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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided weakness lasting 10-15 minutes. During examination, the GP discovers that the patient has atrial fibrillation. If the patient continues to have chronic atrial fibrillation, what is the most appropriate type of anticoagulation to use?
Your Answer: Warfarin, target INR 2-3 for six months then aspirin
Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant
Explanation:When it comes to reducing the risk of stroke in patients with AF, DOACs should be the first option. In the case of this patient, her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3, with 2 points for the transient ischaemic attack and 1 point for being female. Therefore, it is recommended that she be given anticoagulation treatment with DOACs, which are now preferred over warfarin.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic. They all have atrial fibrillation (AF) and are taking multiple medications.
Which patient should discontinue anticoagulation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An 80-year-old man who has undergone left atrial appendage closure, surgically preventing clots from entering the bloodstream
Explanation:Even after undergoing catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation, patients must continue taking anticoagulants for an extended period based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man has been feeling ill for 2 weeks with fatigue, loss of appetite, and night sweats. During examination, he has a temperature of 38.5oC and a loud mid-systolic ejection murmur in the second right intercostal space with a palpable thrill. What is the most appropriate intervention for this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood culture
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis and Criteria for Diagnosis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that involves inflammation of the heart valves caused by various organisms, including Streptococcus viridans. The lack of a dedicated blood supply to the valves reduces the immune response in these areas, making them susceptible to infection, especially if they are already damaged. A new or changing heart murmur, typical of aortic stenosis, may indicate the presence of infective endocarditis, particularly if accompanied by a fever.
To diagnose infective endocarditis, the Duke criteria require the presence of two major criteria, one major and three minor criteria, or five minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical infective endocarditis microorganisms and evidence of vegetations on heart valves on an echocardiogram. Minor criteria include a predisposing factor such as a heart valve lesion or intravenous drug abuse, fever, embolism, immunological problems, or a single positive blood culture.
Immediate hospital admission is necessary for patients suspected of having infective endocarditis. Blood cultures should be taken before starting antibiotics, and an echocardiogram should be carried out urgently. While aortic stenosis is a common cause of heart murmurs, a new or changing murmur accompanied by a fever should raise suspicion of infective endocarditis.
Criteria for Diagnosing Infective Endocarditis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alprostadil
Explanation:Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling
Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.
Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.
Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.
A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.
Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.
In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is seen in clinic. There is no evidence of diabetic retinopathy, chronic kidney disease or cardiovascular disease in his records.
He is currently taking the following medications:
simvastatin 20 mg once daily
ramipril 10 mg once daily
amlodipine 5mg once daily
metformin 1g twice daily
Recent blood results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.4 mmol/l
Urea 7.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 86 µmol/l
HbA1c 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)
The urine dipstick shows no proteinuria. His blood pressure in clinic today is 134/76 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No changes to medication required
Explanation:Since there are no complications from her diabetes, the target blood pressure remains < 140/80 mmHg and her antihypertensive regime doesn't need to be altered. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers. Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight. Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age. The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is known to have high blood pressure.
Choose from the options the one drug that is expected to increase his blood pressure even more.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Certain medications and substances can cause an increase in blood pressure, known as drug-induced hypertension. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 selective agents cause sodium and water retention, leading to elevated blood pressure. Sympathomimetic amines, such as amphetamines and pseudoephedrine, can also have this effect. Corticosteroids, particularly those with strong mineralocorticoid effects, can cause fluid retention and hypertension. Oral contraceptives may slightly raise blood pressure in some women. Venlafaxine increases levels of norepinephrine, contributing to hypertension. Cyclosporine and tacrolimus, used in transplant and autoimmune patients, can also have a significant effect on blood pressure. Caffeine and certain dietary supplements, such as ginseng, natural liquorice, and yohimbine, can also cause drug-induced hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with intermittent cramp-like pain in the buttock, thigh and calf. The symptoms are worse on walking and relieved by rest. She had a stent placed in her coronary artery three years ago. On examination, both legs are of normal colour, but the pedal pulses are difficult to palpate. Sensation is mildly reduced in the right foot.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure ankle : brachial systolic pressure index
Explanation:Understanding Intermittent Claudication: Diagnosis and Management
Intermittent claudication is a common symptom of peripheral arterial disease. Patients typically experience pain or cramping in their legs during physical activity, which subsides with rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) of less than 0.9 supports the diagnosis, indicating reduced blood flow to the affected limb.
