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  • Question 1 - You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of the potential diagnoses is methemoglobinemia. What test would you employ to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MetHb

      Explanation:

      COHb is a measure used to evaluate the presence of carbon monoxide poisoning in individuals who are in good health. hHb refers to deoxygenated haemoglobin.

      Further Reading:

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.

      Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.

      Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.

      Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.

      Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The emergency department is contacted to inform them that four workers at a...

    Correct

    • The emergency department is contacted to inform them that four workers at a nearby chemical plant will be brought in for evaluation after a fire occurred on site. Your consultant expresses some concerns regarding the handling of secondary contamination. What is the most accurate description of secondary contamination?

      Your Answer: Contaminated people leaving the scene of the incident and depositing contamination in other locations.

      Explanation:

      Secondary contamination occurs when contaminated individuals leave the initial incident scene and spread harmful substances to other locations, such as the emergency department. To minimize secondary contamination, steps like removing contaminated clothing, implementing decontamination procedures, and restricting movement can be taken. On the other hand, tertiary contamination refers to the entry of contaminants into the local environment, where they can become airborne or waterborne.

      Further Reading:

      Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.

      When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.

      To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.

      Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.

      Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.

      After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department after an explosion...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department after an explosion occurred in her garage. The patient reports inhaling fumes and experiencing symptoms of nausea and dizziness since then. While triaging the patient, law enforcement officers arrive to interview her and inform you that the patient seemed to be operating a methamphetamine lab in her garage, which contained various dangerous chemicals. Your plan is to initiate decontamination procedures. Which of the following methods has been proven to eliminate up to 90% of the contamination?

      Your Answer: Removal of patient clothing to underwear

      Explanation:

      To remove contaminated material, it is recommended to remove and dispose of clothing. It is important to seal the clothing and treat it as hazardous waste. If wet decontamination is being utilized, patients should shower using warm water and detergent.

      Further Reading:

      Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.

      When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.

      To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.

      Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.

      Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.

      After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      152.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department from working in a radiation...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department from working in a radiation lab. He informs you that he may have been exposed to dangerous radiation. The patient mentions that it has been less than 24 hours since he left lab. Which of the following tests provides the most accurate prognosis for the severity of radiation sickness?

      Your Answer: Lymphocyte count

      Explanation:

      The count of lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, can serve as an early indication of the level of radiation exposure. The severity of the exposure can be determined by observing the decrease in lymphocyte count, which is directly related to the amount of radiation absorbed by the body. Ideally, the count is measured 12 hours after exposure and then repeated every 4 hours initially to track the rate of decrease.

      Further Reading:

      Radiation exposure refers to the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or a material medium. There are two types of radiation: ionizing and non-ionizing. Non-ionizing radiation, such as radio waves and visible light, has enough energy to move atoms within a molecule but not enough to remove electrons from atoms. Ionizing radiation, on the other hand, has enough energy to ionize atoms or molecules by detaching electrons from them.

      There are different types of ionizing radiation, including alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and X-rays. Alpha particles are positively charged and consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons from the atom’s nucleus. They are emitted from the decay of heavy radioactive elements and do not travel far from the source atom. Beta particles are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay. They are more penetrating than alpha particles but less damaging to living tissue. Gamma rays and X-rays are weightless packets of energy called photons. Gamma rays are often emitted along with alpha or beta particles during radioactive decay and can easily penetrate barriers. X-rays, on the other hand, are generally lower in energy and less penetrating than gamma rays.

      Exposure to ionizing radiation can damage tissue cells by dislodging orbital electrons, leading to the generation of highly reactive ion pairs. This can result in DNA damage and an increased risk of future malignant change. The extent of cell damage depends on factors such as the type of radiation, time duration of exposure, distance from the source, and extent of shielding.

      The absorbed dose of radiation is directly proportional to time, so it is important to minimize the amount of time spent in the vicinity of a radioactive source. A lethal dose of radiation without medical management is 4.5 sieverts (Sv) to kill 50% of the population at 60 days. With medical management, the lethal dose is 5-6 Sv. The immediate effects of ionizing radiation can range from radiation burns to radiation sickness, which is divided into three main syndromes: hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and neurovascular. Long-term effects can include hematopoietic cancers and solid tumor formation.

