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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents to casualty with flank pain and a 48 hour history of dysuria. Her past medical history includes polycystic ovarian syndrome. She is not in a steady relationship at present. There is haematuria and proteinuria on urine dipstick testing. Examination reveals a pyrexia of 38.1 °C and flank pain. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis
Explanation:The patient presents with flank pain and fever with haematuria and proteinuria associated with a social history of not being in a steady relationship. This patient is a young presumably sexually active female, so the diagnosis is most likely pyelonephritis which has an increased incidence in young sexually active women or men of >50 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old female patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is diagnosed with type 1 renal tubular acidosis. What is the most probable sequela of this condition?
Your Answer: Decreased bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule
Correct Answer: Nephrocalcinosis
Explanation:Distal renal tubular acidosis is due to defective proton secretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the distal tubule caused by dysfunction of the H+/K+ antiporter on the apical membrane. This leads to failure of H+ excretion thereby causing systemic acidosis and potassium depletion. Inability to lower the urine pH below 5.3 in the presence of systemic acidosis is the diagnostic hallmark of type I or distal renal tubular acidosis. Hypercalciuria, hypocitraturia and elevated urinary pH observed in distal renal tubular acidosis can lead to nephrocalcinosis and may cause renal calculi, obstructive uropathy and renal failure necessitating surgical or endoscopic stone extraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one of the following properties?
Your Answer: Increase the left atrial volume and pressure
Correct Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility
Explanation:The cardiovascular effects of β-adrenoceptor block result from reduction of the sympathetic drive which includes reduced heart rate (automaticity) and reduced myocardial contractility (rate of rise of pressure in the ventricle). This will lead to reduced cardiac output and an overall fall in oxygen consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A previously well 33 yr. old female is admitted with a history of recurrent episodes of palpitations. She has not experience chest pain but rather a feeling of a rapidly beating heart. She frequently drinks coffee and alcohol. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg and pulse rate 200 bpm which is regular. There is no sign of heart failure. Her ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia. She is given 3mg of IV adenosine but there is no response. Which of the following is the most appropriate management if she doesn't respond to 6mg of IV adenosine?
Your Answer: 12mg IV adenosine
Explanation:If 3mg of adenosine has no effect, then adenosine 6 mg can be given by rapid IV push. If patient does not convert to a normal rhythm, give another dose of adenosine 12 mg via rapid IV push. This can be repeated if there is no response. If no response, diltiazem or beta-blockers can be given as alternatives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 40 year old farmer who is a non-smoker is experiencing increasing shortness of breath on exertion. He has been having chest tightness and a non-productive cough which becomes worse when he is at the dairy farm. He has no respiratory history of note. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis is the suspected diagnosis. Which factor would be responsible for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Contaminated hay
Explanation:Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:
‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.
EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.
Examples of EAA include:
Farmer’s lung
This is probably the most common occupational form of EAA and is the outcome of an allergic response to a group of microbes, which form mould on vegetable matter in storage. During the handling of mouldy straw, hay or grain, particularly in a confined space such as a poorly ventilated building, inhalation of spores and other antigenic material is very likely.There also appears to be a clear relationship between water content of crops, heating (through mould production) and microbial growth, and this would apply to various crops and vegetable matter, with the spores produced likely to cause EAA.
Farmer’s lung can be prevented by drying crops adequately before storage and by ensuring good ventilation during storage. Respiratory protection should also be worn by farm workers when handling stored crops, particularly if they have been stored damp or are likely to be mouldy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a lesion of the sciatic nerve?
Your Answer: Decreased sensation on anterior thigh and medial leg
Correct Answer: Foot drop
Explanation:The sciatic neve originates in the sacral plexus, mainly from spinal segments L5-S2. It supplies muscles that cause extension of the thigh and flexion of the leg. It divides into two main branches, the tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve, which are responsible for all foot movements. Anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss is typical of a femoral nerve lesion. The femoral nerve also mediates flexion of the hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his stomach. He states it is 'obvious' he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. Which disorder is this an example of?
Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Correct Answer: Hypochondrial disorder
Explanation:Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is a recent term for what used to be diagnosed as hypochondriasis, or hypochondrial disorder. People diagnosed with IAD strongly believe they have a serious or life-threatening illness despite having no, or only mild, symptoms.
Symptoms of IAD may include:
-Excessive worry over having or getting a serious illness.
-Physical symptoms are not present or if present, only mild. If another illness is present, or there is a high risk for developing an illness, the person’s concern is out of proportion.
-High level of anxiety and alarm over personal health status.
-Excessive health-related behaviours (e.g., repeatedly checking body for signs of illness) or shows abnormal avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctors’ appointments and hospitals).
-Fear of illness is present for at least six months (but the specific disease that is feared may change over that time).
-Fear of illness is not due to another mental disorder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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A 58-year-old gentleman with a long history of gout presents with loin pain. Other past history of note includes an ileostomy after bowel surgery. There is no history of weight loss from malabsorption syndrome after his bowel surgery. Excretion urography reveals evidence of bilateral renal stones. What is the most likely composition of his renal stones?
Your Answer: Uric acid stones
Explanation:Uric acid stones will most likely be found in this case because of the patient’s long history of gout. Additionally, studies have shown that ileostomy patients have an increased risk for the development of uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM). His father has passed away recently at the age of 48 and found to have HOCM during post mortem examination. On examination of this patient his BP was 142/84 mmHg and pulse rate was 68 bpm which was regular. There was a mid systolic murmur and a double apex beat. Echocardiography showed a septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm. What is the factor most closely linked to his 20 year risk of sudden cardiac death?
Your Answer: Septal wall thickness of 3.3 cm
Explanation:There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
-family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
-unexplained recent syncope
-large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
-multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
-hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A number of tests have been ordered for a 49 year old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?
Your Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage
Explanation:Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.
DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During examination, numerous small vesicles were found within the ear canal and her ear is very tender. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for such a condition?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes zoster is a viral disorder in which painful vesicular lesions are present in a specific dermatome area. High-grade fever may present as well due to infection. Varicella zoster, measles, herpes simplex and HIV do not present with tender lesions of a limited area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Correct
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An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she has been complaining about seeing ghosts in their house. She no longer wants to enter in the house. You wonder if this might be Charles-Bonnet syndrome. Which of the following risk factors may pre-dispose this woman to Charles-Bonnet syndrome?
Your Answer: Peripheral visual impairment
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.
It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.
CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
Presentation:
The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:The hallucinations are always outside the body.
The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates. She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity. The following results are obtained: (Time (hours) : Blood glucose (mmol/l)), 0 : 9.2, 2 : 14.2. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which among the following is most likely to be beneficial to a patient with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Social skills training
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Among the given options, cognitive-behavioural therapy is the most likely to benefit a patient with schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.
Clinical features:
Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
Thought echo
Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviourThought disorder:
Thought insertion
Thought withdrawal
Thought broadcastingPassivity phenomena:
Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by othersOther features of schizophrenia include
Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
Decreased speech
Neologisms: made-up words
Catatonia
Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).Treatment:
For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications. Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show: Na+: 133 mmol/L, K+: 3.3 mmol/L, Urea: 4.5 mmol/L, Creatinine: 90 μmol/L, Which among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?
Your Answer: His smoking history
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances.
Note:
– Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.
– Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.
– Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to patients with multiple sclerosis in the local area. Which factor would determine how many resources will be required?
Your Answer: Incidence
Correct Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:To describe how often a disease or another health event occurs in a population, different measures of disease frequency can be used. The prevalence reflects the number of existing cases of a disease. In contrast to the prevalence, the incidence reflects the number of new cases of disease and can be reported as a risk or as an incidence rate. Prevalence and incidence are used for different purposes and to answer different research questions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Correct
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A 74-year-old widow is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic renal failure. What is the most common problem that can arise in this case?
Your Answer: Protein–calorie malnutrition
Explanation:Protein-calorie malnutrition is observed in almost 50% of dialysis patients, contributing to increased morbidity and mortality. All the other complications listed can usually be prevented thanks to modern-day dialysis techniques.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old gentleman presents with facial and ankle swelling. This has slowly been developing over the past week. During the review of systems, he describes passing ‘frothy’ urine. A urine dipstick shows protein +++. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal change glomerulonephritis usually presents as nephrotic syndrome wherein the patient (usually a young adult) will present with proteinuria, oedema, and impaired kidney function, which were evident in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. He has been passing blood mixed with diarrhoea. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. On examination he is pyrexial and clinically dehydrated. Cardiorespiratory and abdominal examinations are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Campylobacter infection
Explanation:The patient has bloody diarrhoea that sounds like a food poisoning in the clinical scenario. Campylobacter is the most common cause of this in the United Kingdom. This is then followed by Salmonella and Shigella. The symptoms are usually self limiting. This is more likely to be bacterial from the food than a viral gastroenteritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and frank haematuria. He has recently been complaining of generalised malaise and joint pains. Examination reveals jaundice, splenomegaly, and petechiae. His blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg, temperature 37.9oC. Initial investigations reveal: Haemoglobin 9.5 g/dL, White cell count 12 × 109/L, Platelets 40 × 109/L, Creatinine 142 μmol/L, Sodium 139 mmol/L, Potassium 4.5 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Lactate dehydrogenase 495 U/l (10–250) Urinalysis Protein ++, blood +++ Blood film shows schistocytes What treatment should NOT be given to this patient?
Your Answer: Plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma
Correct Answer: Platelet transfusion
Explanation:There is a strong suspicion of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) in this patient as he presents with neurological changes (from confusion to convulsions and coma), fever, haemolysis, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. Additionally, TTP cases may present with jaundice, splenomegaly, and hypertension as seen in this patient. With a diagnosis of TTP, recent studies have shown that platelet transfusion is not recommended in this case because it has been shown to increase the risk for arterial thrombosis and mortality possibly due to increased aggregations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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