The severity of arterial disease can be assessed using the ABPI, with values under 0.5 indicating severe disease. Exercise can improve walking distance, and patients should be encouraged to continue walking beyond the point of pain. Addressing any risk factors for cardiovascular disease is also important.
Referral to a vascular surgeon may be necessary if symptoms are lifestyle limiting. Magnetic resonance angiography can be used to assess the extent of arterial disease prior to any revascularization procedure. Ultrasonography can help determine the site of disease in peripheral arterial disease.
Bilateral symptoms may indicate neurogenic claudication due to spinal stenosis, which can be confirmed with an MRI scan. Sciatica is also a possible differential diagnosis, particularly if there are sensory changes in the foot. An MRI scan may be useful in such cases.
Overall, understanding the diagnosis and management of intermittent claudication is crucial for effective treatment and improved quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.
Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?
You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.
Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LDL, IDL and VLDL cholesterol
Explanation:The Importance of Non-HDL Cholesterol in Statin Treatment
NICE guidelines recommend that high-intensity statin treatment for both primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease should aim for a greater than 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. Non-HDL cholesterol includes LDL, IDL, and VLDL cholesterol. In the past, LDL reduction has been used as a marker of statin effect. However, non-HDL reduction is more useful as it takes into account the atherogenic properties of IDL and VLDL cholesterol, which may be raised even in the presence of normal LDL levels.
Using non-HDL cholesterol also has other benefits. Hypertriglyceridaemia can interfere with lab-based LDL calculations, but it doesn’t impact non-HDL calculation, which is measured by a different method. Additionally, a fasting sample is not required to measure non-HDL cholesterol, making sampling and monitoring easier. Overall, non-HDL cholesterol is an important marker to consider in statin treatment for cardiovascular disease prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who had a stroke 2 years ago is being evaluated. He was prescribed simvastatin 40 mg for secondary prevention of further cardiovascular disease after his diagnosis. A fasting lipid profile was conducted last week and the results are as follows:
Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l
HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/l
LDL cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l
Triglyceride 1.6 mmol/l
Based on the latest NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to atorvastatin 80 mg on
Explanation:In 2014, the NICE guidelines were updated regarding the use of statins for primary and secondary prevention. Patients with established cardiovascular disease are now recommended to be treated with Atorvastatin 80 mg. If the LDL cholesterol levels remain high, it is suitable to consider switching the patient’s medication.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male presents at your clinic following a recent admission at the cardiac unit of the local general hospital. He suffered a myocardial (MI) infarction three weeks ago and has been recovering well physically, but he cries a lot of the time.
You find evidence of low mood, anhedonia and sleep disturbance.
The man feels hopeless about the future and has fleeting thoughts of suicide. He has suffered from depression in the past which responded well to antidepressant treatment.
Which antidepressant would you choose from the following based on its demonstrated safety post-myocardial infarction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Sertraline for Depression in Patients with Recent MI or Unstable Angina
Sertraline is a medication that is both effective and well-tolerated for treating depression in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) or unstable angina. In addition to its antidepressant properties, sertraline has been found to inhibit platelet aggregation. This makes it a valuable treatment option for patients who are at risk for blood clots and other cardiovascular complications. With its dual benefits, sertraline can help improve both the mental and physical health of patients who have experienced a cardiac event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.
Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.
For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following would not be considered a normal variant on the ECG of an athletic 29-year-old man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block
Explanation:Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs
When analyzing an athlete’s ECG, there are certain changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate, junctional rhythm, which originates from the AV node instead of the SA node, first degree heart block, which is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, and Mobitz type 1, also known as the Wenckebach phenomenon, which is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. It is important to recognize these normal variants in order to avoid unnecessary testing or interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin therapy. Recently, her INR levels have decreased, leading to an increase in the warfarin dosage. What new treatments could be responsible for this change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St John's wort
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Warfarin
Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can affect the metabolism of other drugs. In the case of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, certain drugs can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness.
St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. On the other hand, allopurinol can interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect. Similarly, amiodarone inhibits the metabolism of coumarins, which can lead to an enhanced anticoagulant effect.
Clarithromycin, a drug that inhibits CYP3A isozyme, can enhance the anticoagulant effect of coumarins, including warfarin. This is because warfarin is metabolized by the same CYP3A isozyme as clarithromycin. Finally, sertraline may also interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect.
In summary, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions when taking warfarin, as they can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes in for a follow-up on his angina. Despite taking the maximum dose of atenolol, he still experiences chest discomfort during physical activity, which is hindering his daily routine. He wishes to explore other treatment options. He reports no chest pain at rest and his vital signs are within normal limits.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine
Explanation:If a beta-blocker is not effective in controlling angina, the recommended course of action is to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker to the treatment plan. Among the options listed, amlodipine is the only dihydropyridine available.
