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Question 1
Incorrect
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A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h. Which of the following categories of people should be administered immunoglobulin only?
Your Answer: All children
Correct Answer: All pregnant women who are tested negative for antibodies.
Explanation:Immunoglobulin should be given to all seronegative women within 4 days. However, it is strongly advised to seek medical care immediately if the disease develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?
Your Answer: C-reactive protein
Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres
Explanation:A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.
In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.
A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.
Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He responded to treatment but the medical intern was concerned that Aspergillus fumigatus was cultured from his sputum. Â Subsequently arranged serum total, IgE level was elevated at 437 ng/ml (normal 40-180 ng/ml), RAST to Aspergillus fumigatus was class III, Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins were negative. Â What would be the most appropriate management step in this patient?
Your Answer: Itraconazole
Correct Answer: No change in medication
Explanation:Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.
Blood tests are used to look for signs of an allergic reaction. This includes evaluating your immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. This level is increased with any type of allergy. Many people with asthma have higher than normal IgE levels. In ABPA however, the IgE level is extremely high (more than 1000 ng/ml or 417 IU/ml). In addition to total IgE, all patients with ABPA have high levels of IgE that is specific to Aspergillus. A blood test can be done to measure specific IgE to Aspergillus. A blood or skin test for IgE antibodies to Aspergillus can be done to see if a person is sensitized (allergic) to this fungus. If these skin tests are negative (i.e. does not show a skin reaction) to Aspergillus fumigatus, the person usually does not have ABPA.
Therefore, there should be no change in medication since this patient does not have ABPA. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Correct
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A 23 year old girl presented with complaints of diplopia on looking towards her right side. Which of the nerves will be effected?
Your Answer: Right abducens
Explanation:This patient has complaints of diplopia in the right eye, when looking towards the right. Eyeball movements towards the right side are controlled by right lateral rectus muscle which is supplied by the abducent nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhoea associated with systemic upset. Blood tests show the following: Hb 13.4 g/dL, Platelets 467 * 109/L, WBC 8.2 * 109/L, CRP 89 mg/l A diagnosis of ulcerative colitis is suspected. Which part of the bowel is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Terminal ileum
Correct Answer: Rectum
Explanation:The most COMMON site of inflammation from ulcerative colitis is the rectum, making this the correct answer. This is simply a fact you need to memorize. In general, ulcerative colitis only occurs in colorectal regions– nothing in the small bowel (unless there is backwash into the terminal ileum) and nothing further up the GI tract. In Crohn’s it can affect the entire GI tract from mouth to anus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Symptomatic patient with fasting glucose 6.8 mmol/L on two occasions
Correct Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion
Explanation:Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes
1. A1C ≥6.5%. The test should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is certified and standardized.*
OR
2. Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/l). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h.*
OR
3. 2-h plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l) during an OGTT. The test should be performed as described by the World Health Organization, using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.*
OR
4. In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crisis, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l).
*In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycaemia, criteria 1–3 should be confirmed by repeat testing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman is concerned about osteoporosis as she as a strong family history of it. She is one year postmenopausal and aware of hot flushes at night. Which one of the following therapies would be most appropriate?
Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplements
Correct Answer: Cyclical oestrogen and progestogen
Explanation:As the patient has early menopause, hormone replacement therapy (HT) is considered to be the first line of choice for prevention of bone loss and fracture in the early postmenopausal period for 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome 10 years ago and takes mebeverine, peppermint tablets and Gaviscon. She is a vegetarian and rarely drinks or smokes. Examination of all systems is normal. Her blood tests show macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dyspepsia overlapped with irritable bowel syndrome
Correct Answer: Zollinger–Ellison syndrome
Explanation:This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which one of the following types of thyroid cancer is associated with the RET oncogene?
Your Answer: Follicular
Correct Answer: Medullary
Explanation:RET (rearranged during transfection) is a receptor tyrosine kinase involved in the development of neural crest derived cell lineages, kidney, and male germ cells. Different human cancers, including papillary and medullary thyroid carcinomas, lung adenocarcinomas, and myeloproliferative disorders display gain-of-function mutations in RET.
In over 90% of cases, MEN2 syndromes are due to germline missense mutations of the RET gene.
Multiple endocrine neoplasias type 2 (MEN2) is an inherited disorder characterized by the development of medullary thyroid cancer (MTC), parathyroid tumours, and pheochromocytoma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before going outside. She also says that she has to wash her hands before and after leaving the house. She explains that she gets very uptight and anxious if these are not done in a certain order. This has been ongoing for the past four years and is upsetting her deeply. What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Exposure-response prevention (ERP) therapy
Explanation:Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a common, chronic and long-lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts (obsessions) and behaviours (compulsions) that he or she feels the urge to repeat over and over.
