-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his friends after they discovered he had ingested an excessive amount of medication. The patient seems disoriented. The friends inform you that he had consumed 4 bottles (120 tablets) of 500 mg ibuprofen tablets. The initial ibuprofen level is reported as 600 mg/L. What level of ibuprofen toxicity does this indicate?
Your Answer: Severe
Correct Answer: Moderate
Explanation:The classification of severity in salicylate overdose can sometimes be confused by mixing up the ingested dose and the measured plasma salicylate level. To clarify, when using the blood salicylate level, moderate toxicity is indicated by a level of 350-700 mg/L, while severe toxicity is indicated by a level exceeding 700 mg/L.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma..
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the ECG in atrial fibrillation?Your Answer: Ashman beats have a poor prognosis
Explanation:The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.
In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.
The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman with no permanent residence sustains a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.
During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.
Which medication has caused the onset of this condition?Your Answer: Drug-induced Parkinsonism
Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.
This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.
If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.
Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 62-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. He is a non-drinker.
His venous bloods are shown below:
Hb: 13.5 g/dL
White cell count: 14.2 x 109/L
Blood glucose 7.9 mmol/L
AST 275 IU/L
LDH 290 IU/L
Amylase: 980 IU/L
What is his Ranson score at admission?Your Answer: Three
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause the organ to digest itself. The symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and pain that may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or shoulder tip due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Other signs include fever, tenderness in the epigastric area, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner and Cullen signs, which are ecchymosis of the flank and peri-umbilical area, respectively.
To determine the severity of acute pancreatitis, the Ranson criteria are used as a clinical prediction rule. A score greater than three indicates severe pancreatitis with a mortality rate of over 15%. The criteria assessed upon admission include age over 55 years, white cell count above 16 x 109/L, blood glucose level higher than 11 mmol/L, serum AST level exceeding 250 IU/L, and serum LDH level surpassing 350 IU/L.
In this particular case, the patient’s Ranson score is three. This is based on the fact that she is 56 years old, her white cell count is 16.7 x 109/L, and her AST level is 358 IU/L.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
You are asked to review a 7-year-old girl that is feeling sick in the Paediatric Emergency Department. You observe from her urea & electrolytes that her potassium is elevated at 6.2 mmol/l.
What is the most frequent cause of hyperkalaemia in children?Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Correct Answer: Renal failure
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by a high level of potassium in the blood, specifically a plasma potassium level greater than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be further classified into three categories based on the severity of the condition. Mild hyperkalaemia refers to a potassium level ranging from 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, while moderate hyperkalaemia is defined as a potassium level between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l. Severe hyperkalaemia is indicated by a potassium level exceeding 6.5 mmol/l.
The most common cause of hyperkalaemia in renal failure, which can occur either acutely or chronically. However, there are other factors that can contribute to this condition as well. These include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.
Overall, hyperkalaemia is a medical condition that requires attention and management, as it can have significant implications for the body’s normal functioning.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 35 year old man presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening difficulty breathing that has been developing over the last 2 days. His partner mentioned that he looked pale. He informs you that he usually doesn't take any medications but started taking chloroquine for malaria prevention 5 days ago as he is planning to travel to Kenya next week. His oxygen saturation is 89% on room air and you observe that he appears bluish in color. Upon obtaining a blood gas, you notice that his blood has a chocolate-like hue. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Methaemoglobinaemia
Explanation:Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition characterized by various symptoms such as headache, anxiety, acidosis, arrhythmia, seizure activity, reduced consciousness or coma. One notable feature is the presence of brown or chocolate coloured blood. It is important to note that the patient is taking chloroquine, which is a known trigger for methaemoglobinaemia. Additionally, despite the condition, the patient’s arterial blood gas analysis shows a normal partial pressure of oxygen.
Further Reading:
Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.
Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.
Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.
Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.
Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has ingested a significant amount of aspirin.
