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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old male patient with a 35 pack-year smoking history visits his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient with a 35 pack-year smoking history visits his GP complaining of constant daytime sleepiness, which is affecting his ability to work. Upon examination, he measures 178 cm in height, weighs 118 kg, and has a neck circumference of 42 cm. Following sleep studies, he is diagnosed with moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) due to hypnoea/apnoea episodes. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle changes (weight loss, alcohol and smoking cessation)

      Correct Answer: Overnight continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Obstructive Sleep Apnea

      Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep, leading to daytime sleepiness and other symptoms. The treatment of choice for moderate-severe OSA is overnight continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP), which has been shown to be effective in reducing symptoms. However, lifestyle changes such as weight loss and alcohol and smoking cessation should also be implemented as first-line treatment. Long-term oxygen therapy may be used as an adjunct to CPAP or in cases where CPAP is not feasible, but should not be offered as a first-line option. Hypnotics such as amitriptyline and nocturnal lorazepam should be avoided as they can worsen OSA. Intra-oral devices may be useful for mild OSA and snoring, but not for daytime sleepiness associated with moderate-severe disease. Modafinil has shown some benefits when used with CPAP, but not as an alternative. Overall, a combination of CPAP and lifestyle changes is the most effective approach to managing OSA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man with a 40 pack/year history comes to the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a 40 pack/year history comes to the clinic complaining of cough and haemoptysis. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals a cavitating mass in the right hilar region. Further tests, including bronchoscopy and biopsy, confirm the diagnosis of bronchial carcinoma. Additionally, the patient's calcium levels are found to be 3.89, and the parathyroid hormone related peptide (PTHrH) is elevated. Based on these findings, what is the most probable histological diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Carcinomas and their Associated Symptoms

      Squamous cell carcinomas are a type of cancer that typically develops in the upper respiratory tract, with 60% to 80% of cases occurring in the proximal portions of the tracheobronchial tree. These carcinomas are often characterized by extensive necrosis, which can lead to the formation of cavities. One common symptom associated with squamous cell carcinomas is hypercalcemia, which is an elevated level of calcium in the blood. Additionally, these carcinomas are often associated with increased levels of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrH).

      On the other hand, small cell carcinomas may also be associated with hypercalcemia, but they are not typically associated with increased levels of PTHrH. It is important to note that the symptoms and characteristics of different types of carcinomas can vary widely, and a proper diagnosis and treatment plan should be developed in consultation with a medical professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department with pleuritic left-sided chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department with pleuritic left-sided chest pain. He is a current smoker of 10 cigarettes/day. He reports feeling sick for the past 2 weeks with a cough and fever. The chest pain started gradually over the last 3 days and has been slowly worsening. A chest x-ray reveals left-sided consolidation and an effusion. The patient is started on penicillin antibiotics. A pleural aspirate is performed under ultrasound guidance, which shows a simple effusion with the following results:

      Appearance: Serous
      pH: 7.25
      Protein: 50 g/l
      LDH: 420 IU/l
      Glucose: 3.5 mmol/l
      Gram stain: No organisms or malignant cells seen
      Culture: No growth

      What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue antibiotics and observe

      Explanation:

      The patient shows signs of pneumonia and has a confirmed exudate in the unilateral effusion, which is likely a parapneumonic effusion. At present, there is no need for a chest drain unless the fluid is purulent, has a pH<7.2, or shows organisms on Gram stain or culture. The patient will continue with antibiotics and be monitored. If there is no improvement, further pleural sampling will be necessary. If there is no clear indication of an infectious cause, a CT thorax with contrast will be performed to check for underlying malignancy. Bronchoscopy is only considered if there is suspicion of bronchial obstruction. Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends performing a posterioranterior (PA) chest x-ray and an ultrasound to increase the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and detect pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is also increasingly used to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions. Pleural aspiration should be performed using a 21G needle and 50ml syringe, and the fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can be used to distinguish between a transudate and an exudate, and other characteristic pleural fluid findings can help identify the underlying cause. In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should also be placed. For patients with recurrent pleural effusions, options for management include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as dyspnea. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines for investigation and management of pleural effusion to ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old Nepalese woman who recently moved to the United Kingdom presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old Nepalese woman who recently moved to the United Kingdom presents to her GP with a known multinodular goitre that has been untreated. Her daughter, who acts as a translator, reports that her mother has been experiencing a sensation of tightness in her neck, as if she is being strangled. This sensation is worse in the mornings and her daughter has noticed that her mother's face appears puffy. The patient denies any weight loss, fevers, or night sweats. On examination, a large multinodular goitre is observed, measuring 15-20 cm in width and occupying a significant portion of the neck. Although there is no audible stridor, several neck veins are visible. When asked to stretch her hands up high, the patient complains of worsening tightness. Chest sounds are quiet and clear, but dull percussion is noted under the top third of the sternum. Laboratory results reveal a TSH of 0.07 mU/L (normal range 0.05-5.0), T4 of 10 pmol/L (normal range 9-50), and T3 of 4.0 pmol/L (normal range 3.5-7.8). D-dimer is 0.15 (normal range 0-0.25), and a chest x-ray shows a widened mediastinum with no focal lung lesion. What is the likely cause of the patient's new symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multinodular goitre

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava obstruction can be caused by an enlarged goitre, which is a rare occurrence. The patient’s symptoms, particularly the worsening when lifting her hands up, indicate a positive Pemberton’s test. The next step is to determine the underlying cause. While lung carcinoma is a possibility, the patient’s non-smoking status and lack of cough or weight loss make it less likely. Thoracic artery aneurysm would typically present with a widened mediastinum and may be associated with connective tissue disease or uncontrolled hypertension. Lymphoma causing SVC obstruction would typically show mediastinal lymphadenopathy on chest x-ray. SVC thrombus is unlikely given the negative D-dimer result.