      In terms of management, support is mainly supportive and includes IV fluids, antiemetics, analgesia, nutritional support, antibiotics, blood component substitution, and reduction of brain edema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who is currently using a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). What impact would you anticipate NSAID treatment to have on renal measurements?

      Your Answer: Increased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction, decreased GFR

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction, decreased GFR

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs have been found to have a relatively high occurrence of renal adverse drug reactions (ADRs). These ADRs primarily occur due to changes in renal haemodynamics caused by alterations in prostaglandin levels.

      Normally, prostaglandins play a role in dilating the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus. This dilation helps maintain normal glomerular perfusion and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

      However, NSAIDs work by reducing prostaglandin levels. This reduction leads to unopposed vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole, resulting in decreased renal plasma flow. Consequently, this decrease in renal plasma flow leads to a decrease in GFR. It is important to note that NSAIDs do not have any impact on the filtration fraction itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You review a patient with chronic severe back pain with a medical student...

    Correct

    • You review a patient with chronic severe back pain with a medical student that has examined the patient. He feels the most likely diagnosis is lumbar disc herniation. He explains that all five features of Reynold’s pentad are present.
      Which of the following does NOT form part of Reynold’s pentad?

      Your Answer: Raised white cell count

      Explanation:

      Ascending cholangitis occurs when there is an infection in the common bile duct, usually caused by a stone that has led to a blockage of bile flow. This condition is known as choledocholithiasis. The typical symptoms of ascending cholangitis are jaundice, fever (often accompanied by chills), and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. It is important to note that ascending cholangitis is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening, as patients often develop sepsis. Approximately 10-20% of patients may also experience altered mental status and low blood pressure due to septic shock. When these additional symptoms are present along with the classic triad of symptoms (Charcot’s triad), it is referred to as Reynold’s pentad. Urgent biliary drainage is the recommended treatment for ascending cholangitis. While a high white blood cell count is commonly seen in this condition, it is not considered part of Reynold’s pentad.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her right limbs, difficulty with coordination in her right arm, and difficulty speaking.
      Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:

      Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.

      Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.

      Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.

      It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of a persistent cough that...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of a persistent cough that has now started to produce a small amount of sputum. She is also experiencing muscle aches, fatigue, headaches, and has had diarrhea for the past three days. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.8°C, heart rate 88, blood pressure 120/80, respiratory rate 20, oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Upon examination, she has crackling sounds heard on the left side of her chest. A chest X-ray reveals consolidation in the left lower lobe.

      What is the MOST appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin 500 mg PO BD for 14 days

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with an atypical pneumonia, most likely caused by an infection from Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The clinical features of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection typically include a flu-like illness that precedes respiratory symptoms, along with fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, and cough (initially dry but often becoming productive). Focal chest signs may develop later in the illness. Interestingly, the X-ray features of the pneumonia are often more noticeable than the severity of the chest symptoms.

      Treatment for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection can involve the use of macrolides, such as clarithromycin, or tetracyclines, such as doxycycline. The recommended minimum treatment period is 10-14 days, making clarithromycin a preferable option over doxycycline in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old man comes in with pain in his right testicle. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes in with pain in his right testicle. He has observed that it begins to ache around midday and becomes most severe by the end of the day. He has never fathered any children. He is in good overall health and has no record of experiencing nausea, vomiting, or fever.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE single diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orchitis

      Correct Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      A Varicocele is a condition characterized by the presence of varicose veins in the pampiniform plexus of the cord and scrotum. It is more commonly found in the left testis than in the right and may be associated with infertility. The increased temperature caused by the varicosities is believed to be the reason for this. Symptoms include a dull ache in the testis, which tends to worsen after exercise or towards the end of the day. The presence of Varicocele can often be observed during a standing examination. Treatment usually involves conservative measures, although surgery may be necessary in severe cases.

      A hydrocoele can occur at any age and is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It presents as swelling in the scrotum, which can be palpated above. The surface of the hydrocoele is smooth and it can be transilluminated. The testis is contained within the swelling and cannot be felt separately. Primary or secondary causes can lead to the development of a hydrocoele. In adults, an ultrasound is typically performed to rule out secondary causes, such as an underlying tumor. Conservative management is often sufficient unless the hydrocoele is large.