Which acid-base disorder would you anticipate to be present during the advanced stages of an aspirin overdose?Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation:An overdose of aspirin often leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the stimulation of the respiratory center causes hyperventilation and results in respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acidic effects of aspirin cause an increase in the anion gap and metabolic acidosis.
Here is a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders:
Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation due to factors such as anxiety, pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, and the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis can occur in individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), life-threatening asthma, pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opioids or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular diseases, and obesity.
Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can result from conditions such as lactic acidosis (caused by factors like hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or tissue infarction), ketoacidosis (associated with diabetes, starvation, or excessive alcohol consumption), renal failure, and poisoning (including the late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be seen in renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, and adrenal insufficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman comes in with a frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She has engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a new partner within the past few months. During speculum examination, you observe a cervix that appears strawberry-colored.
What is the MOST suitable treatment option?Your Answer: Penicillin
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Trichomonas vaginalis (TV) is a highly prevalent sexually transmitted disease that affects individuals worldwide. This disease is caused by a parasitic protozoan organism that can survive without the presence of mitochondria or peroxisomes. The risk of contracting TV increases with the number of sexual partners one has. It is important to note that men can also be affected by this disease, experiencing conditions such as prostatitis or urethritis.
The clinical features of TV can vary. Surprisingly, up to 70% of patients may not exhibit any symptoms at all. However, for those who do experience symptoms, they may notice a frothy or green-yellow discharge with a strong odor. Other symptoms may include vaginitis and inflammation of the cervix, which can give it a distinctive strawberry appearance. In pregnant individuals, TV can lead to complications such as premature labor and low birth weight.
Diagnosing TV can sometimes occur incidentally during routine smear tests. However, if a patient is symptomatic, the diagnosis is typically made through vaginal swabs for women or penile swabs for men. Treatment for TV usually involves taking metronidazole, either as a 400 mg dose twice a day for 5-7 days or as a single 2 g dose. It is worth noting that the single dose may have more gastrointestinal side effects. Another antibiotic option is tinidazole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with type B Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You conduct an ECG.
Which of the following ECG characteristics is NOT observed in type B Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?Your Answer: QRS complex predominantly negative in leads V1 and V2
Correct Answer: Dominant R wave in V1
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 45-year-old man receives a blood transfusion for anemia secondary to gastrointestinal bleeding. During the transfusion, he complains of experiencing alternating sensations of heat and cold during the second unit, and his temperature is measured at 38.1ºC. His temperature before the transfusion was measured at 37ºC. He feels fine otherwise and does not have any other symptoms.
Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to have taken place?Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and adverse reactions still occur. One common adverse reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which present as an unexpected rise in temperature during or after transfusion. This can be caused by cytokine accumulation or recipient antibodies reacting to donor antigens. Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is supportive, and other potential causes should be ruled out.
Another serious complication is acute haemolytic reaction, which is often caused by ABO incompatibility due to administration errors. This reaction requires the transfusion to be stopped and IV fluids to be administered. Delayed haemolytic reactions can occur several days after a transfusion and may require monitoring and treatment for anaemia and renal function. Allergic reactions, TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury), TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload), and GVHD (Graft-vs-Host Disease) are other potential complications that require specific management approaches.
In summary, blood transfusion carries risks and potential complications, but efforts have been made to improve safety procedures. It is important to be aware of these complications and to promptly address any adverse reactions that may occur during or after a transfusion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man comes in with a complaint of headache, fever, and growing drowsiness. He recently had a flu-like illness but his condition worsened this morning, prompting his partner to call for the GP. He exhibits significant neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. During the examination, you observe a petechial rash on his abdomen.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia
Explanation:This woman is displaying symptoms and signs that are in line with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. In the United Kingdom, the majority of cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.