      Understanding Superior Vena Cava Obstruction

      Superior vena cava obstruction is a medical emergency that occurs when the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, is compressed. This condition is commonly associated with lung cancer, but it can also be caused by other malignancies, aortic aneurysm, mediastinal fibrosis, goitre, and SVC thrombosis. The most common symptom of SVC obstruction is dyspnoea, but patients may also experience swelling of the face, neck, and arms, headache, visual disturbance, and pulseless jugular venous distension.

      The management of SVC obstruction depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s individual circumstances. Endovascular stenting is often the preferred treatment to relieve symptoms, but certain malignancies may require radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy instead. Glucocorticoids may also be given, although the evidence supporting their use is weak. It is important to seek advice from an oncology team to determine the best course of action for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man presents to the respiratory ward with acute chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the respiratory ward with acute chest pain and difficulty breathing. He has no significant medical history. Upon examination, there is decreased air entry in the left lung and hyper-resonance upon percussion. A chest x-ray confirms the suspected diagnosis, and he undergoes pleural aspiration and is observed for 24 hours.

      During his hospital stay, the patient's symptoms resolve, and his vital signs return to normal. A follow-up chest x-ray shows no abnormalities, and he is deemed medically fit for discharge. However, the patient mentions that he has a trip planned to Brazil in two days and asks if it is safe to travel.

      What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Able to fly in 1 week

      Explanation:

      If a chest x-ray shows resolution, patients with pneumothorax can fly 1 week after treatment according to current guidance from the British thoracic society. This patient’s clinical history, examination, and investigation findings suggest a spontaneous, primary pneumothorax, which may require needle aspiration if large enough. Pleurodesis is not necessary for this patient as their chest x-ray shows resolution. Patients with traumatic pneumothorax should wait 2 weeks after chest x-ray confirmation of resolution before flying. Previous guidelines recommended waiting 6 weeks before air travel, but this has since been updated to 1 week.

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl with stable cystic fibrosis presents to the Emergency Department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl with stable cystic fibrosis presents to the Emergency Department with a cough productive of purulent sputum tinged with blood, and significantly worse shortness of breath over the past 48 hrs. Her CF is currently well managed and she is Pseudomonas negative. On examination she is pyrexial 38.1°C, BP is 95/55 mmHg; heart rate is 85/min and regular, respiratory rate is 32. There are coarse crackles at the right base, and you also notice a couple of cold sores at the corner of her mouth. O2 saturation on air is 92%. Her BMI is 23.

      Investigations;
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 13.4 × 109/l (neutrophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 189 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Urea 8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 5.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 U/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 U/l 30–130 IU/l
      Albumin 37 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Chest X-ray Right lower lobe consolidation

      Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Community-Acquired Pneumonia in a Patient with Cystic Fibrosis

      Patients with cystic fibrosis are at a higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia. In this case, the patient’s short history, lobar consolidation, and evidence of herpes simplex suggest a possible Streptococcus pneumoniae infection. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention with respect to antibiotics is Oral Clarithromycin and IV Co-amoxiclav.

      It is important to note that Nebulised Tobramycin is not the correct option in this case, as it is typically used for chronic Pseudomonas colonisation. IV Ciprofloxacin and IV Gentamicin are also not the first-line options for community-acquired pneumonia, as they are more commonly used for Pseudomonas infection. Oral Azithromycin is not recommended for this patient either, as it is typically given for 6 months in patients colonised with Pseudomonas.

      Overall, the patient’s past medical history, examination, and investigations suggest that she is maintaining relatively good nutritional status with respect to her cystic fibrosis. Therefore, Oral Clarithromycin and IV Co-amoxiclav are the most appropriate antibiotics for treating her community-acquired pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 7 - An 77-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and...

    Incorrect

    • An 77-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and severe COPD presented with lower abdominal pain. A CT scan revealed diverticular disease of the colon and incidentally discovered a 2.5 cm mass in the periphery of the lower lobe of the left lung. A PET scan showed the lung lesion with a highly suspicious SUV of 12.5, indicating possible cancer. Biopsy confirmed squamous cell carcinoma, and his ECOG performance status was 2. His lung function tests showed severe impairment. What treatment option would be appropriate for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radical radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      For patients with stage IB lung cancer, surgery is the most effective treatment option if their lung function and performance status are suitable. However, if a patient has poor lung function but is otherwise a good candidate for radical radiotherapy, they should still be offered this treatment as long as the volume of irradiated lung is small, according to NICE guidelines.

      For patients who are not suitable for surgery and have a peripheral tumor, the preferred treatment option is Stereotactic Ablative Radiotherapy (SABR) at a biologically equivalent dose of >100Gy, as recommended by the European Society for Medical Oncology (ESMO) guidelines-2014.

      A systematic review comparing outcomes of SABR and surgery in patients with severe COPD found that surgery had a higher 30-day mortality rate, but both treatments had similar overall survival rates at 1 and 3 years.

      The NCCN guidelines-2015 for non-small cell lung cancer recommend SABR as an appropriate option for patients with a high surgical risk. Both SABR and sublobar resection achieve comparable cancer-specific survival and primary tumor control.

      Managing Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer

      Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) is a type of lung cancer that accounts for about 85% of all lung cancer cases. Unfortunately, only 20% of NSCLC patients are suitable for surgery. Before surgery, a mediastinoscopy is performed to check for mediastinal lymph node involvement as CT scans do not always show this. Curative or palliative radiotherapy is an option for those who are not suitable for surgery. However, NSCLC has a poor response to chemotherapy.