      Testicular cancer is the most common cancer affecting men between the ages of 20 and 34. Recent campaigns have emphasized the importance of self-examination for early detection. Risk factors include undescended testes, which increase the risk by 10 times if bilateral. A previous history of testicular cancer carries a 4% risk of developing a second cancer. The usual presentation is a painless lump in the testis, which can also manifest as a secondary hydrocoele. Approximately 60% of cases are seminomas, which are slow-growing and typically confined to the testis at the time of diagnosis. Stage 1 seminomas have a 98% 5-year survival rate. Teratomas, which can grow more rapidly, account for 40% of cases and can occur alongside seminomas. Mixed type tumors are treated as teratomas due to their higher aggressiveness. Surgical intervention, with or without chemotherapy and radiotherapy, is the primary treatment approach.

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by an infection. The most common viral agent is mumps, while gonococci and coliforms are the most common bacterial agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old individual presents with a swollen and painful left knee. The symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old individual presents with a swollen and painful left knee. The symptoms started three days ago. There is no history of any injury, and a joint aspirate is sent for laboratory analysis. The aspirate reveals the presence of pus cells, positively birefringent crystals, and no organisms.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.

      Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old patient comes in with an arthropathy affecting his right knee. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient comes in with an arthropathy affecting his right knee. After sending a joint aspirate to the laboratory, a diagnosis of pseudogout is made. What type of crystals would you anticipate observing in the presence of pseudogout?

      Your Answer: Positively birefringent needle-shaped crystals

      Correct Answer: Positively birefringent brick-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.

      Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 10 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after falling...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after falling through the ice while playing on a frozen pond. The child was submerged up to his waist and it took his friends approximately 10-15 minutes to pull him out of the water completely. The child then spent an additional 10 minutes outside in wet clothes with an air temperature of -4ºC before an adult arrived and took him to the emergency department. A core temperature reading is taken and recorded as 29.6ºC. How would you best classify the patient?

      Your Answer: Moderate hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Moderate hypothermia is indicated by core temperatures ranging from 28-32ºC.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in depressed myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur...

    Correct

    • While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur does not radiate, and his pulse character is normal.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic sclerosis is a condition that occurs when the aortic valve undergoes senile degeneration. Unlike aortic stenosis, it does not result in any obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. To differentiate between aortic stenosis and aortic sclerosis, the following can be used:

      Feature: Aortic stenosis
      – Symptoms: Can be asymptomatic, but may cause angina, breathlessness, and syncope if severe.
      – Pulse: Slow rising, low volume pulse.
      – Apex beat: Sustained, heaving apex beat.
      – Thrill: Palpable thrill in the aortic area can be felt.
      – Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
      – Radiation: Radiates to carotids.

      Feature: Aortic sclerosis
      – Symptoms: Always asymptomatic.
      – Pulse: Normal pulse character.
      – Apex beat: Normal apex beat.
      – Thrill: No thrill.
      – Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
      – Radiation: No radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. The periods are not excessively painful. A recent ultrasound scan showed the presence of small fibroids, all measuring less than 2-3 cm in diameter. During the examination, a slightly enlarged uterus is palpated. The patient expresses a strong desire to start a family soon.
      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment option to consider in this case?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid is the best choice for this patient because her periods are heavy, but not very painful, and her fibroids are small. Additionally, she wants to start a family soon, so contraceptive options are not as suitable. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old man comes in with a painful swelling in his right groin....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with a painful swelling in his right groin. He had an appendicectomy 25 years ago and has no other medical history. You suspect it may be a hernia. The swelling gradually appears when he stands and can be pushed back in a upward and outward direction. It extends into his scrotum and is located above and towards the center of the pubic tubercle.
      What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Correct Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An inguinal hernia occurs when the contents of the abdominal cavity protrude through the inguinal canal. There are two main types of inguinal hernias: indirect and direct. Indirect hernias, which account for 75% of cases, originate lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and follow the path of the spermatic cord or round ligament through the internal inguinal ring and along the inguinal canal. On the other hand, direct hernias, which make up 25% of cases, originate medial to the inferior epigastric artery and protrude through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      Indirect inguinal hernias can be distinguished from direct hernias by several features. They have an elliptical shape, unlike the round shape of direct hernias. They are also less likely to be easily reducible and reduce spontaneously on reclining. Additionally, indirect hernias take longer to appear when standing compared to direct hernias, which appear immediately. They can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally, while direct hernias reduce superiorly and posteriorly. Pressure over the deep inguinal ring can control indirect hernias. However, they are more prone to strangulation due to the narrow neck of the deep inguinal ring and can extend into the scrotum.