The implementation of a vaccination program for Neisseria meningitidis group C has significantly reduced the prevalence of this particular type. However, a vaccine for group B disease is currently undergoing clinical trials and is not yet accessible for widespread use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills 45 minutes ago following a heated dispute with their partner. The patient reports consuming approximately 30 tablets in total, consisting of four or five different types. These tablets were sourced from their grandparents medication, although the patient is uncertain about their specific names. They mention the possibility of one tablet being called bisoprolol. What is the recommended antidote for beta-blocker toxicity?
Your Answer: Cyproheptadine
Correct Answer: Glucagon
Explanation:Glucagon is the preferred initial treatment for beta-blocker poisoning when there are symptoms of slow heart rate and low blood pressure.
Further Reading:
Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.
In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.
Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.
Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.
Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.
There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain associated with increased abdominal swelling, fever and vomiting. You note the patient has a long history of drug abuse and is well known to the local gastroenterology team who have diagnosed her with liver cirrhosis. You are concerned the patient may have developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP).
What is the most commonly identified causative pathogen in patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:The most commonly identified causative pathogen in patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is Escherichia coli. SBP is a serious infection that occurs in individuals with liver cirrhosis, where bacteria from the gut migrate into the peritoneal cavity, leading to infection and inflammation. E. coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines and is known to be a frequent cause of SBP. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat SBP to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A child develops a palsy of their right arm following a difficult birth. During the examination, it is observed that there is a lack of shoulder abduction, external rotation, and elbow flexion. The arm is visibly hanging with the elbow extended and the forearm pronated.
Which nerve root is most likely to have been affected in this situation?Your Answer: T1
Correct Answer: C5
Explanation:Erb’s palsy, also known as Erb-Duchenne palsy, is a condition where the arm becomes paralyzed due to an injury to the upper roots of the brachial plexus. The primary root affected is usually C5, although C6 may also be involved in some cases. The main cause of Erb’s palsy is when the arm experiences excessive force during a difficult childbirth, but it can also occur in adults as a result of shoulder trauma.
Clinically, the affected arm will hang by the side with the elbow extended and the forearm turned inward (known as the waiter’s tip sign). Upon examination, there will be a loss of certain movements:
– Shoulder abduction (involving the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles)
– Shoulder external rotation (infraspinatus muscle)
– Elbow flexion (biceps and brachialis muscles)It is important to differentiate Erb’s palsy from Klumpke’s palsy, which affects the lower roots of the brachial plexus (C8 and T1). Klumpke’s palsy presents with a claw hand due to paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles, along with sensory loss along the ulnar side of the forearm and hand. If T1 is affected, there may also be the presence of Horner’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 32 year old male attends the emergency department following a fall in which he sustained a minor head injury. You observe that the patient is a Ukrainian refugee and has recently arrived in the UK. During the assessment, you notice a significant goitre. Upon checking his thyroid function, it confirms hypothyroidism. What is the most probable reason for his hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Graves' disease
Correct Answer: Iodine deficiency
Explanation:Iodine deficiency is a widespread issue globally and is the leading cause of hypothyroidism worldwide. It is particularly prevalent in numerous African countries, as well as in developed nations such as Norway, Germany, Russia, and Ukraine. In the UK, however, autoimmune thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old Irish woman comes to you with a complaint of increasing shortness of breath. During the interview, she mentions that she has been experiencing joint pain and painful skin lesions on her shins for the past few months. A chest X-ray is performed and shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bronchial asthma
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:The patient presents with a medical history and physical examination findings that are consistent with a diagnosis of Löfgren’s syndrome, which is a specific subtype of sarcoidosis. This syndrome is most commonly observed in women in their 30s and 40s, and it is more prevalent among individuals of Nordic and Irish descent.
Löfgren’s syndrome is typically characterized by a triad of clinical features, including bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy seen on chest X-ray, erythema nodosum, and arthralgia, with a particular emphasis on ankle involvement. Additionally, other symptoms commonly associated with sarcoidosis may also be present, such as a dry cough, breathlessness, fever, night sweats, malaise, weight loss, Achilles tendonitis, and uveitis.