      There are several contraindications for surgery, including the patient’s general health, the stage of the cancer, FEV1 (a measure of lung function), malignant pleural effusion, tumour location, vocal cord paralysis, and SVC obstruction. If FEV1 is less than 1.5 litres for lobectomy or less than 2.0 for pneumonectomy, further lung function tests may be necessary to determine if surgery is possible. Despite the challenges, managing NSCLC requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual circumstances to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old Caucasian male presents with a two-day history of epigastric pain accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old Caucasian male presents with a two-day history of epigastric pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. He was admitted under the surgical team for management of acute pancreatitis due to an elevated serum amylase level. The surgical team has requested a medical consult as the patient reports a worsening productive cough.

      During your assessment, the patient reports that this is his third presentation with acute pancreatitis. He does not consume alcohol, and an ultrasound of the abdomen did not reveal any gallstones. The cough has been present for several months, initially dry but now productive of green sputum with no haemoptysis. He denies fever, chills, chest pain, and dyspnoea. Three weeks ago, he received a course of oral antibiotics from his General Practitioner after presenting with nasal congestion and mild facial pain. He states having had multiple courses of antibiotics in the past for similar presentations.

      There is no significant past medical history or family history.

      The patient takes no regular medications and has been receiving simple analgesia and intravenous crystalloid fluids under the surgical team's care. He is a lifelong non-smoker and works full time in administration.

      On examination, the patient's height was 178cm with a weight of 58kg, heart rate 90/minute, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, temperature 37.2ºC, respiratory rate 16/min, and oxygen saturation 94% on room air. Respiratory examination revealed early clubbing, no cervical lymphadenopathy, a central trachea, normal chest expansion, mild coarse inspiratory crepitations that improved somewhat after coughing at both posterior bases. Abdominal examination revealed mild epigastric tenderness but no signs of peritonism. Remaining clinical examination was unremarkable.

      Lab results showed Hb 130 g/l, Na+ 136 mmol/l, Platelets 400 * 109/l, K+ 4 mmol/l, WBC 12 * 109/l, Urea 6 mmol/l, Neuts 10 * 109/l, Creatinine 65 µmol/l, Lymphs 1 * 109/l, and CRP 30 mg/l. Chest x-ray was normal.

      Sputum microscopy and culture results revealed Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftazidime and nebulised tobramycin for 14 days

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that some patients with cystic fibrosis (CF) may not be diagnosed until they are over 18 years old. With improved diagnosis and treatment, the median age of survival for CF patients has increased to around 40 years, which means that healthcare professionals may encounter adult patients with CF during their clinical practice.

      Patients who were born before neonatal screening became widely available may present with CF in adulthood. These patients may have a milder form of the disease and may not have received medical attention earlier in life. As a result, they may present with other CF complications, such as pancreatitis, sinusitis, intestinal obstruction, or male infertility.

      Chronic infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a major concern for CF patients, as it can lead to a more rapid loss of lung function, frequent pulmonary exacerbations, and a shorter median survival. Once chronic infection has been established, it is difficult to eradicate Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Therefore, it is important to try to eradicate the organism as soon as it is first isolated, which requires aggressive treatment. In the case of a new diagnosis of CF, it should be assumed that any sputum isolate of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is new.

      There is no consensus on the best antimicrobial strategy for eradicating Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Options include a 14-day course of intravenous anti-pseudomonal antibiotics plus inhaled aminoglycoside or a prolonged course of oral Ciprofloxacin (e.g., 6 weeks).

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman from New York with no significant medical history is on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman from New York with no significant medical history is on a backpacking trip in Nepal. She is a non-smoker. After trekking above 4000 m, she complains of a headache, nausea, and vomiting. She also feels fatigued and has trouble sleeping. As the expedition medic, you note her respiratory rate is 20/min and her pulse is 95/min. Her chest is clear on auscultation. No investigations are available as the nearest hospital is over 50 km away.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute mountain sickness

      Explanation:

      Altitude Sickness: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Altitude sickness is a condition that can occur when a person ascends to high altitudes too quickly. There are three types of altitude illness: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high-altitude cerebral oedema (HACE), and high-altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE). AMS is the most common and is characterized by non-specific symptoms such as headache, gastrointestinal issues, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, and difficulty sleeping. Diagnosis can be made using the criteria named in ‘The Lake Louise Score’. If left untreated, AMS can progress to HACE, which is characterized by ataxia and drowsiness. Treatment for altitude sickness is immediate descent, oxygen, and intravenous dexamethasone. Acetazolamide may be used for prevention and treatment of AMS. It is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that causes intracellular acidosis and has a diuretic effect. Migraine, exhaustion, hangover, and hypothermia are possible differential diagnoses, but they are less likely in the context of altitude sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old woman with a history of recurrent hospital admissions for asthma exacerbations...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with a history of recurrent hospital admissions for asthma exacerbations presents to the Emergency department at 8 am with increasing breathlessness. On examination, she appears dyspnoeic and wheezy, with a respiratory rate of 27 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 118 bpm (sinus tachycardia), and a PEFR of 34%. An arterial blood gas is obtained, with the following results: pH 7.52 (7.36-7.44), pO2 8.64 kPa (11.3-12.6), and pCO2 3.1 kPa (4.7-6.0). Based on this information, what is the severity of the patient's exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute severe exacerbation

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Acute Severe Exacerbation of Asthma

      An acute severe exacerbation of asthma can be diagnosed based on certain criteria. These include a peak expiratory flow (PEF) of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate of 25 or more breaths per minute, a heart rate of 110 or more beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      These criteria are used to identify patients who are experiencing a severe asthma attack and require immediate medical attention. It is important to note that these criteria are not the only indicators of an acute severe exacerbation of asthma, and other symptoms such as chest tightness, wheezing, and coughing may also be present.