      In contrast, a femoral hernia occurs when the abdominal cavity contents protrude through the femoral canal. These hernias occur below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, whereas inguinal hernias occur above and medial to the pubic tubercle. Femoral hernias are more easily visible when the patient is lying supine.

      A sports hernia, also known as athletic pubalgia, is characterized by chronic groin pain in athletes and the presence of a dilated superficial inguinal ring. However, there is no palpable hernia during examination.

      It is important to note that the hernia described here is not located near any scars, making it unlikely to be an incisional hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48 hours because his symptoms have not improved. Unfortunately, the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent to the lab are still unavailable. He has a history of chronic kidney disease, and his blood tests today show that his eGFR is 40 ml/minute. He has been taking trimethoprim 200 PO BD for the past two days.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Pivmecillinam

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) who are not pregnant, it is recommended to consider either a back-up antibiotic prescription or an immediate antibiotic prescription. This decision should take into account the severity of symptoms and the risk of developing complications, which is higher in individuals with known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or weakened immune systems. The evidence for back-up antibiotic prescriptions is limited to non-pregnant women with lower UTIs where immediate antibiotic treatment is not deemed necessary. It is also important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria. Ultimately, the preferences of the woman regarding antibiotic use should be taken into account.

      If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, it is crucial to review the choice of antibiotic once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.

      The following antibiotics are recommended for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and older:

      First-choice:
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
      – Trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if low risk of resistance*)

      Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice treatment for at least 48 hours, or if first-choice treatment is not suitable):
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
      – Pivmecillinam 400 mg initial dose taken orally, followed by 200 mg taken orally three times daily for 3 days
      – Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose

      *The risk of resistance may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (although this was not used), and in younger individuals in areas where local epidemiology data indicate low resistance rates. Conversely, the risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older individuals in residential facilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man experiences a sudden loss of vision in his left eye....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man experiences a sudden loss of vision in his left eye. He is later diagnosed with central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

      Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?

      Your Answer: It usually presents with sudden onset painful loss of vision

      Correct Answer: The pupil on the affected side is usually poorly reactive to light with a normal consensual light reaction

      Explanation:

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by sudden and painless loss of vision in the affected eye. It can occur due to emboli from atheromatous carotid arteries, thrombosis caused by arteriosclerosis or hypertension, or vasospasm resulting from giant cell arteritis. The pupil on the affected side typically shows poor reactivity to light, but the consensual light reaction remains normal. The typical retinal findings in CRAO include a pale retina due to edema, narrowed blood vessels, segmentation of blood columns in arteries (resembling cattle-trucking), and a cherry red spot indicating sparing of the macular center supplied by the underlying choroid. Over several weeks, optic atrophy may develop. Immediate referral to an eye specialist is necessary as CRAO is an ophthalmological emergency.

      On the other hand, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) leads to painless and unilateral visual loss. The retina in CRVO has a distinct appearance likened to a pizza thrown against a wall. Fundoscopic examination reveals engorged retinal veins, disc edema, multiple flame-shaped hemorrhages, and cotton wool spots.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old woman originally from South Sudan has developed a chronic skin condition....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman originally from South Sudan has developed a chronic skin condition. She has widespread areas of both hyper- and hypopigmented skin along with areas of skin atrophy and lichenification. The hypopigmented areas are mostly confined to her forearms. Over the past few years, her vision has gradually deteriorated, and she has now been registered blind.
      What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Schistosoma mansoni

      Correct Answer: Onchocerca volvulus

      Explanation:

      Onchocerciasis is a parasitic disease caused by the filarial nematode Onchocerca volvulus. It is transmitted through the bites of infected blackflies of Simulium species, which carry immature larval forms of the parasite from human to human.

