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Question 1
Incorrect
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Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to be used for an arterial blood gas?
Your Answer: 3cm inferolaterally to the deep inguinal ring
Correct Answer: Mid inguinal point
Explanation:The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia. A direct inguinal hernia passes through Hesselbach's triangle. What forms the medial edge of this triangle?
Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Explanation:The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach’s is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vesselsDirect inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:
Your Answer: Slow influx of calcium
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?
Your Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings
Explanation:A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings
18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub
Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura
Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure
Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 5
Correct
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A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter. His vital readings are: Temperature: 38.1°C. Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg), Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg). Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg, Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg, Cardiac output: 5 L/min, Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%. Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance. Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5
Your Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5
Explanation:Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
It is derived mathematically by:PVR = MPAP – PCWP
CO
where,
MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
CO: Cardiac outputFor this patient:
PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
5Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:
PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5
Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The action potential in a muscle fibre is initiated by which of these ions?
Your Answer: Calcium ions
Correct Answer: Sodium ions
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?
Your Answer: X rays
Explanation:Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.
Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.
Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 8
Correct
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A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____?
Your Answer: IV
Explanation:Type I – immediate hypersensitivity reaction
Examples are: Atopy, urticaria, Anaphylaxis, Asthma( IgE mediated).
Type II – Antibody mediated cytotoxic reaction
Examples are: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Thrombocytopenia( IgM or IgG mediated).
Type III – Immune complex mediated reaction
Examples are: Serum sickness,SLE – IgG., Farmers lungs, rheumatoid arthritis
Type IV – Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
Examples are: Contact dermatitis, drug allergies.
Type V – Autoimmune
Graves’
Myasthenia – IgM or IgG. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct for gas pipeline pressure?
Your Answer: 400 kPa for nitric oxide
Correct Answer: 4 bar for oxygen
Explanation:Pipeline gases (in the UK this includes: Oxygen, Nitrous oxide, Medical air, and Entonox) are supplied at 4 bar (or 400 kPa), and compressed air is supplied at 7 bar for power tools.
Carbon dioxide and nitric oxide are usually only supplied in cylinders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 10
Correct
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A pulmonary function tests results are: (Measurement, Predicted result, Test result). Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps): 3.85, 2.36 Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps): 3.34, 0.97. FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps): 85.1, 39.9. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second): 7.33, 2.11. Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute): 116, 44.4. What does this indicate?
Your Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture
Explanation:Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (V1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:
Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35%This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as V1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following is an expected change in pulmonary function seen during a moderate asthma attack?
Your Answer: Decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1)
Explanation:Asthma is a lung condition that causes reversible narrowing and swelling of airway passages. It is classified by the frequency and severity of symptoms.
The following are symptoms of moderate asthma:
Symptoms include cough, wheezing, chest tightness, or difficulty breathing which occurs daily
Decreased activity levels due to flare-ups
Night-time symptoms 5 or more times a month
Lung function test FEV1 is 60-80% of predicted normal values
Peak flow has more than 30% variabilityWith moderate asthma attacks, the arterial pCO2 levels may decrease, but as severity increases, so does the pCO2, reaching normal levels, and then exceeding them in severe asthma attacks.
Airway obstruction increases the functional residual capacity.
Concentration of serum bicarbonate would not increase in moderate asthma, but it could possibly increase in life-threatening asthma via the same mechanism as what increases arterial PCO2.
FEV1 is a good measure of airway obstruction. and is reduced in acute asthma attacks.
In the case of a pneumothorax, a decrease in arterial PO2 is higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?
Your Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on α1, α2, β1, and β2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on α 1 and 2, β 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on β 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on α adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on β adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his left groin. Upon examination, his doctor is able to diagnose a direct inguinal hernia. There are many structures present in the inguinal canal. Where is the ilioinguinal nerve located in relation to the spermatic cord?
Your Answer: Posterior to the spermatic cord
Correct Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord
Explanation:The answer is anterior to the spermatic cord.
The inguinal canal in men contains the ilioinguinal nerve, the genitofemoral nerve and the spermatic cord.
The ilioinguinal nerve arises of the L1 nerve root with the Iliohypogastric nerve, before entering the inguinal canal from the side, through the muscles of the abdomen, travelling superficial to the spermatic cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken from both the small and large intestinal linings. Which of the following is found in the small intestine lining but not in that of the large intestine in a normal biopsy?
Your Answer: Villi
Explanation:The small and large intestinal walls are composed of the following common layers:
1. Mucosa
2. Submucosa
3. Muscularis Externa
4. AdventitiaIntestinal villi are highly vascular projections of the mucosal surface that cover the entire small intestinal mucosa. They increase the lumen’s surface area, which aids in absorption and digestion, the primary functions of the small intestine. Villi are large and most abundant in the duodenum and jejunum.
In both the small and large intestines, the muscularis mucosae are found within the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus is found innervating the muscularis externa. The mucosa is lined with columnar epithelial cells, and goblet cells may be present to secrete mucins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?
Your Answer: An x descent due to atrial emptying as blood enters the ventricle
Correct Answer: An a wave due to atrial contraction
Explanation:The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:
A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.
C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.
X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.
V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.
Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed. He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?
Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.
The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial blood gas results is likely to be seen?
Your Answer: pH = 7.34
PaCO2 = 7.2 kPa
HCO3 = 29Explanation:During normal tissue metabolism, there is production of CO2 (acid) which is then expired by the lungs. If metabolism switches from aerobic to anaerobic due to a lack of oxygen, the tissues are unable to completely oxidise sugars to CO2. As a consequence, the sugars can only be partially oxidised to lactic acid. Since lactic acid cannot be expired by the lungs, it remains in the circulation leading to metabolic acidosis.