      Prompt recognition and treatment of an acute severe exacerbation of asthma is crucial to prevent further complications and improve outcomes. Treatment may include the use of bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and oxygen therapy. In some cases, hospitalization may be necessary for close monitoring and more intensive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old active smoker with a 35 pack year history presents with his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old active smoker with a 35 pack year history presents with his second non-infective exacerbation of COPD in 3 months. He was diagnosed with COPD three years ago and had been relatively well controlled using salbutamol as required prior to these two admissions. Three days after his admission, he reports that he is close to his baseline and would like to go home. His repeat pulmonary function tests reveal a forced expiratory volume in 1 second of 48%.

      On reviewing his peak flow diary you note a significant (> 20%) diurnal variation in his peak flow.

      What would be the most effective approach to optimize his COPD management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add salmeterol and fluticasone combination inhaler

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and exhibits features of asthma/steroid responsiveness, the recommended course of action is to add a LABA + ICS. Since there is significant diurnal variation in this patient’s symptoms, a long-acting beta agonist such as salmeterol, along with an inhaled corticosteroid, is the next step in management. It is now recommended by NICE to use combined inhalers whenever possible.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 12 - An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He reports noticing swelling in his left leg a week ago but did not seek medical attention. He has a history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide. He has never smoked. On examination, he is dyspnoeic at rest with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, pulse of 110 beats per minute, and oxygen saturations of 86% on room air. A loud second heart sound is heard over the right second intercostal space. Arterial blood gas analysis on air shows a pH of 7.35, PaO2 of 7.0 kPa, PaCO2 of 3.8 kPa, and standard HCO3 of 24 mmol/L. A CT pulmonary angiogram reveals a large saddle embolism in the pulmonary trunk. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent thrombolysis

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Submassive Pulmonary Embolism

      In cases of submassive pulmonary embolism accompanied by shock, the recommended treatment is thrombolysis and oxygen therapy. Thrombolysis is particularly indicated when the patient is experiencing hypotension, acidosis, or other signs of shock. However, it is important to note that thrombolysis can be risky for elderly patients, with mortality rates of up to 5% reported in some studies.

      It is important to avoid certain treatment options in cases of submassive pulmonary embolism. Endarterectomy should never be performed in the acute setting, and an IVC filter is not an appropriate management strategy. Additionally, unfractionated heparin is not more effective than LMW heparin and is associated with a higher risk of hemorrhage. Overall, the best course of action for submassive pulmonary embolism is thrombolysis and oxygen therapy, with careful consideration of the patient’s age and other risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old man presents to the Medical Admissions unit with a two-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the Medical Admissions unit with a two-week history of a productive cough. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient reports that he developed a cough productive of green sputum shortly after returning from a business trip to the United States. He also complains of persistent retrosternal pain for the last ten days. Despite completing a course of doxycycline prescribed by his GP, he has experienced little symptomatic benefit.

      Routine blood tests are ordered, and the patient provides a sputum sample for culture. Provisional results indicate the presence of fungal spores, with full speciation awaited. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Itraconazole

      Explanation:

      Itraconazole is the preferred medication for treating histoplasmosis. The patient’s symptoms, including retrosternal pain and respiratory tract infection, along with recent travel to an area where Histoplasma capsulatum is endemic, suggest a likely diagnosis of histoplasmosis. The presence of fungal spores in sputum culture further supports this diagnosis. Co-trimoxazole is not the appropriate treatment for histoplasmosis, as it is typically used for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP). Co-trimoxazole + prednisolone and dapsone are also not appropriate treatments for histoplasmosis.

      Understanding Histoplasmosis

      Histoplasmosis is a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. This infection is commonly found in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys. The symptoms of histoplasmosis include upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and retrosternal pain.

      To manage histoplasmosis, pharmacological agents such as amphotericin or itraconazole are used. These agents are considered the best options for treating this infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man presents with a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath on exertion that has been ongoing for five months. After undergoing extensive investigations, he is diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. His blood work shows a hemoglobin level of 141 g/l, platelets of 255 * 109/l, WBC of 5.2 * 109/l, and an ESR of 32 mm/h. His lung function tests reveal a forced vital capacity (FVC) of 65% of predicted. On examination, he has finger clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crepitations on chest auscultation. He has a past medical history of smoking for ten years between the ages of 20 and 30. Despite being enrolled in a pulmonary rehabilitation program, he is interested in trying a pharmacological therapy. What drug should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pirfenidone

      Explanation:

      Over the past decade, the management of IPF has undergone significant changes. Previously, small trials had indicated some benefits of using a combination of corticosteroids with azathioprine, which remained the only pharmacological therapy for many years. However, larger trials later showed that this treatment regimen does not confer any benefit and may even cause harm. As a result, the National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends against the use of immunosuppressant therapies such as azathioprine, prednisolone, and mycophenolate mofetil in IPF.

      The only pharmacological therapy that has demonstrated any benefit in IPF is pirfenidone, an immunosuppressant that has anti-inflammatory and antifibrotic effects. Although the mechanism of action of pirfenidone is not fully understood, it is believed to suppress fibroblast proliferation, thereby reducing the production of fibrosis-associated proteins and cytokines.

      For patients with IPF, the only other therapeutic option is lung transplantation, and NICE recommends that patients who wish to explore this option should be referred, provided they have no absolute contraindications. Unfortunately, the speed of disease progression and the availability of suitable organs mean that this treatment modality is only used in a very small minority of patients.

      In summary, the guidelines make it clear that pirfenidone is the appropriate choice for IPF treatment. Bosentan, on the other hand, is an endothelin receptor antagonist used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old woman attends the respiratory clinic for a review of her asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman attends the respiratory clinic for a review of her asthma treatment. The patient reported that overall, her symptoms of asthma had been well controlled in the 6 months since her last review. She had not suffered any significant exacerbations of her asthma in that time and felt she was required to use her salbutamol inhaler only around once per week (which represented a significant improvement over her normal control).