      In the human body, the larvae form nodules in the subcutaneous tissue, where they mature to adult worms. After mating, the female adult worm can release up to 1000 microfilariae a day.

      Onchocerciasis is currently endemic in 30 African countries, Yemen, and a few isolated regions of South America. Approximately 37 million people worldwide are currently infected.

      Symptoms start to occur around a year after the patient is infected. The earliest symptom is usually an intensely itchy rash. Various skin manifestations occur, including scattered, red, pruritic papules (acute papular onchodermatitis), larger, chronic, hyperpigmented papules (chronic papular onchodermatitis), lichenified, oedematous, hyperpigmented papules and plaques (lichenified onchodermatitis), areas of skin atrophy with loss of elasticity (‘Lizard skin’), and depigmented areas with a ‘leopard skin appearance, usually on shins.

      Ocular involvement provides the common name associated with onchocerciasis, river blindness, and it can involve any part of the eye. Almost a million people worldwide have at least a partial degree of vision loss caused by onchocerciasis. Initially, there may be intense watering, foreign body sensation, and photophobia. This can progress to conjunctivitis, iridocyclitis, and chorioretinitis. Secondary glaucoma and optic atrophy may also occur.

      In a number of countries, onchocerciasis has been controlled through spraying of blackfly breeding sites with insecticide. The drug ivermectin is the preferred treatment for onchocerciasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man presents with a history of excessive urination and increased thirst....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a history of excessive urination and increased thirst. A diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is suspected.
      Select from the options below the SINGLE result that is most indicative of a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.

      Your Answer: An HbA1c of 6.2%

      Correct Answer: An HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      According to the 2011 recommendations from the World Health Organization (WHO), HbA1c can now be used as a diagnostic test for diabetes. However, this is only applicable if stringent quality assurance tests are in place and the assays are standardized to criteria aligned with international reference values. Additionally, accurate measurement of HbA1c is only possible if there are no conditions present that could hinder its accuracy.

      To diagnose diabetes using HbA1c, a value of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut-off point. It’s important to note that a value lower than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude the possibility of diabetes, as glucose tests are still necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

      When using glucose tests, the following criteria are considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus:
      – A random venous plasma glucose concentration greater than 11.1 mmol/l
      – A fasting plasma glucose concentration greater than 7.0 mmol/l
      – A two-hour plasma glucose concentration greater than 11.1 mmol/l, two hours after consuming 75g of anhydrous glucose in an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

      However, there are certain circumstances where HbA1c is not appropriate for diagnosing diabetes mellitus. These include:
      – ALL children and young people
      – Patients of any age suspected of having Type 1 diabetes
      – Patients with symptoms of diabetes for less than two months
      – Patients at high risk of diabetes who are acutely ill, such as those requiring hospital admission
      – Patients taking medication that may cause a rapid rise in glucose levels, such as steroids or antipsychotics
      – Patients with acute pancreatic damage, including those who have undergone pancreatic surgery
      – Pregnant individuals
      – Presence of genetic, hematologic, and illness-related factors that can influence HbA1c and its measurement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman who is 32-weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is brought...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 32-weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is brought in by ambulance after a car accident. She has noticeable bruising on her lower abdomen and is experiencing intense abdominal pain. During the examination, you are unable to feel the top of the uterus and can easily feel the baby's body parts. Blood samples have been sent to the lab and the patient has an IV line in place.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Uterine rupture can occur in two forms: primary, which happens without any previous uterine surgery or trauma, and secondary, which occurs when there is scar dehiscence. In secondary rupture, the rupture can range from the peritoneum to the endometrium, or the peritoneum may remain intact while the underlying uterine tissue ruptures.

      There are several risk factors associated with uterine rupture, including multiparity, a uterine scar from a previous Caesarean section, previous uterine surgery, dysfunctional labor, and augmented labor with medications like oxytocin or prostaglandins.