It is not advisable to add diltiazem due to the risk of complete heart block when used with atenolol. Although the risk is lower compared to verapamil, the potential harm outweighs the benefits.
Verapamil should also not be added as it can cause complete heart block due to the combined blockade of the atrioventricular node with beta-blockers.
While switching to diltiazem or verapamil is possible, it is not the best option. Dual therapy is recommended when monotherapy fails to control angina.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in both lower legs while running. The pain gradually intensifies after a brief period of running, causing him to stop. However, the pain quickly subsides when he is at rest. Upon examination, there are no abnormal findings, and his peripheral pulses are all palpable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter's disease
Explanation:Chronic Exertional Compartment Syndrome
Chronic exertional compartment syndrome (CECS) is a condition that causes exertional leg pain due to the fascial compartment being unable to accommodate the increased volume of the muscle during exercise. It is often mistaken for peripheral arterial disease.
If you experience exertional leg pain with tenderness over the middle of the muscle compartment but no bony tenderness, it may be a sign of CECS. This condition should be suspected when there is no evidence of tibial tuberosity pain, which is common in Osgood-Schlatter’s disease.
Referral for pre- and post-exertional pressure testing may be necessary, and if conservative measures are unsuccessful, a fasciotomy may be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You have a phone review scheduled with Mrs. Johansson, a 55-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension, which had been detected during a routine check-up. Subsequent ambulatory home blood pressure monitoring showed an average home BP of 148/84 mmHg.
You arranged an ECG, urine albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR), and some blood tests, and scheduled the appointment to discuss the findings. The ACR and blood tests are within normal limits. The ECG shows sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. You entered her cholesterol results into a cardiovascular risk calculator, which estimates a 10-year CV risk of 6.5%.
What is the appropriate management plan for her hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice, and discuss commencing a calcium-channel blocker
Explanation:Consider medication for stage 1 hypertension in patients aged 60 or under, but for those aged 55 or over, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line option. Lifestyle advice should also be given. Referral to cardiology is not necessary at this stage.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.
Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.
What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a medical history of hypertension and has experienced a STEMI in the past. Upon examination, his pulse is 68 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, and he displays bilateral pitting ankle edema. Which medication is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:This man is experiencing heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease, which is a leading cause of death among men in the UK. Beta-blockers are the only medication proven to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, and they can also help control hypertension. However, before starting treatment, his blood pressure and pulse should be checked to ensure that he is not at risk of bradycardia or hypotension. Spironolactone is not recommended for improving mortality in heart failure patients, but it can be used to treat hypertension and oedema. U&Es should be monitored regularly to avoid renal function deterioration and hyperkalaemia. Amlodipine and furosemide have not been shown to improve mortality in heart failure patients, but they can be used to control hypertension and oedema, respectively. U&Es should also be monitored regularly when using these medications. Ramipril has been shown to reduce hospital admissions in heart failure patients, but it can impair renal function and cause hyperkalaemia. U&Es should be checked regularly, and the medication should not be initiated if the patient’s potassium level is too high. Patients should also be advised to stop taking ramipril during diarrhoea or vomiting illnesses to avoid dehydration and acute kidney injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review for a 65-year-old man who has a history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 2 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
- Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
- Amlodipine 5mg once daily
- Ramipril 10 mg once daily
- Diclofenac 50 mg as needed
- Sertraline 50 mg once daily
What changes would you recommend to his medication regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID
Explanation:The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.
Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Risk
The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), due to a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, diclofenac is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs, such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit patient
Explanation:Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.
Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation
Cardioversion may be used in two scenarios for atrial fibrillation (AF): as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.
In the elective scenario for rhythm control, the 2014 NICE guidelines recommend offering rate or rhythm control if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and starting rate control if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain.
If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised. Patients who have risk factors for ischaemic stroke should be put on lifelong oral anticoagulation. Otherwise, patients may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological methods.
If the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately. NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological.
If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You review a 59-year-old woman, who is worried about her risk of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) due to her family history. She has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and a 20 pack-year smoking history. Her blood pressure in clinic is 136/88 mmHg. She is given a leaflet about AAA screening.