      The patient also reported that she was now 3 months pregnant, and had just had an unremarkable 12-week ultrasound. While she had not been planning to have a baby, the patient reported being very happy about it, and she was keen to maximise her health during this time.

      The patient had a long-standing diagnosis of asthma, with her first presentations during early childhood. While the illness had only caused mild symptoms between the ages of 10 and 15 years, the patient had suffered several severe exacerbations of asthma in her late teenage years, coinciding with the time when the patient had become a regular smoker.

      The patient did not report any other significant on-going health problems or past medical history. In particular, she denied a history of seizures, high blood pressure or mental health problems.

      The patient's current asthma treatment was a salmeterol-fluticasone combination inhaler (Seretide Accuhaler 250), one puff twice daily. She was also prescribed a metered-dose salbutamol inhaler for use as required. The patient had no history of drug allergies.

      The patient reported that she continued to be a regular cigarette smoker. Since finding out she was pregnant, she had managed to reduce her regular intake to 12 cigarettes per day, reduced from her previous typical intake of 20 cigarettes per day.

      The patient was motivated to use her pregnancy as a motivating factor to stop smoking permanently, and during the clinic asked about medication to assist her with quitting.

      What is the most appropriate drug treatment strategy to assist this patient in quitting smoking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement patch with short-acting nicotine replacement

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with hemoptysis. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with hemoptysis. He has a past medical history of hepatitis C. He declined anti-viral therapy.

      On examination, he has a saddle nose deformity. There is a non-blanching rash on his lower limbs.

      Blood tests:


      Hb 88 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 489 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 18.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 155 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 151 mg/L (< 5)

      Urinalysis:

      Blood +
      Protein +++

      Plain radiography of the chest demonstrates bilateral infiltrates.

      What test is most likely to be positive given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C-ANCA

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is cANCA. The patient is presenting with a multisystem disease that includes haemoptysis, saddle nose deformity, likely pulmonary haemorrhage, anaemia, and acute kidney injury with haematoproteinuria. These symptoms are indicative of granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which is an ANCA-associated vasculitis that is most commonly associated with cANCA.

      The answer choices of anti-GBM, cryoglobulins, dsDNA, and pANCA are incorrect. While anti-GBM can also cause a pulmonary-renal syndrome, it is not associated with the ENT features seen in GPA. Cryoglobulins are less likely to cause pulmonary haemorrhage and are not associated with ENT involvement. dsDNA is specific to systemic lupus erythematosus, which typically affects younger women and does not typically involve ENT symptoms. pANCA is more commonly associated with microscopic polyangiitis, which lacks ENT involvement in most cases and has a poor positive predictive value for vasculitis when pANCA is positive with negative MPO/PR3.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.

      To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.

      The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 17 - You are requested to assess a 77 year-old male patient who is currently...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 77 year-old male patient who is currently admitted to the respiratory ward for an infective exacerbation of pulmonary fibrosis during your night shift. The patient has a medical history of end-stage renal failure due to type 1 diabetes mellitus and is dependent on haemodialysis. He has previously discussed his escalation plan and has declined ICU admission or CPR in the event of a cardiac arrest.

      Upon reviewing his chest X-Ray, you observe extensive consolidation on the left side. The patient has been receiving high flow oxygen and intravenous antibiotics for the past few days, but the nursing staff reports a deterioration in his condition over the last 24 hours. During your examination, you notice that the patient is in distress and experiencing dyspnoea, with oxygen saturation levels of 72% on 80% high flow humidified oxygen.

      What would be the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100mcg alfentanil subcutaneously

      Explanation:

      As this man nears the end of his life, he is receiving the highest level of oxygen therapy possible. He has made it clear that he does not want any further medical intervention beyond what can be provided on the ward. Due to his kidney failure, he may experience a buildup of morphine in his system. Therefore, the best course of action to alleviate his difficulty breathing is to administer alfentanil, a fast-acting opioid.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A COPD patient arrives at the ER with a 2.2 cm simple pneumothorax....

    Incorrect

    • A COPD patient arrives at the ER with a 2.2 cm simple pneumothorax. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insert a chest drain

      Explanation:

      In cases of secondary pneumothorax where the size is greater than 2cm or the patient is experiencing shortness of breath, the recommended first-line treatment is a chest drain rather than aspiration. Secondary pneumothorax is characterized by a history of lung disease that increases the likelihood of developing pneumothoraces, such as COPD. Aspiration is only recommended for pneumothoraces that are 1-2 cm in size. Discharging the patient with a follow-up X-ray or admitting them for observation would not be appropriate. In cases of tension pneumothorax, emergency needle decompression is the recommended treatment.

      Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 49-year-old man, admitted for a routine hernia surgery, was found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man, admitted for a routine hernia surgery, was found to have a pneumothorax on his pre-operative chest X-ray. He has a past medical history of chronic bronchitis and a smoking history of 45 pack-years. The chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm unilateral pneumothorax. Although he is not experiencing shortness of breath, he is experiencing chest discomfort.
      What would be the optimal approach to manage this clinical situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Management of Secondary Pneumothorax in a Smoker Over 50 Years Old

      In managing a patient with a secondary pneumothorax, the British Thoracic Guidelines recommend inserting a chest drain with a gauge of 8-14 Fr if the pneumothorax is greater than 2 cm or if the patient is breathless. The intrapleural distance should be measured at the level of the hilum. High-flow oxygen may be used as a treatment option for secondary pneumothoraces less than 1 cm in size, provided the patient is not at risk of oxygen sensitivity. Aspirating the pneumothorax with a 16G cannula should only be attempted if the pneumothorax is between 1 and 2 cm and the patient is not breathless. Admission without intervention can be considered for patients with secondary pneumothoraces less than 1 cm in size and asymptomatic. In this case, the patient can be discharged to an outpatient ambulatory clinic in 2 weeks.