      The clinical features of uterine rupture include abdominal pain and tenderness, abdominal guarding and rigidity, inability to feel the uterine fundus (in cases of fundal rupture), cessation of uterine contractions, chest pain or shoulder tip pain, vaginal bleeding, abnormal fetal lie (such as oblique or transverse), easy palpation of fetal parts outside the uterus, absent fetal heart sounds, and abnormal CTG findings like late decelerations and reduced variability. Maternal shock can also occur and may be severe.

      Immediate resuscitation is crucial and should involve intravenous fluids and/or blood transfusion. This should be followed by a laparotomy. After the baby is delivered, the uterus should be repaired or a hysterectomy may be performed. The decision between these two management options depends on factors such as the site and extent of the rupture, as well as the mother’s condition, age, and parity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      123
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and increasing difficulty breathing. She...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and increasing difficulty breathing. She also complains of muscle aches and occasional joint pain, particularly in her knees and hips. She has a 40-pack-year smoking history. During the examination, you observe fine crackling sounds in the lower parts of her lungs when she exhales. Lung function testing reveals a decrease in the forced vital capacity (FVC) and the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), but a preserved FEV1/FVC ratio. A photo of her hands is provided below:
      What is the SINGLE most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      This patient’s clinical presentation is consistent with a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. The typical symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis include a dry cough, progressive breathlessness, arthralgia and muscle pain, finger clubbing (seen in 50% of cases), cyanosis, fine end-expiratory bibasal crepitations, and right heart failure and cor pulmonale in later stages.

      Finger clubbing, which is prominent in this patient, can also be caused by bronchiectasis and tuberculosis. However, these conditions would not result in a raised FEV1/FVC ratio, which is a characteristic feature of a restrictive lung disorder.

      In restrictive lung disease, the FEV1/FVC ratio is typically normal, around 70% predicted, while the FVC is reduced to less than 80% predicted. Both the FVC and FEV1 are generally reduced in this condition. The ratio can also be elevated if the FVC is reduced to a greater extent.

      It is important to note that smoking is a risk factor for developing idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, particularly in individuals with a history of smoking greater than 20 pack-years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old is brought into the resuscitation bay by ambulance after being found...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old is brought into the resuscitation bay by ambulance after being found unconscious at home. You observe that the patient has a medical history of hyperthyroidism and suspect thyroid storm after conducting a thorough assessment. Which of the following should NOT be administered immediately?

      Your Answer: Propylthiouracil

      Correct Answer: Lugol’s iodine

      Explanation:

      When treating thyroid storm, it is important to administer certain drugs immediately. These include a beta blocker like propranolol or a calcium channel blocker if a beta blocker cannot be used. Corticosteroids like hydrocortisone or dexamethasone are also given. Additionally, antithyroid drugs like propylthiouracil are administered. However, it is crucial to wait at least one hour after giving the antithyroid drugs before administering iodine solution such as Lugol’s iodine. This is because iodine can worsen thyrotoxicosis by stimulating thyroid hormone synthesis. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, inhibits the normal interactions of iodine and peroxidase with thyroglobulin, which is why it is given first and allowed time to take effect.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old man presents with a history of gradually worsening left-sided hearing loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a history of gradually worsening left-sided hearing loss and tinnitus. He also reports occasional episodes of dizziness. During the examination, his hearing is significantly reduced in the left ear, and the Weber's test shows lateralization to the right. Additionally, he experiences tingling sensations on the left side of his face and has decreased sensation on that side. The rest of his cranial nerve examination appears normal.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Correct Answer: Vestibular schwannoma

      Explanation:

      This patient has come in with a past medical history of hearing loss and ringing in the ears on the right side, along with a nerve problem in the right trigeminal nerve. These symptoms are consistent with a growth in the cerebellopontine angle, such as a vestibular schwannoma (also known as an acoustic neuroma).

      A vestibular schwannoma typically affects the 5th and 8th cranial nerves and is known to present with the following symptoms:

      – Gradually worsening hearing loss on one side
      – Numbness and tingling in the face
      – Ringing in the ears
      – Dizziness

      In some cases, the patient may also have a history of headaches, and in rare instances, the 7th, 9th, and 10th cranial nerves may be affected.