In order to further evaluate this patient’s condition, it is recommended to refer them to a respiratory specialist for additional investigations. These investigations may include measuring the serum calcium level, as it may be elevated, and assessing the serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level, which may also be elevated. A high-resolution CT scan can be performed to assess the extent of involvement and identify specific lymph nodes for potential biopsy. If there are any atypical features, a lymph node biopsy may be necessary. Lung function tests can be conducted to evaluate the patient’s vital capacity, and an MRI scan of the ankles may also be considered.
Fortunately, the prognosis for Löfgren’s syndrome is generally very good, and it is considered a self-limiting and benign condition. The patient can expect to recover within a timeframe of six months to two years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents after her granddaughter is diagnosed with chickenpox. Her granddaughter has spent the weekend staying with her, and she had close contact with her. She has been taking 50 mg of prednisolone once daily for six months. She has never had chickenpox herself.
Which ONE statement regarding her care is accurate?Your Answer: She should receive prophylactic varicella zoster Immunoglobulin (VZIG)
Explanation:Prophylactic VZIG is recommended for individuals at high risk who have had a significant exposure to varicella-zoster but have no known immunity (meaning they have not had chickenpox before). High-risk groups include neonates, pregnant women, the immunocompromised, and those on high dose steroids. For children on more than 2 mg/kg/day for more than 14 days, or adults on 40 mg/day for more than a week, it is important to temporarily increase their steroid dose during times of infection or stress. Stopping or reducing the dose of prednisolone would not be appropriate in this case. This patient is at high risk of adrenal insufficiency. Severe varicella infection can occur, leading to complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and DIC. It is important to note that varicella infection may not present with the typical rash and can have atypical or insidious symptoms. If a patient on high dose steroids develops varicella infection, they should be admitted for specialist review and receive intravenous aciclovir.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the medication she takes for insomnia. She tells you that the medication she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She took the medication about 2 hours ago. She is now hypotensive, with her most recent blood pressure reading being 82/56 mmHg. She weighs 70 kg.
The consultant in charge suggests that you administer a bolus dose of calcium to increase her blood pressure. Which of the following should you administer?Your Answer: 10% calcium chloride 100 mL IV
Correct Answer: 10% calcium chloride 20 mL IV
Explanation:Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.
When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.
The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:
1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.
2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.
3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.
4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.
5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.
6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. He was recently prescribed bendroflumethiazide.
What is the most frequently observed side effect of bendroflumethiazide?Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Common side effects of bendroflumethiazide include postural hypotension, electrolyte disturbance (such as hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypercalcaemia), impaired glucose tolerance, gout, impotence, and fatigue. Rare side effects of bendroflumethiazide include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitive rash, pancreatitis, and renal failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department by a family member with a 2 day history of nausea and vomiting. On initial assessment the patient appears disoriented. Observations reveal the patient to have a heart rate of 140 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. You contemplate the possibility of Addison's disease. What is the primary cause of Addison's disease in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis
Explanation:Addison’s disease is primarily caused by tuberculosis, making it the most prevalent factor worldwide.
Further Reading:
Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.
The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.
Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old doctor that works in your department has recently come back from a visit to India and has been having diarrhea 5-10 times per day for the past week. They are also experiencing mild stomach cramps and occasional fevers but have not vomited.
What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?Your Answer: Vibrio cholerae
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Traveller’s diarrhoea (TD) is a prevalent illness that affects travellers all around the globe. It is estimated that up to 50% of Europeans who spend two or more weeks in developing regions experience this condition. TD is characterized by the passage of three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period. Alongside this, individuals often experience abdominal cramps, nausea, and bloating.
Bacteria are the primary culprits behind approximately 80% of TD cases, while viruses and protozoa account for the remaining cases. Among the various organisms, Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC) is the most frequently identified cause.
