00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?

      Your Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      COPD is commonly associated with progressive hypoxemia. Oxygen administration reduces mortality rates in patients with advanced COPD because of the favourable effects on pulmonary hemodynamics.

      Long-term oxygen therapy improves survival 2-fold or more in hypoxemic patients with COPD, according to 2 landmark trials, the British Medical Research Council (MRC) study and the US National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute’s Nocturnal Oxygen Therapy Trial (NOTT). Hypoxemia is defined as PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood) of less than 55 mm Hg or oxygen saturation of less than 90%. Oxygen was used for 15-19 hours per day.

      Therefore, specialists recommend long-term oxygen therapy for patients with a PaO2 of less than 55 mm Hg, a PaO2 of less than 59 mm Hg with evidence of polycythaemia, or cor pulmonale. Patients should be evaluated after 1-3 months after initiating therapy, because some patients may not require long-term oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56 year old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old man who is a known alcoholic presents to the clinic with a fever and cough. Past medical history states that he has a long history of smoking and is found to have a cavitating lesion on his chest x-ray.   Which organism is least likely to be the cause of his pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterococcus faecalis

      Explanation:

      Cavitating pneumonia is a complication that can occur with a severe necrotizing pneumonia and in some publications it is used synonymously with the latter term. It is a rare complication in both children and adults. Albeit rare, cavitation is most commonly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, and less frequently Aspergillus spp., Legionella spp. and Staphylococcus aureus.

      In children, cavitation is associated with severe illness, although cases usually resolve without surgical intervention, and long-term follow-up radiography shows clear lungs without pulmonary sequelae
      Although the absolute cavitary rate may not be known, according to one series, necrotizing changes were seen in up to 6.6% of adults with pneumococcal pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae is another organism that is known to cause cavitation.

      Causative agents:
      Mycobacterium tuberculosis
      Klebsiella pneumoniae
      Streptococcus pneumoniae
      Staphylococcus aureus

      Enterococcus faecalis was not found to be a causative agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old gentleman presents with left-sided eye pain and diplopia for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman presents with left-sided eye pain and diplopia for the past 2 days. Examination of his eyes shows his pupils equal and reactive to light with no proptosis. There is however an apparent palsy of the 6th cranial nerve associated with a partial 3rd nerve palsy on the left side. Examining the remaining cranial demonstrates hyperaesthesia of the upper face on the left side. Where is the likely lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus

      Explanation:

      A lesion on the cavernous sinus would explain the palsy observed on the III and VI cranial nerves because the cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI pass through the cavernous sinus. Pain in the eye is due to the nearby ophthalmic veins that feeds the cavernous sinus. Additionally, the lesions in the other structures would have presented with pupil abnormalities and less localized pain and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant...

    Incorrect

    • There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days back. Which among the following statements is true regarding ezetimibe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption

      Explanation:

      Ezetimibe is a cholesterol-lowering agent that acts to prevent cholesterol absorption by directly inhibiting cholesterol receptors on enterocytes.
      It does not affect the absorption of drugs (e.g. digoxin, thyroxine) or fat-soluble vitamins (A, D and K) as the anion-exchange resins do. It does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
      The increased risk of myositis associated with the statins is not seen with ezetimibe.
      The most common adverse effects include headache, runny nose, and sore throat.
      Less common reactions include body aches, back pain, chest pain, diarrhoea, joint pain, fatigue, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to you three weeks after initiating metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. His body mass index is 27.5 kg/m^2. At a dose of 500mg TDS the patient has experienced significant diarrhoea. Even on reducing the dose to 500mg BD his symptoms persisted. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      Here, the patient seems to be intolerant to standard metformin. In such cases, modified-release preparations is considered as the most appropriate next step.
      There is some evidence that these produce fewer gastrointestinal side-effects in patients intolerant of standard-release metformin.

      Metformin is a biguanide and reduces blood glucose levels by decreasing the production of glucose in the liver, decreasing intestinal absorption and increasing insulin sensitivity.
      Metformin decreases both the basal and postprandial blood glucose.
      Other uses: In Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), Metformin decreases insulin levels, which then decreases luteinizing hormone and androgen levels. Thus acting to normalize the menstruation cycle.