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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents to the endocrinology clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents to the endocrinology clinic with weight loss and frequent nocturnal urination. She has experienced two exacerbations of her CF in the past year and a decline in lung function. On examination, she has a blood pressure of 122/82 mmHg, a pulse of 82 beats per minute, and a BMI of 19 kg/m². Crackles and wheezing are heard on chest auscultation. Her fasting blood glucose is 8.1 mmol/l, and her HbA1c is 60 mmol/mol. What is the most appropriate management strategy for her diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start basal bolus insulin and continue high calorie diet

      Explanation:

      Patients who have both cystic fibrosis and diabetes need to consume a high calorie diet and administer additional insulin to regulate their blood sugar levels. This is crucial as the development of diabetes in such patients is linked to weight loss and more frequent respiratory exacerbations. Unlike other conditions, managing diabetes in cystic fibrosis requires a different approach. While gliclazide can be useful in the early stages of diabetes associated with cystic fibrosis, it may not be sufficient to maintain a high calorie diet. Therefore, insulin is the preferred option. Metformin is not effective in managing insulin resistance in CF-related diabetes, and DPPIV inhibitors are less effective than sulphonylureas in lowering blood glucose levels in this situation.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic for follow-up. Despite being on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic for follow-up. Despite being on fluticasone 250 mcg and salmeterol 50 mcg (seretide 250) twice daily, he continues to experience shortness of breath, especially at night and during physical activity. He works in an office, does not have any pets, and is a non-smoker. Other than asthma, he has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, his blood pressure is 124/76, his pulse is regular at 70 beats per minute. Bilateral air entry is good, but occasional wheezing can be heard. His peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 480, compared to a predicted value of 590.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add montelukast tablets

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for partial control of asthma

      When a patient with asthma has only partial control despite taking high dose inhaled corticosteroids and long acting beta agonist therapy, the next step would be to add an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist such as montelukast tablets. This medication can help improve control of asthma symptoms. Adding an antihistamine like loratadine would not be useful in the absence of an allergen trigger. Prednisolone should be used with caution and only after other options have been exhausted under specialist advice. Theophylline tablets or oral modified release beta agonists could be considered, but they offer little additional benefit and are associated with increased risk of cardiac rhythm disturbance. Omalizumab, an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody, is recommended only after other options have been exhausted and under specialist respiratory advice for allergic asthma. It is important to carefully consider the risk-benefit profile of each treatment option before making a decision.

      Overall, when a patient with asthma has only partial control despite high dose inhaled corticosteroids and long acting beta agonist therapy, adding an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist such as montelukast tablets is the most appropriate next step. Other options such as antihistamines, prednisolone, theophylline tablets, oral modified release beta agonists, and omalizumab should be considered only after careful evaluation of their risk-benefit profile and under specialist respiratory advice.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old pregnant woman who is 28 weeks along suddenly experiences shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old pregnant woman who is 28 weeks along suddenly experiences shortness of breath and slight left-sided chest pains. She has no cough or haemoptysis and no history of long flights or leg swelling. On examination, she appears anxious with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, pulse rate of 92/min, and respiratory rate of 26/min. Her abdomen is distended, and fetal movements are seen. Investigations reveal a low probability of pulmonary embolism (PE) on a V/Q scan, but her D-dimer levels are elevated. What would be the most appropriate step in her immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for her discharge

      Explanation:

      Management of a Pregnant Patient with Low-Probability V/Q Scan

      When a pregnant patient presents with a low-probability V/Q scan, it is important to consider other potential causes for their symptoms. In this case, the slightly elevated pH and normal oxygen levels, along with low CO2, suggest mild hyperventilation and anxiety rather than pulmonary emboli (PE). Therefore, it is safe to arrange for the patient’s discharge.

      There is no indication for anticoagulation or anti-platelet therapy based on the V/Q scan result. Warfarin is not advised during early or late pregnancy. Thrombolysis and thoracotomy with embolectomy are not appropriate interventions for this patient.

      Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s clinical presentation and diagnostic results is crucial in determining the appropriate management for pregnant patients with suspected PE.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman presents with an increasing cough and shortness of breath that...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with an increasing cough and shortness of breath that has been worsening over the past year. She has experienced multiple chest infections in the last six months. Although she used to smoke 10 cigarettes a day, she quit eight years ago. She has no known allergies and works as a hairdresser. A chest x-ray came back normal. Pulmonary function testing revealed an FEV1 of 1.60 L (53% predicted), FVC of 2.86 L (78% predicted), total lung capacity of 4.83 L (110% predicted), TLCO of 6.63% (93% predicted), and KCO of 1.36 (120% predicted). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Lung Function Tests in Respiratory Diseases

      When assessing lung function in patients with respiratory diseases, several tests are used to determine the severity and type of the condition. In cases of moderate airways obstruction, the FEV1/FVC ratio is typically reduced to 56% predicted. While transfer factor and transfer co-efficient can be normal or elevated in asthma, they are always reduced in emphysema. Patients with extra-pulmonary restrictive defects, such as obesity, may show an elevated KCO with normal TLCO, but their FEV1/FVC ratio and lung volumes are reduced. In chronic bronchitis, the KCO may be relatively well preserved, but it would not be raised. Elevated KCO is more typical of asthma, possibly due to increased pulmonary capillary density secondary to active inflammation. Additionally, there is an occupational link between hair bleach/spray and asthma. these lung function tests can aid in the diagnosis and management of respiratory diseases.

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      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old woman presents with an infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with an infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa has been identified in multiple sputum cultures from the community and her GP initiated oral ciprofloxacin. However, after four days of treatment, she has developed worsening fever, hypoxia, and breathlessness, and now requires oxygen. Bilateral infiltrates are visible on her chest x-ray, and coarse crepitations are heard throughout her lungs.