What is accurate regarding AAA screening in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He will be invited for one-off abdominal ultrasound at aged 65
Explanation:At the age of 65, all males are invited for a screening to detect abdominal aortic aneurysm through a single abdominal ultrasound, irrespective of their risk factors. In case an aneurysm is identified, additional follow-up will be scheduled.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is generally in good health, but experiences occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground. He continues to smoke five cigarettes per day. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological examination is normal, and his fundi appear normal. Examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent foot pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He was started on antihypertensive therapy, and his U+Es were measured over a two-week period, with the following results:
Baseline:
Sodium - 138 mmol/L
Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
Creatinine - 138 µmol/L
2 weeks later:
Sodium - 140 mmol/L
Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
Creatinine - 310 µmol/L
Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy
Explanation:Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors
This man has diabetes and hypertension, along with mild symptoms of claudication and absent foot pulses, indicating arteriopathy. These factors suggest a diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS), which can cause macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment.
When an antihypertensive medication was introduced, the patient’s renal function deteriorated, indicating that the drug was an ACE inhibitor. This is because hypertension in RAS is caused by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system trying to maintain renal perfusion. Inhibiting this system with ACE inhibitors can result in relative renal ischemia, leading to further deterioration of renal function.
In summary, patients with diabetes and hypertension who present with arteriopathy symptoms should be evaluated for RAS. The use of ACE inhibitors in these patients should be carefully monitored, as it can exacerbate renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing enalapril for a patient with recently diagnosed heart failure. What are the most typical side-effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cough + anaphylactoid reactions + hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are about to start a patient in their 70s on lisinopril for hypertension. Which one of the following conditions is most likely to increase the risk of side-effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:ACE inhibitors pose a significant risk of profound hypotension in patients with aortic stenosis. However, the co-prescription of bendroflumethiazide, a weak diuretic, is commonly used and doesn’t increase the risk of hypotension as seen with high-dose loop diuretics such as furosemide 80 mg bd. Patients with chronic kidney disease stage 2, which is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate of > 60 mL/min/1.73 m², are unlikely to experience significant side effects.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant
Explanation:According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You assess a 63-year-old man who has recently been released from a hospital in Hungary after experiencing a heart attack. He presents a copy of an echocardiogram report indicating that his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. During the examination, you note that his pulse is regular at 78 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 124/72 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What would be the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol
Explanation:The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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During a late-night shift at an urgent care centre, you encounter a 30-year-old woman who complains of experiencing pain and swelling in her right leg for the past three days. She denies having chest pain or difficulty breathing and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Upon examination, you notice that her right leg is swollen and tender to the touch. Her heart rate and pulse oximetry are both normal. After calculating a Wells deep vein thrombosis (DVT) score of 2, you advise her to visit her GP surgery the next morning for urgent blood tests, including a d-dimer, and to be monitored by the duty GP at her practice. You also instruct her to stop taking her contraceptive pill in the meantime.
What would be the most appropriate course of action to take in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe apixaban
Explanation:If there is suspicion of a DVT and it is not possible to obtain a D-dimer or scan result within four hours, NICE recommends initiating anticoagulation treatment with a DOAC such as apixaban. Low molecular weight heparin is no longer the preferred option. Clopidogrel is not effective in treating DVT. Warfarin, which was previously used, has been largely replaced by DOACs, but may still be used in some cases with low molecular weight heparin until the INR is within target range.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You assess a 62-year-old man who has been discharged after experiencing a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) and receiving percutaneous coronary intervention. What is the appropriate timeframe for him to resume sexual activity after his MI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:After a heart attack, it is safe to resume sexual activity after a period of 4 weeks.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.
Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.
For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is unsure if he has experienced a heart attack. Which statement from the list accurately describes non-ST elevation myocardial infarction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a risk of recurrent infarction in up to 10% in the first month
Explanation:Understanding Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) and Unstable Angina
Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is a condition that is diagnosed in patients with chest pain who have elevated troponin T levels without the typical ECG changes of acute MI, such as Q-waves and ST elevation. Instead, there may be persistent or transient ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion, flat T waves, pseudo-normalisation of T waves, or no ECG changes at all. On the other hand, unstable angina is diagnosed when there is chest pain but no rise in troponin levels.
Despite their differences, both NSTEMI and unstable angina are grouped together as acute coronary syndromes. In the acute phase, 5-10% of patients may experience death or re-infarction. Additionally, another 5-10% of patients may experience death due to recurrent myocardial infarction in the month after an acute episode.
To manage these patients, many units take an aggressive approach with early angiography and angioplasty. By understanding the differences between NSTEMI and unstable angina, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and timely treatment to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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