      Note:
      Metformin is contraindicated in patients with severe renal dysfunction, which is defined as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) less than 30 ml/min/1.732m2.
      Metformin overdose has been associated with hypoglycaemia and lactic acidosis, for this reason, it has a black box warning for lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive, ANA: positive, CK: 2000 U/L, ESR: 60mm/hr, EMG: myopathic changes. Presence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.
      Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.
      It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in the morning. She looks anaemic, but rest of the examination is normal. Her GP has arranged for a urological examination, which has come out to be normal as well. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH). The classic sign of the disease is red discolouration of the urine due to the presence of haemoglobin and hemosiderin from the breakdown of red blood cells. As the urine is more concentrated in the morning, this is when the colour is most pronounced.

      PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combinations of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast. Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.

      Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.
      Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.

      Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.

      Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.

      Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.

      Treatment of opioid overdose:
      Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.
      Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.
      Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28 year old female hiker begins complaining of headache and nausea after...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female hiker begins complaining of headache and nausea after reaching a height of 5010 metres. Despite having the headache and feeling nauseous, she continues to hike but becomes progressively worse. She is seen staggering, complains of feeling dizzy and has an ataxic gait. Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Descent + dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      High Altitude Cerebral Oedema (HACE) is a severe and potentially fatal manifestation of high altitude illness and is often characterized by ataxia, fatigue, and altered mental status. HACE is often thought of as an extreme form/end-stage of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS). Although HACE represents the least common form of altitude illness, it may progress rapidly to coma and death as a result of brain herniation within 24 hours, if not promptly diagnosed and treated.

      HACE generally occurs after 2 days above 4000m but can occur at lower elevations (2500m) and with faster onset. Some, but not all, individuals will suffer from symptoms of AMS such as headache, insomnia, anorexia, nausea prior to transitioning to HACE. Some may also have concomitant High Altitude Pulmonary Oedema (HAPE). HACE in isolation is rare, but the absence of concomitant HAPE or symptoms of AMS prior to deterioration does not rule-out the presence of HACE.

      Most cases develop as a progression of AMS and will include a history of recent ascent to altitude and prior complaints/findings of AMS including a headache, fatigue, nausea, insomnia, and/or light-headedness. Some may also have signs/symptoms of HAPE. Transition to HACE is heralded by signs of encephalopathy including ataxia (usually the earliest clinical finding) and altered mentation which may range from mild to severe. Other symptoms may include a more severe headache, difficulty speaking, lassitude, a decline in the level of consciousness, and/or focal neurological deficits or seizures.

      The mainstay of treatment is the immediate descent of at least 1000m or until symptoms improve. If descent is not an option, one may use a portable hyperbaric chamber and/or supplemental oxygen to temporize illness, but this should never replace or delay evaluation/descent when possible. If available, dexamethasone 8mg for one dose, followed by 4mg every 6 hours should be given to adults via PO, IM, or IV routes.
      Acetazolamide has proven to be beneficial in only a single clinical study. The suggested dosing regimen for Acetazolamide is 250 mg PO, given twice daily. Though effective in alleviating or temporizing symptoms, none of the adjunct treatment modalities are definitive or a replacement for an immediate descent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago. His blood pressure was found to be 143/96mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found. Investigations;   Hb 11.9 g/dL, WCC 11.1 x109/L, PLT 190 x109/L, Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 105 μmol/L, CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion Aspergillus precipitins positive Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis...

    Incorrect

    • What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of mast-cell degranulation

      Explanation:

      Sodium cromoglycate principally acts by inhibiting the degranulation of mast cells triggered by the interaction of antigen and IgE.
      The inhibitory effect on mast cells appears to be cell-type specific since cromoglycate has little inhibitory effect on mediator release from human basophils.
      Thus, it inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes, and slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by inhibiting degranulation following exposure to reactive antigens.