      What is the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change to IV piperacillin-tazobactam

      Explanation:

      When treating Pseudomonas positive bronchiectasis that does not respond to ciprofloxacin, appropriate options include IV piperacillin-tazobactam, ceftazidime, or meropenem. IV clarithromycin, IV vancomycin, and high-dose trimethoprim/sulphamethoxazole and prednisolone are not appropriate in this case. IV ertapenem is also not effective as it lacks activity against Pseudomonas species. Therefore, the correct answer is to change to IV piperacillin-tazobactam.

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be addressed, such as immune deficiencies. Management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old male presents to the hospital with sudden onset breathlessness and no...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to the hospital with sudden onset breathlessness and no chest pain. He has recently started taking an ACE inhibitor for hypertension. Upon examination, bilateral crepitations to the mid-zones are noted, along with tachypnea and 90% saturation on room air. Urinalysis is negative, and a chest X-ray reveals acute pulmonary edema. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 95. Blood tests show Na+ at 135 mmol/l, K+ at 5.1 mmol/l, urea at 12.6 mmol/l, and creatinine at 188 µmol/l. What diagnostic test will confirm the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic Resonance (MR) Renal Angiography

      Explanation:

      Chest X-Ray Findings of Pulmonary Edema

      Pulmonary edema is a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs, making it difficult to breathe. A chest x-ray can help diagnose this condition by showing certain features. These features may include interstitial edema, which is the accumulation of fluid in the spaces between the lung tissues. Another feature is the bat’s wing appearance, which refers to the pattern of fluid accumulation in the lungs that resembles the wings of a bat.

      Other findings on a chest x-ray may include upper lobe diversion, which is an increase in blood flow to the upper parts of the lungs. Kerley B lines may also be present, which are thin lines that represent the expansion of the interstitial space by fluid. Additionally, pleural effusion, or the accumulation of fluid in the space between the lungs and chest wall, may be seen. If the cause of the pulmonary edema is cardiogenic, cardiomegaly, or an enlarged heart, may also be visible on the chest x-ray.

      In summary, a chest x-ray can provide valuable information in the diagnosis of pulmonary edema. The presence of interstitial edema, bat’s wing appearance, upper lobe diversion, Kerley B lines, pleural effusion, and cardiomegaly may all be indicative of this condition.

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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the general respiratory clinic with a nine-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the general respiratory clinic with a nine-month history of increasing shortness of breath and pedal edema. She has a past medical history of bilateral extensive pulmonary emboli and is currently taking warfarin. On examination, there is a loud second heart sound, a right ventricular heave, and visible V-waves on jugular venous pressure. A recent CT pulmonary angiogram showed resolution of the thrombus, and echocardiogram demonstrated severe right heart dilatation and impaired function with moderate tricuspid regurgitation. What diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right heart catheterisation

      Explanation:

      This woman is likely suffering from right-sided heart failure, which may be caused by chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension. To confirm this diagnosis, a right heart catheterization is necessary to measure the pulmonary pressures (which indicate pulmonary hypertension when they reach 25 mmHg). While echocardiograms and cardiac MRIs can provide estimates of these pressures, they should not be used as definitive diagnostic tools. Additionally, a cardiac MRI can be used to assess the right ventricular volumes, mass, and function, or to monitor patients undergoing treatment for pulmonary hypertension.

      A left heart catheterization is not necessary in this case, as the coronary arteries and left side of the heart are expected to be normal.

      Due to the severity of the right ventricular impairment and dilation, the patient’s BNP levels are likely to be elevated.

      Understanding Pulmonary Hypertension: Causes and Classification

      Pulmonary hypertension is a condition characterized by a sustained increase in mean pulmonary arterial pressure of more than 25 mmHg at rest. Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has reclassified pulmonary hypertension into five groups based on their causes.

      Group 1, also known as pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), includes idiopathic and familial cases, as well as those associated with collagen vascular disease, congenital heart disease with systemic to pulmonary shunts, HIV, drugs and toxins, and sickle cell disease. Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn is also classified under this group.

      Group 2 is pulmonary hypertension with left heart disease, which is caused by left-sided atrial, ventricular, or valvular disease such as left ventricular systolic and diastolic dysfunction, mitral stenosis, and mitral regurgitation.

      Group 3 is pulmonary hypertension secondary to lung disease/hypoxia, which includes conditions such as COPD, interstitial lung disease, sleep apnea, and high altitude.

      Group 4 is pulmonary hypertension due to thromboembolic disease, which is caused by blood clots in the lungs.

      Finally, Group 5 is a miscellaneous category that includes conditions such as lymphangiomatosis, which can be secondary to carcinomatosis or sarcoidosis.

      Understanding the classification of pulmonary hypertension is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of the condition. By identifying the underlying cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a cough that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a cough that has been getting worse for four months. She has been coughing up blood and has difficulty breathing when she exerts herself. She has lost over 8 kg and has a reduced appetite. She started smoking when she was a teenager and currently smokes 15 cigarettes a day. She has been diagnosed with small cell lung cancer and her staging CT shows T1a N2 M0. At her follow-up appointment in the oncology clinic, what should be considered as the first-line treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cisplatin

      Explanation:

      In the early stages of non-small cell lung cancer (T1-2a,N0,M0), surgery is the recommended treatment. For limited disease (T1-4,N0-3,M0), 4-6 cycles of cisplatin-based chemotherapy (or carboplatin if there are issues with renal function or performance status) may be used, along with radiotherapy if necessary. For extensive disease (T1-4, N0-3, M1a/b), a combination of platinum-based chemotherapy and thoracic radiotherapy may be used if there is a good response. Immunotherapy with drugs like pembrolizumab is currently being studied as a potential treatment option for non-small cell lung cancer.

      Small Cell Lung Cancer: Characteristics and Management

      Small cell lung cancer is a type of lung cancer that usually develops in the central part of the lungs and arises from APUD cells. This type of cancer is often associated with the secretion of hormones such as ADH and ACTH, which can cause hyponatremia and Cushing’s syndrome, respectively. In addition, ACTH secretion can lead to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and hypokalemic alkalosis due to high levels of cortisol. Patients with small cell lung cancer may also experience Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is characterized by antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels causing a myasthenic-like syndrome.

      Management of small cell lung cancer depends on the stage of the disease. Patients with very early stage disease may be considered for surgery, while those with limited disease typically receive a combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Patients with more extensive disease are offered palliative chemotherapy. Unfortunately, most patients with small cell lung cancer are diagnosed with metastatic disease, making treatment more challenging.

      Overall, small cell lung cancer is a complex disease that requires careful management and monitoring. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes, but more research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms of this type of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year old male with metastatic small cell lung cancer presents with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old male with metastatic small cell lung cancer presents with an acutely swollen leg. An ultrasound scan reveals a femoral vein venous thrombosis. Later, he experiences tachypnea and drops his oxygen saturation level to 88% on air. On auscultation, there is wheezing bilaterally and reduced air on the left with hyper-resonant percussion note. An urgent CT thorax is requested, which shows a large 5 cm pneumothorax, bilateral segmental PEs, and a left-sided 4x3x2 cm lung cancer. Considering the risk of bleeding following insertion of a chest drain to treat the pneumothorax, what decision should be made regarding his anticoagulation for PE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unfractionated Heparin infusion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Dilemma for a Patient with Pneumothorax and Pulmonary Embolism

      This patient presents a dilemma in terms of treating his pneumothorax while minimizing the risk of bleeding due to his anticoagulation treatment. Prescribing only prophylactic tinzaparin would be irresponsible as it is not sufficient to prevent further clot formation or break down the pulmonary embolism. While newer anticoagulants like rivaroxaban and apixaban are gaining popularity in treating DVTs and PEs, their inability to be accurately monitored poses an increased risk for this patient. Thrombolysis is only recommended for massive PE or PE with signs of shock. Treatment dose LMWH is a reasonable option, but its long half-life makes it harder to control and monitor bleeding. Therefore, heparin infusion is the most sensible treatment for this patient as it can be easily stopped and monitored every four hours to adjust the dose accordingly. For more information, refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Scenarios on Pulmonary Embolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 23-year-old female patient complains of repeated episodes of breathlessness and cough with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female patient complains of repeated episodes of breathlessness and cough with foul-smelling sputum. She has a medical history of recurrent colicky abdominal pain over the past four years. Upon investigation, sputum culture reveals a significant growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Haemophilus influenzae. Additionally, her chest X-ray shows tramline and ring shadows. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Chronic Lung Disease

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a disease that usually appears in childhood, but it can also present in early adulthood. Pseudomonas and H. influenzae are common pathogens in chronic lung disease, causing foul-smelling sputum and recurrent infections. However, abdominal pain in CF patients is likely due to distal intestinal obstruction syndrome. Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) is an inherited disorder that leads to recurrent life-threatening bacterial and fungal infections, but CGD neutrophils are able to kill P. aeruginosa organisms by nonoxidative mechanisms. T cell deficiencies are typically associated with viral and fungal pathogens, while hypogammaglobulinaemia makes patients susceptible to recurrent respiratory tract infections caused by encapsulated bacteria. Primary ciliary dyskinesia is associated with recurrent respiratory tract infections due to ineffective secretion clearance and infertility.

      Overall, chronic lung disease can have various causes, including genetic disorders, immune deficiencies, and recurrent infections. the underlying mechanisms of these diseases can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 48-year-old male presented to the respiratory outpatient clinic with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male presented to the respiratory outpatient clinic with a complaint of progressive breathlessness on exertion. He enjoyed hiking and had first noticed his symptoms about a year ago when he struggled to keep up with his friends. He denied any cough, sputum production, wheezing, or chest pain. His medical history included a transient ischemic attack (TIA) four months ago, seasonal allergic rhinitis, and high cholesterol. He had never smoked and was prescribed aspirin and simvastatin after his TIA. He admitted to having a poor diet with a lot of saturated fats.

      During the physical examination, he was found to be obese with a BMI of 30 and plethoric. His blood pressure was 100/80 mmHg, temperature 36.8°C, pulse 96 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. An ejection systolic murmur was heard loudest in the left second intercostal space during auscultation. His ECG showed right axis deviation with right bundle branch block.

      The results of his full pulmonary function tests are as follows:
      - FVC: 4.30 L (87% predicted)
      - FEV1: 3.62 L (84% predicted)
      - FEV1/FVC: 84% (99% predicted)
      - TLC: 6.90 L (86% predicted)
      - RV/TLC: 30.0% (110% predicted)
      - DLCO (ml/m/mm Hg): 56 mL/m/mm Hg (163% predicted)

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Atrial Septal Defect and Elevated DLco

      The patient’s recent TIA and clinical and ECG findings suggest the presence of an atrial septal defect. The elevated DLco observed is likely due to the left-right shunt and increased pulmonary blood flow caused by the defect. It is important to note that chronic pulmonary emboli would result in a low DLco, which is not the case here. While the patient does have a mild ventilatory defect due to obesity, this does not explain the clinical findings.

      There are other potential causes of a raised DLco, including asthma, exercise, polycythemia, and any condition that causes alveolar hemorrhage such as Goodpasture’s syndrome or Granulomatosis with polyangiitis. However, given the patient’s history and clinical presentation, an atrial septal defect is the most likely explanation for the elevated DLco. Further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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