People with OCD may have symptoms of obsessions, compulsions, or both. These symptoms can interfere with all aspects of life, such as work, school, and personal relationships.Obsessions are repeated thoughts, urges, or mental images that cause anxiety. Common symptoms include:
Fear of germs or contamination
Unwanted forbidden or taboo thoughts involving sex, religion, and harm
Aggressive thoughts towards others or self
Having things symmetrical or in a perfect orderCompulsions are repetitive behaviours that a person with OCD feels the urge to do in response to an obsessive thought. Common compulsions include:
-Excessive cleaning and/or handwashing
-Ordering and arranging things in a particular, precise way
-Repeatedly checking on things, such as repeatedly checking to see if the door is locked or that the oven is off
-Compulsive countingResearch also shows that a type of CBT called Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is effective in reducing compulsive behaviours in OCD, even in people who did not respond well to SRI medication. ERP has become the first-line psychotherapeutic treatment for OCD
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms, lethargy and jaundiced sclerae and an inability to eat due to a sore throat. He remembered that his father may have suffered from a liver condition. On further questioning a history of intravenous drug use on two occasions is identified. Investigations reveal: Alanine transaminase (ALT) 23 U/l, Aspartate transaminase (AST) 28 U/l, Bilirubin 78 μmol/L, Albumin 41g/l. Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Crigler–Najjar syndrome
Correct Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome
Explanation:When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following responses is the least likely to be associated with primary pulmonary hypertension?
Your Answer: Loud P2
Correct Answer: Recurrent pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Connective-tissue diseases, liver cirrhosis, exposure to anorexigens and likely other alpha-adrenergic stimulants [e.g., cocaine, amphetamines] and HIV infection are associated with primary pulmonary hypertension. Recurrent pulmonary emboli, chronic lung diseases, left heart diseases are causes for secondary pulmonary hypertension. Pulmonary vascular hypertension after use of fenfluramine is rarely reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female presents with a five month history of worsening breathlessness and daily productive cough. As a young child, she had occasional wheezing with viral illnesses and she currently works in a ship yard and also smokes one pack of cigarettes daily for the past three years. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Asbestosis
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis is a long-term condition where the airways of the lungs become abnormally widened, leading to a build-up of excess mucus that can make the lungs more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptoms of bronchiectasis include:
– a persistent productive cough
– breathlessness.The 3 most common causes in the UK are:
– a lung infection in the past, such as pneumonia or whooping cough, that damages the bronchi
– underlying problems with the immune system (the body’s defence against infection) that make the bronchi more vulnerable to damage from an infection
– allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) – an allergy to a certain type of fungi that can cause the bronchi to become inflamed if spores from the fungi are inhaled -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman, with a long history of inflammatory bowel disease presents to his GP with abnormal liver function tests. She has a raised alkaline phosphatase level but no symptoms of liver disease. Which of the following options is the best set of investigations to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ultrasound scan and liver biopsy
Correct Answer: MRCP and liver biopsy
Explanation:In a patient with abnormal LFTs and UC, think primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). MRCP and liver biopsy is the best answer. MRCP will show classically beads on a string – intra and extrahepatic stricturing and dilation. Remember this finding!! Liver biopsy is required for official diagnosis (need tissue!).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the correct formula to calculate the positive predictive value? (TP = true positive; FP = false positive; TN = true negative; FN = false negative)
Your Answer: TP / (TP + FN )
Correct Answer: TP / (TP + FP)
Explanation:Positive predictive value is the probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease.
Positive predictive value = true positive / ( true positive + false positive)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5 BP: 125/75mmHg Pulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Sodium 145 mmol/L, Potassium 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 89 μmol/L, Rheumatoid factor: Negative, Antinuclear antibody: Negative, Anti-dsDNA: Negative, ASO titre: Not detected. Electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute rheumatic fever
Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A study's objective is to find the normal reference range for IgE levels in the adult population. What percentage of individuals will have IgE levels higher than 2 standard deviations from the mean, assuming that the IgE levels follow a normal distribution?
Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 2.30%
Explanation:Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old lady is found to be hepatitis B surface antigen positive. This positive result has persisted for more than six months. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) is negative. HBV DNA is negative. Her liver function tests are all entirely normal. Which of the following options would be the best for further management?
Your Answer: No antiviral therapy but monitor serology
Explanation:Again, remember the Hepatitis B serologies: In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, + anti-HBc, + IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. In immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, + anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. IN THIS CASE, the person is HBsAg+ for 6 months and everything else is negative, normal transaminase. They do not need antiviral therapy, but their serology should be monitored serially. There would be no reason to do a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old female with a history of COPD and hypertension presents with pain on swallowing. Current medication includes a salbutamol and becotide inhaler, bendrofluazide and amlodipine. What is the most likely cause of the presentation?
Your Answer: Achalasia secondary to amlodipine
Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:The history gives you a woman who is on inhaled steroid therapy. It is always a good idea for patients to rinse their mouths well after using inhaled steroids. Odynophagia (pain on swallowing) is a symptom of oesophageal candidiasis, which is the most likely answer given the steroids. Typically, you might see this in someone who is immunocompromised (classically, in HIV+ patients).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: 24 hour urine collection for myoglobin
Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy
Explanation:Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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