      Adverse effects include cough, flushing, palpitation, chest pain, nasal congestion, nausea, fatigue, migraine, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years presents with worsening dyspnoea, fever and cough. He works at a foundry. Vitals are as follows: Respiratory rate: 28/min Heart rate: 80 bpm Temp: 37.6C Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crepitations throughout the lung fields. Calcified hilar nodules are visible on the chest X-ray. Further evaluation shows an eggshell calcification on HRCT. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Silicosis

      Explanation:

      Silicosis is a common occupational lung disease that is caused by the inhalation of crystalline silica dust. Silica is the most abundant mineral on earth. Workers that are involved for example in construction, mining, or glass production are among the individuals with the highest risk of developing the condition. Acute silicosis causes severe symptoms (e.g., exertional dyspnoea, cough with sputum) and has a very poor prognosis.
      Chronic silicosis has a very variable prognosis and affected individuals may remain asymptomatic for several decades. However, radiographic signs are usually seen early on. Typical radiographic findings are calcifications of perihilar lymph nodes, diffuse ground glass opacities, large numbers of rounded, solitary nodules or bigger, confluent opacities. Avoiding further exposure to silica is crucial, especially since the only treatment available is symptomatic (e.g., bronchodilators). Silicosis is associated with an increased risk of tuberculosis and lung cancer. Berylliosis typically affects individuals who are exposed to aerospace industry. Histoplasmosis and tuberculosis do not form eggshell calcifications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Female sex

      Explanation:

      Good prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q). This is the most common abnormality, seen in around 50% of all CLL patients. Poor prognosis of the disease is related to deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p). This is seen in around 5-10% of the patients suffering from CLL.

      Poor prognostic factors of CLL include:
      1. Male sex
      2. Age >70 years
      3. Lymphocyte count >50
      4. Prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes
      5. Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
      6. Raised LDH
      7. CD38 expression positive

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kidney size at ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The size of the kidneys on ultrasound would differentiate chronic from acute renal failures. Chronic renal failure is more associated with small-sized kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an intentional paracetamol overdose. He had taken 20x 500mg tablets, all at once. He denies any alcohol intake. Blood investigations 4 hours after ingestion showed: Paracetamol: 14 mg/l INR: 1 Liver enzymes: No abnormality detected Bilirubin: Mild elevation He was seen by the mental health team and discharged. The blood investigations were repeated: Bilirubin: Within normal limits Urea: 21 mmol/L, Creatinine: 300 µmol/L, What is the likely cause of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for these results is delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity.

      The blood investigations of this patient are highly suggestive of acute kidney injury.
      Paracetamol overdose is well known to cause hepatotoxicity, but not for its delayed nephrotoxicity, especially in significant overdose. Appropriate monitoring of a patient’s blood tests is important.

      Management:
      NAC (N-Acetyl cysteine) has a clear role in preventing acetaminophen-induced liver necrosis. Although NAC has not been proven to be harmful to the kidney, its role in patients without hepatoxicity and only isolated renal dysfunction is uncertain.

      Other options:
      -There are no features in the history that are suggestive of dehydration and pre-renal AKI presenting in this manner in a 25-year-old would be very unusual.
      – Minimal change nephropathy typically presents with a nephrotic picture of kidney injury.
      – Berger’s more commonly presents with isolated haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. His HbA1c is elevated at 64 mmol/mol despite taking 1g of metformin BD. On examination, his blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, his pulse is 82 beats per minute and regular. His BMI is 33 kg/m². A decision is made to start him on dapagliflozin. Which of the following would you expect on starting therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased total cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dapagliflozin works by inhibiting sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and blocking resorption of glucose in the kidney, leading to an increase in urinary glucose excretion and lowering of both plasma glucose levels and body weight.
      All studies with SGLT2 inhibitors have found significant reductions in BP, with greater reductions seen in systolic (1.66 to 6.9mmHg) than diastolic (0.88 to 3.5mmHg) BP.
      While some trials have shown no change in lipid parameters, others have shown a modest but statistically significant increase in both HDL and LDL cholesterol with no effect on triglycerides or the LDL/HDL ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher mortality in pregnant than non-pregnant females?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Pregnant patient in a third world country with hepatitis: The answer is most likely Hepatitis E. The mortality for Hepatitis E in pregnant women is very high. It is transmitted faecal-orally. There is no hepatitis G. Hepatitis C, B, A are less likely to be the correct answer than E given it’s classic association with pregnancy and poor living conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 19-year-old male presented with a fever and fatigue. On examination, he had...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presented with a fever and fatigue. On examination, he had multiple lesions on his back and abdomen in various forms. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster

      Explanation:

      Patients with varicella zoster infection present with general fatigue and fever along with multiple lesions which do not appear to be identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 60 year old male patient with a history of heavy smoking was...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male patient with a history of heavy smoking was admitted complaining of acute severe central chest pain for the past one hour. His blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His peripheral oxygen saturation was 93%. ECG showed ST elevation > 2mm in lead II, III and aVF. He was given loading doses of aspirin, clopidogrel and atorvastatin and face mask oxygen was given. Which one of the following investigations should be done and then depending on result, definitive treatment can be initiated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      The history and ECG findings are adequate to begin cardiac revascularization of this patient. There is no need for cardiac markers to confirm the diagnosis. Further delay in starting definite treatment is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 75-year-old retired tailor is examined for involuntary, jerking movements of his arms....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old retired tailor is examined for involuntary, jerking movements of his arms. His symptoms seem to resolve when he is asleep. Damage to which one of the following structures may lead to hemiballism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subthalamic nucleus

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus or hemiballism in its unilateral form is a very rare movement disorder. It is a type of chorea caused in most cases by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, resulting in the appearance of flailing, ballistic, undesired movements of the limbs. Symptoms may decrease while the patient is asleep. Antidopaminergic agents (e.g. Haloperidol) are the mainstay of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has squamous-cell carcinoma of his lower lip. Which of the following is most likely to be a feature of this type of carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is capable of metastasising via the lymphatics

      Explanation:

      Squamous-cell skin cancer usually presents as a hard lump with a scaly top but can also form an ulcer. Onset is often over months and it is more likely to spread to distant areas than basal cell cancer vie the lymphatics. The greatest risk factor is high total exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. Other risks include prior scars, chronic wounds, actinic keratosis, lighter skin, Bowen’s disease, arsenic exposure, radiation therapy, poor immune system function, previous basal cell carcinoma, and HPV infection. While prognosis is usually good, if distant spread occurs five-year survival is ,34%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Out of the following, which tumour cells are found in patients with Hodgkin...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which tumour cells are found in patients with Hodgkin disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reed-Sternberg cells

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of Hodgkin disease requires the identification of Reed-Sternberg cells in a characteristic cellular background. The normal cell of origin for the Reed-Sternberg cells remains unclear, with the predominance of evidence indicating a B or T lymphocyte.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old professor presents with visual problems. He has had very poor vision in the dark for a long time but is now worried as he is developing 'tunnel vision'. He states his grandfather had a similar problem and went blind in his 50's. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision. Night blindness is often the initial sign. Tunnel vision occurs due to loss of the peripheral retina (occasionally referred to as funnel vision).
      Fundoscopy exam reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina, and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male patient with schizophrenia complained of chest pain and palpitations. His ECG revealed torsades de pointes ventricular tachycardia. He was on thioridazine for schizophrenia. What is the most appropriate management for his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium

      Explanation:

      Thioridazine has a quinidine-like action on the heart and is known to cause cardiac arrhythmias including prolonged PR and QT intervals and widening of QRS complexes. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is regarded as the treatment of choice for this arrhythmia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65 yr. old woman was referred due to a pulse rate of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old woman was referred due to a pulse rate of 40 bpm. Which of the following answers is associated with the least risk of asystole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS

      Explanation:

      From the given answers, complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS complex is associated with the least risk of asystole. Transvenous pacing is indicated by the other given responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
      The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed