant is discovered to have a localized skin infection. The underlying cause is thought to be bacterial in nature.
Which of the following is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:Neonatal jaundice is a complex subject, and it is crucial for candidates to have knowledge about the different causes, presentations, and management of conditions that lead to jaundice in newborns. Neonatal jaundice can be divided into two groups: unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which can be either physiological or pathological, and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is always pathological.
The causes of neonatal jaundice can be categorized as follows:
Haemolytic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
– Intrinsic causes of haemolysis include hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency, sickle-cell disease, and pyruvate kinase deficiency.
– Extrinsic causes of haemolysis include haemolytic disease of the newborn and Rhesus disease.Non-haemolytic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
– Breastmilk jaundice, cephalhaematoma, polycythemia, infection (particularly urinary tract infections), Gilbert syndrome.Hepatic conjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
– Hepatitis A and B, TORCH infections, galactosaemia, alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, drugs.Post-hepatic conjugated hyperbilirubinemia:
– Biliary atresia, bile duct obstruction, choledochal cysts.By understanding these different categories and their respective examples, candidates will be better equipped to handle neonatal jaundice cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant is brought in by his parents following a brief episode where it seemed that the baby looked very pale and had ceased breathing. The infant is evaluated by the pediatric registrar, who determines that a 'BRUE' has occurred. After a comprehensive examination, the pediatric team decides to release the child as he is considered 'low-risk'.
Which of the following tests should be considered before discharge?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pertussis swab
Explanation:The term Apparent Life-Threatening Event (ALTE) has traditionally been used to describe a specific type of event. However, in 2016, the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended replacing this term with a new one called Brief Resolved Unexplained Event (BRUE).
An ALTE is defined as an episode that is frightening to the observer and is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as apnoea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pallid but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), significant change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. In some cases, the observer may even fear that the infant has died.
On the other hand, BRUE has stricter criteria and is only applicable to episodes that occur in infants under 12 months old. A BRUE is considered brief, typically lasting 2-30 seconds but no longer than 1 minute. It must also have resolved, meaning the infant has returned to their baseline state. Additionally, it should not be explained by any identifiable medical condition and must be characterized by at least one of the following: cyanosis or pallor, absent, decreased, or irregular breathing, marked change in muscle tone (hyper- or hypotonia), or altered level of responsiveness.
To diagnose a BRUE, a full history and physical examination of the infant must be conducted, and if no explanation for the event is found, it can be classified as a BRUE. Once a BRUE is diagnosed, it can be risk-stratified to guide further management.
A BRUE is considered low risk if the infant has fully recovered, there are no concerning history or physical examination findings, and the following criteria are met: the infant is over 60 days old, born after 32 weeks gestation with a corrected gestational age over 45 weeks, no CPR was performed by a trained healthcare professional, and this was the first event that lasted less than 1 minute.
Low-risk infants can be safely discharged with early outpatient follow-up within 24 hours. However, it is important to involve the parents/caregivers in the decision-making process. They should be informed that a low-risk BRUE is unlikely to indicate a severe underlying disorder and that the event is unlikely to happen again.
Before discharge, it may be advisable to perform an ECG, observe the infant for a brief period, and conduct a pertussis swab
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
Which of the following is NOT currently a reportable illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV
Explanation:HIV is currently not considered a notifiable disease. The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations require the reporting of certain diseases, but HIV is not included in this list. The diseases that are currently considered notifiable include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever. If you want to learn more about notifiable diseases and the organisms that cause them, you can refer to the Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report resource.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 47 year old female comes to the emergency department with a 4 day history of pain on the left side of her torso. The patient describes the pain as burning and noticed a rash develop in the painful area a few days ago. Upon examination, you observe blotchy erythema with clustered vesicles on the left side of her torso, extending from the left side of her back to the midline in the distribution of the T10 dermatome.
What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster
Explanation:Shingles, also known as herpes zoster, occurs when the varicella zoster virus becomes active again in a specific area of the skin. This results in a rash characterized by clusters of fluid-filled blisters or vesicles on a red base. Over time, these blisters will dry up and form crusts before eventually healing.
Further Reading:
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.
Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.
Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.
Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.
Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in a neighbor's backyard. It is suspected that the patient had consumed alcohol at a nearby bar and opted to walk home in the snowy conditions. The patient's temperature is documented as 27.8ºC. The nurse connects leads to conduct a 12-lead ECG. Which of the subsequent ECG alterations is most closely linked to hypothermia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osborne Waves (J waves)
Explanation:Hypothermia can cause various changes in an electrocardiogram (ECG). These changes include a slower heart rate (bradycardia), the presence of Osborn waves (also known as J waves), a prolonged PR interval, a widened QRS complex, and a prolonged QT interval. Additionally, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics (abnormal heartbeats originating from the ventricles), and even cardiac arrest (ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, or asystole) may occur.
Further Reading:
Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.
ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.
Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.
Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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You are managing a hypoxic infant in the resuscitation bay. One of the possible diagnoses is methaemoglobinaemia. Can you explain the pathophysiology of methaemoglobinaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased levels of haemoglobin which has been oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+
Explanation:Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of haemoglobin with iron in the ferric (Fe3+) state. This occurs when haemoglobin is oxidized from Fe2+ to Fe3+. Normally, NADH methaemoglobin reductase, also known as Cytochrome b5 reductase, regulates this process by transferring electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. However, if there is a congenital or acquired dysfunction in the NADH methaemoglobin reductase enzyme system, it can lead to elevated levels of haemoglobin with iron in the Fe3+ state. Unfortunately, Fe3+ is unable to bind to haemoglobin.
Further Reading:
Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.
Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.
Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.
Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.
Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening shortness of breath. You observe moderate mitral stenosis on the patient's most recent echocardiogram 10 months ago.
What is a typical finding in individuals with mitral stenosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loud 1st heart sound
Explanation:Mitral stenosis is a condition characterized by a narrowing of the mitral valve in the heart. One of the key features of this condition is a loud first heart sound, which is often described as having an opening snap. This sound is typically heard during mid-late diastole and is best heard during expiration. Other signs of mitral stenosis include a low volume pulse, a flushed appearance of the cheeks (known as malar flush), and the presence of atrial fibrillation. Additionally, patients with mitral stenosis may exhibit signs of pulmonary edema, such as crepitations (crackling sounds) in the lungs and the production of white or pink frothy sputum. It is important to note that a water hammer pulse is associated with a different condition called aortic regurgitation.
Further Reading:
Mitral Stenosis:
– Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
– Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
– Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
– Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valveMitral Regurgitation:
– Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
– Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
– Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
– Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
– Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A child who was diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis ten days ago presents with persistent symptoms of painful, red eyes. During their previous visit, they were reassured and given advice on general measures, but no antibiotics were prescribed. The symptoms have now worsened, and the eye is extremely sticky and crusted.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send swabs for viral PCR and bacterial culture and prescribe empirical topical antibiotics
Explanation:When it comes to managing viral conjunctivitis, it’s important to reassure the patient that most cases are self-limiting and don’t require antimicrobial treatment. In fact, viral conjunctivitis usually resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, there are some self-care measures that can help ease symptoms. These include cleaning the eyelids with cotton wool soaked in sterile saline or boiled and cooled water, applying cool compresses around the eye area, and using lubricating drops or artificial tears. It’s also important to avoid prescribing antibiotics if possible.
It’s crucial to inform the person that infective conjunctivitis is contagious and they should take steps to prevent spreading the infection to their other eye and other people. This includes washing hands frequently with soap and water, using separate towels and flannels, and avoiding close contact with others, especially if they are a healthcare professional or child-care provider. It’s worth noting that the infection can be contagious for up to 14 days from onset.
According to Public Health England, there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders unless there is an outbreak or cluster of cases. It’s important to provide written information to the patient, explain the red flags for an urgent review, and advise them to seek further help if symptoms persist beyond 7 days. If the person returns with symptoms of conjunctivitis, it may be necessary to consider sending swabs for viral PCR and bacterial culture, as well as prescribing empirical topical antibiotics if they haven’t already been prescribed. If symptoms persist for more than 7-10 days after initiating treatment, it may be necessary to discuss with or refer to ophthalmology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has been experiencing a worsening of his arthritis symptoms lately. His knees have been especially painful, and he has been using a hot water bottle in the evenings for relief. Upon examination, you observe pigmented areas with some redness on both of his knees.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema ab igne
Explanation:Erythema ab igne is a condition that is frequently observed in older individuals. It typically occurs when they spend extended periods of time near a fire or utilize a hot water bottle in an attempt to relieve pain symptoms. This condition arises due to the harmful effects of heat on the skin, resulting in the appearance of reddened and pigmented areas. Fortunately, erythema ab igne tends to resolve on its own without any specific treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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