Also, normal tissue metabolism leads to the production of some amount of acid from the breakdown of proteins. These acids are excreted from the body by kidney filtration. Renal failure will therefore results in acidosis after several days.
An increased acidosis stimulates the brain’s respiratory centres to increase the respiratory rate. This lowers the CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in its acidity. Renal excretion removes the excess acid, resulting in a normal pH, and a reduced PaCO2 and HCO3.
pH PaCO2 (kPa) HCO3
Compensated respiratory acidosis 7.34 7.2 29
Acute respiratory acidosis 7.25 7.3 22
Compensated metabolic acidosis 7.34 3.6 14
Metabolic acidosis 7.21 5.3 15
Metabolic alkalosis 7.51 5.1 30 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. She has low serum calcium and low serum parathyroid hormone levels on investigations. She appears slightly confused, likely due to hypocalcaemia, and cannot give a full account of her past medical history, but can recall that she recently was admitted to the hospital. What is the most likely cause of her hypoparathyroidism?
Your Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is injury or removing the parathyroid glands. They can be injured accidentally during surgery to remove the thyroid as they are located posterior to the thyroid gland.
A result of both low parathyroid hormone and low calcium is likely to mean that the parathyroid glands are not responding to hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia can cause confusion, and the stay in the hospital is likely to refer to her surgery.
While a parathyroid adenoma is fairly common and can cause hypoparathyroidism, it much more likely causes hyperparathyroidism.
Chronic kidney disease is likely to cause hypocalcaemia, which would increase parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to increase calcium levels, causing hyperparathyroidism. Vitamin D is activated by the kidneys and then binds to calcium to be absorbed in the terminal ileum so that a deficiency would cause hyperparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant. What is most likely reason for this?
Your Answer: Suxamethonium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency
Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency
Explanation:Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.
The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.
Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.
Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.
Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.
Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated. Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?
Your Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson D breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing tidal volume breaths for three minutes
Correct Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths
Explanation:This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:
Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
Increased closing capacity (CC)
Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 21
Incorrect
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At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?
Your Answer: Left main stem bronchus
Correct Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter
Explanation:The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.
The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
2. Thoracic constrictions:
i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts?
Your Answer: Emulsification of lipids
Explanation:The emulsification and absorption of fats requires Bile salts.
Absorption of fats is associated with the activation of lipases in the intestine.
Bile salts are involved in fat soluble vitamin absorption and are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum (B12 is NOT fat soluble).
Although Vitamin B12 is also absorbed in the terminal ileum, it is a water soluble vitamin (as are B1, nicotinic acid, folic acid and vitamin C) .
The gastric parietal cells secretes Intrinsic factor that is essential for the absorption of B12.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion. A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute. Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?
Your Answer: 200 mL/minute
Correct Answer: 300 mL/minute
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
RQ=1Fats:
RQ = 0.7Proteins:
Approximately 0.9 RQEthyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.
200/300 = 0.67 RQ
For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.
When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department. He is found to have monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. The resting potential of ventricular monocytes is maintained by which electrolyte?
Your Answer: Potassium
Explanation:Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 25
Correct
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About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?
Your Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor
Explanation:Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor.
The thiazide sensitive sodium chloride symporter is inhibited by thiazides at the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion. Increased delivery of sodium to the distal portion of the distal convoluted tubule promotes potassium loss. This is why thiazides are associated with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia.
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used mainly in the treatment of glaucoma. They act on the proximal convoluted tubule to promote bicarbonate, sodium and potassium loss.
Sodium potassium chloride symporter is inhibited by Loop diuretics.
Epithelial sodium channels are inhibited by Amiloride.
Drugs which lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus such as lithium and demeclocycline, are Inhibitors of vasopressin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage. On admission, her GCS was 7. She has been intubated, sedated and is being ventilated and is waiting for a CT scan. Her Blood pressure is 140/70mmHg. The arterial blood gas analysis shows the following: pH 7.2 (7.35 - 7.45), PaO2 70 mmHg (80-100), PaCO2 78 mmHg (35-45), BE -3 mEq/L (-3 +/-3), Standard bic 27 mmol/L (21-27), SaO2 94%. The most likely cause of an increase in the patient's global cerebral blood flow (CBF) is which of the following?
Your Answer: Hypoxia
Correct Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.
Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.
An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems. In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?
Your Answer: Cyclic AMP (cAMP)
Correct Answer: Calcium ions
Explanation:Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.
These include:
Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
Apoptosis
Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
Lymphocyte activation
Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.
The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:
Beta (β1, β2, and β3)
Dopamine (D1 and D5)
Histamine (H2)
Glucagon
Vasopressin (V2).The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.
The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The following results were obtained In a new drug trial: (Improved:Not improved) Placebo group 36: 26, Treatment group 44: 16. Regarding the statistical analysis or interpretation of the trial, one of these is true
Your Answer: A Student's t-test could be used
Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test
Explanation:This data is in a 2 × 2 contingency table so a chi square test can be used. There is a special chi squared formula that gives a value that can be looked up in a table giving the p value.
Since we are comparing proportions not means, the Student’s t test CANNOT be used.
There is no linear regression to plot so Pearson’s co-efficient cannot be calculated.
Nothing is so obvious that no statistical analysis is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 29
Correct
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Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer: It decreases during normal sleep
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.
Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).
BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.
BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.
BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
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Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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