      It is recommended that this patient be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist or a neurosurgeon for further evaluation, which may include an MRI scan. The main treatment options for vestibular schwannoma include surgery, radiotherapy, and stereotactic radiosurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      250.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a respiratory infection comes in with excessive, foul-smelling diarrhea. After conducting tests, the patient is diagnosed with Clostridium Difficile diarrhea.
      What is the most effective measure to minimize transmission to other patients?

      Your Answer: Hand washing

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is Gram-positive, anaerobic, and capable of forming spores. When individuals take broad-spectrum antibiotics, it can disrupt the normal bacteria in their intestines, allowing C. difficile to multiply and cause C. difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD). This condition leads to inflammation and bleeding of the large intestine, resulting in a distinct pseudomembranous appearance. The main symptoms include abdominal cramps, bloody and/or watery diarrhea, and fever. It is worth noting that the majority of C. difficile infections occur in individuals aged 65 and above.

      To prevent the spread of C. difficile, it is crucial to practice proper hand hygiene. This involves washing hands with water and plain or antibacterial soap for 15 to 30 seconds after using the bathroom and before eating. Paying attention to areas such as the fingernails, between the fingers, and the wrists is essential. Thoroughly rinsing hands and drying them with a single-use towel is also recommended. Additionally, patients and their family members should remind healthcare providers to wash their hands regularly.

      While alcohol-based hand rubs can be effective against many bacteria, they may be less effective against C. difficile. Therefore, during an outbreak of C. difficile infection, it is advisable to use soap and running water instead.

      Taking precautions such as wearing an apron and gloves and isolating patients in separate rooms are important measures to prevent contact transmission. However, it is crucial to remember that these precautions will be ineffective if proper hand washing is neglected. Hand hygiene remains the primary and most crucial step in preventing the spread of C. difficile.

      When it comes to treatment, oral vancomycin is the recommended first-line option for C. difficile associated diarrhea. However, it is important to note that this treatment does not limit the spread of the bacteria from one patient to another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 14 year old presents to the emergency department with facial swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old presents to the emergency department with facial swelling and difficulty breathing. Anaphylaxis is diagnosed and initial treatment is given, resulting in a positive response. What is the minimum duration of observation recommended for individuals experiencing an anaphylactic reaction?

      Your Answer: 4 hours

      Correct Answer: 6 hours

      Explanation:

      Patients experiencing an anaphylactic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours. However, according to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), certain situations require a 24-hour observation period. These situations include patients with a history of biphasic reactions or known asthma, cases where there is a possibility of ongoing absorption of the allergen, limited access to emergency care, presentation during the evening or night, and severe reactions with a slow onset caused by idiopathic anaphylaxis. It is important to note that the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that patients under the age of 16 be admitted under the care of a pediatrician for observation.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It is characterized by a rapid onset and can lead to difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. In paediatrics, anaphylaxis is often caused by food allergies, with nuts being the most common trigger. Other causes include drugs and insect venom, such as from a wasp sting.

      When treating anaphylaxis, time is of the essence and there may not be enough time to look up medication doses. Adrenaline is the most important drug in managing anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary based on the age of the child. For children under 6 months, the dose is 150 micrograms, while for children between 6 months and 6 years, the dose remains the same. For children between 6 and 12 years, the dose is increased to 300 micrograms, and for adults and children over 12 years, the dose is 500 micrograms. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary.

      The preferred site for administering adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This ensures quick absorption and effectiveness of the medication. It is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for anaphylaxis management, as they have recently been updated.

      In some cases, it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis. This can help confirm the diagnosis and guide further management.

      Overall, prompt recognition and administration of adrenaline are crucial in managing anaphylaxis in paediatrics. Following the recommended doses and guidelines can help ensure the best outcomes for patients experiencing this severe allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You assess a patient who has experienced a minor antepartum bleeding. You have...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who has experienced a minor antepartum bleeding. You have a conversation with the obstetric team about the necessity of rhesus-D prophylaxis.
      Which ONE statement about anti-D is accurate?