In summary, TD is a common ailment that affects travellers, manifesting as loose stools, abdominal discomfort, and other associated symptoms. Bacterial infections, particularly ETEC, are the leading cause of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 68 year old man presents to the emergency department due to increasing confusion and drowsiness over the past few days. The patient's wife tells you the patient has had a cough for the past week and apart from lisinopril takes no other regular medication. On examination you note cool extremities, diffuse non-pitting oedema and reduced tendon reflexes. Observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 100/64 mmHg
Pulse 44 bpm
Respiration rate 10 bpm
Temperature 34.3ºC
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Myxoedema coma
Explanation:Patients who have myxoedema coma usually show symptoms such as lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, worsening mental state, seizures, and/or coma. This patient has hypothyroidism and takes thyroxine regularly, which aligns with the signs and symptoms of myxoedema coma. It is worth noting that infections often act as a trigger, and this patient has developed a cough in the last week.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a car crash. There is significant bruising on the right side of the chest. You suspect the patient has a haemothorax. What are the two main objectives in managing this condition?
Your Answer: Provision of analgesia and supplemental oxygen
Correct Answer: Replace lost circulating blood volume and decompression of the pleural space
Explanation:The main objectives in managing haemothorax are to restore the lost blood volume and relieve pressure in the pleural space. These actions are crucial for improving the patient’s oxygen levels.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following features is LEAST indicative of this condition?Your Answer: Focal seizures
Explanation:NICE has emphasized that certain indications and manifestations may indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of fever. For instance, symptoms such as neck stiffness, bulging fontanelle, decreased level of consciousness, and convulsive status epilepticus are suggestive of bacterial meningitis. On the other hand, NICE has identified focal seizures and focal neurological signs as the most indicative of herpes simplex encephalitis. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of low back pain and numbness in both feet. Three days ago, she had felt a sharp, shooting pain in her back after lifting a heavy box at work. The pain had worsened over the past three days, and she has now developed weakness in her left leg. She is also complaining of some difficulty passing urine. Her past medical history includes a laminectomy for a herniated lumbar disc four years previously. Her examination revealed normal power in her right leg but reduced power in the left leg. Motor strength was reduced to 3 out of 5 in the hamstrings, 2 out of 5 in the ankle and toe plantar flexors and 0 out of 5 in the ankle dorsiflexors and extensor hallucis longus. Her ankle and Achilles tendon reflexes were absent on the left-hand side. Sensory examination revealed reduced sensation in the left calf, left foot, vulva, and perianal area. Rectal examination revealed reduced sphincter tone.
What is the gold-standard investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Plain radiograph of back
Correct Answer: MRI scan of the spine
Explanation:Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious complication that can occur when a disc ruptures. This happens when the material from the disc is pushed into the spinal canal and puts pressure on the bundle of nerves in the lower back and sacrum. As a result, individuals may experience loss of control over their bladder and bowel functions.
There are certain red flags that may indicate the presence of CES. These include experiencing sciatica on both sides of the body, having severe or worsening neurological issues in both legs (such as significant weakness in knee extension, ankle eversion, or foot dorsiflexion), difficulty starting urination or a decreased sensation of urinary flow, loss of sensation in the rectum, experiencing numbness or tingling in the perianal, perineal, or genital areas (also known as saddle anesthesia or paresthesia), and having a lax anal sphincter.
Conus medullaris syndrome (CMS) is a condition that affects the conus medullaris, which is located above the cauda equina at the T12-L2 level. Unlike CES, CMS primarily causes back pain and may have less noticeable nerve root pain. The main symptoms of CMS are urinary retention and constipation.
To confirm a diagnosis of CES and determine the level of compression and any underlying causes, an MRI scan is considered the gold-standard investigation. In cases where an MRI is not possible or contraindicated, a CT myelogram or standard CT scans can be helpful. However, plain radiographs have limited value and may only show significant degenerative or traumatic bone diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of worsening wheezing for the past three days. She has a history of seasonal allergies during the spring months, which have been more severe than usual in recent weeks. Upon listening to her chest, you can hear scattered polyphonic wheezes. Her peak flow at the time of presentation is 280 L/min, and her personal best peak flow is 550 L/min.