      Your Answer: Routine antenatal prophylaxis is recommended for RhD negative women at 28 and 34 weeks

      Explanation:

      Anti-D is an antibody of the IgG class that targets the Rhesus D (RhD) antigen. It is specifically administered to women who are RhD negative, meaning they do not have the RhD antigen on their red blood cells. When a RhD negative woman is exposed to the blood of a RhD positive fetus, she may develop antibodies against RhD that can cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the fetus, leading to a condition called hemolytic disease of the newborn. Anti-D is given to bind to the fetal red blood cells in the mother’s circulation and neutralize them before an immune response is triggered.

      RhD should be administered in the event of a sensitizing event, which can include childbirth, antepartum hemorrhage, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, intrauterine death, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, or abdominal trauma. It is important to administer Anti-D as soon as possible after a sensitizing event, but it can still provide some benefit even if given outside of the recommended 72-hour window, according to the British National Formulary (BNF).

      For RhD negative women, routine antenatal prophylaxis with Anti-D is recommended at 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy, regardless of whether they have already received Anti-D earlier in the same pregnancy due to a sensitizing event.

      In cases of uncomplicated miscarriage before 12 weeks of gestation, confirmed by ultrasound, or mild and painless vaginal bleeding, prophylactic Anti-D is not necessary because the risk of feto-maternal hemorrhage is extremely low. However, in cases of therapeutic termination of pregnancy, whether through surgical or medical methods, confirmed RhD negative women who are not known to be sensitized to RhD should receive 250 IU of prophylactic Anti-D immunoglobulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man with a known history of lumbar radiculopathy causing neuropathic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a known history of lumbar radiculopathy causing neuropathic pain presents with an increase in his symptoms. He describes the pain as a severe burning sensation on the right side of his lower back and leg. You discuss his treatment options.
      Which of the following pharmacological therapies is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the management of neuropathic pain? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment for neuropathic pain includes options such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. The dosage should be adjusted based on how the individual responds to the medication and their ability to tolerate it. If the initial treatment does not provide relief or is not well tolerated, one of the remaining three medications can be considered as an alternative option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man who has recently undergone treatment for lymphoma presents with retrosternal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who has recently undergone treatment for lymphoma presents with retrosternal pain, dysphagia, and difficulty swallowing. Despite unsuccessful treatment, he has been informed that he only has a few months left to live.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      This patient’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of oesophageal candidiasis, which is commonly seen in patients undergoing treatment for haematopoietic or lymphatic malignancies.

      The classic combination of symptoms associated with oesophageal candidiasis includes dysphagia, odynophagia, and retrosternal pain. This infection can be life-threatening and often requires hospital admission.

      The recommended treatment for oesophageal candidiasis is as follows:

      – First-line treatment involves taking oral fluconazole at a daily dose of 200-400 mg.
      – If the patient is unable to tolerate oral treatment, intravenous fluconazole can be used instead.
      – Second-line treatment options include oral itraconazole, oral posaconazole, or intravenous or oral voriconazole.

      It is important to seek medical attention promptly for oesophageal candidiasis, as timely treatment is crucial in managing this potentially serious infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right testis that has been bothering him for the past five days. The pain has been increasing gradually and he has also noticed swelling in the affected testis. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 38.5°C and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis.
      What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.

      The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.

      Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.

      While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.

      Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.

      The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up in front of her, resulting in a collision. She visits the emergency department, reporting upper abdominal pain caused by the handlebars. You determine that a FAST scan is necessary. What is the main objective of performing a FAST scan for blunt abdominal trauma?

      Your Answer: Detect the presence of intraperitoneal fluid

      Explanation:

      The primary goal of performing a FAST scan in cases of blunt abdominal trauma is to identify the existence of intraperitoneal fluid. According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the purpose of using ultrasound in the initial evaluation of abdominal trauma is specifically to confirm the presence of fluid within the peritoneal cavity, with the assumption that it is blood. However, it is important to note that ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing injuries to solid organs or hollow viscus.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      5.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (3/3) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (4/4) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Surgical Emergencies (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/3) 33%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (2/3) 67%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Ear, Nose & Throat (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (0/1) 0%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Passmed