What classification would you assign to this asthma exacerbation?Your Answer: Life-threatening asthma
Correct Answer: Acute severe asthma
Explanation:This man is experiencing an acute episode of asthma. His initial peak flow measurement is 46% of his best, indicating a severe exacerbation. According to the BTS guidelines, acute asthma can be classified as moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, or near-fatal.
Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) between 50-75% of the individual’s best or predicted value. There are no signs of acute severe asthma in this case.
Acute severe asthma is identified by any one of the following criteria: a PEFR between 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate over 110 beats per minute, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.
Life-threatening asthma is indicated by any one of the following: a PEFR below 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 92%, arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) below 8 kPa, normal arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) between 4.6-6.0 kPa, a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension.
Near-fatal asthma is characterized by elevated PaCO2 levels and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with increased inflation pressures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the road and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
According to the ATLS guidelines, what other medication should be administered?Your Answer: Aprotinin
Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man with a long-standing history of mental health issues, including bipolar disorder and anxiety, comes in alone expressing worries about his memory. He reports struggling to recall where he has placed items around his home and occasionally forgetting the names of his acquaintances. This onset occurred abruptly one week ago, and he emphasizes the significant impact it is having on his daily life.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Huntington’s disease
Correct Answer: Pseudodementia
Explanation:Pseudodementia, also known as depression-related cognitive dysfunction, is a condition where there is a temporary decline in cognitive function alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. While depression is the most common cause, it can also be observed in various psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and hysteria. Fortunately, this condition is reversible with treatment of the underlying psychiatric issue. However, it is important to note that pseudodementia is associated with a relatively high risk of suicide.
There are several features that are indicative of a diagnosis of pseudodementia. These include a history of a psychiatric condition, a sudden onset of symptoms, the presence of insight into one’s condition, a tendency to emphasize disability, and the absence of changes in cognition during nighttime. By recognizing these characteristics, healthcare professionals can better identify and address this condition.
Overall, pseudodementia is a temporary decline in cognitive function that occurs alongside a functional psychiatric disorder. It is important to seek appropriate treatment for the underlying psychiatric condition in order to reverse the cognitive decline. Additionally, it is crucial to be aware of the increased risk of suicide associated with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 6 month old girl is brought into the emergency department with a history of being submerged in the pool while swimming with her parents. One of the parents explains that the child was floating on a pool noodle when a wave hit, causing the child to fall off the noodle. The child was not wearing any flotation devices and it took approximately 1 minute to find and rescue her from the water. Your consultant mentions that the child's diving reflex would have been activated. Which of the following statements accurately describes the diving reflex?
Your Answer: Stimulated by increased pressure on the tympanic membrane during submersion
Correct Answer: Results in peripheral vasoconstriction
Explanation:The diving reflex occurs when the face comes into contact with cold water, leading to apnoea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction. This response helps decrease the workload on the heart, lower oxygen demand in the heart muscle, and ensure adequate blood flow to the brain and vital organs. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is responsible for transmitting sensory information, while the vagus nerve (CN X) primarily controls the motor response. This reflex is more prominent in young children and is believed to contribute to their improved survival rates in prolonged submersion in cold water.
Further Reading:
Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.
When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.
Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.
Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.
Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 67 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned neighbors. They inform you that the patient is frequently intoxicated, but this morning they discovered him wandering in the street and he appeared extremely disoriented and unstable, which is out of character for him. Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, you observe that he has been experiencing abnormal liver function tests for several years and a history of alcohol abuse has been documented. You suspect that the underlying cause of his condition is Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1 deficiency
Explanation:Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological condition that occurs due to a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1). It is characterized by symptoms such as confusion, difficulty with coordination, low body temperature, low blood pressure, involuntary eye movements, and vomiting.
Further Reading:
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)