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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old man complains of rectal bleeding and a sharp, stinging pain during...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man complains of rectal bleeding and a sharp, stinging pain during bowel movements. He has been experiencing these symptoms for the past two weeks. The patient reports a history of constipation and notes fresh blood on the toilet paper when wiping. Although rectal examination is challenging due to pain, no external abnormalities are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Anal fissures are typically identified by the presence of both pain and bleeding. While thrombosed external hemorrhoids can also cause pain, internal hemorrhoids usually do not. It can be challenging to detect superficial anal fissures during an examination.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has...

    Correct

    • As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Following the FRAX/NOGG guidance and the results of her DEXA scan, you have prescribed alendronic acid as part of her treatment plan. During your counseling session, she asks why she cannot take this medication like her other medications after breakfast. What is the potential risk if she does not take the medication as instructed?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal reaction

      Explanation:

      When taking oral bisphosphonates, it is important to swallow them with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or any other oral medication. After taking the medication, the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. Effective counseling on administration is necessary as oral bisphosphonates can cause oesophageal retention and increase the risk of esophagitis. Oesophageal disorders and an unsafe swallow are contraindications for oral bisphosphonate therapy. Acute phase response may occur as a reaction to the bisphosphonate therapy itself, not the route of administration. Long-term bisphosphonate therapy is associated with atypical stress fractures, but this risk is not affected by the route of administration. Hypocalcaemia may occur with long-term bisphosphonate therapy, but it is not associated with the route of administration.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite trying conservative measures such as increasing fluid and salt intake, reviewing medications, and wearing compression stockings, he still experiences dizziness upon standing. What medication options are available to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone and midodrine are two medications that can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension. However, doxazosin, a medication used for hypertension, can actually worsen orthostatic hypotension. Prochlorperazine is used for vertigo and isoprenaline and dobutamine are not used for orthostatic hypotension as they are ionotropic agents used for patients in shock.

      Fludrocortisone works by increasing renal sodium reabsorption and plasma volume, which helps counteract the physiological orthostatic vasovagal reflex. Its effectiveness has been supported by two small observational studies and one small double-blind trial, leading the European Society of Cardiology to give it a Class IIa recommendation.

      To manage orthostatic hypotension, patients should be educated on lifestyle measures such as staying hydrated and increasing salt intake. Vasoactive drugs like nitrates, antihypertensives, neuroleptic agents, or dopaminergic drugs should be discontinued if possible. If symptoms persist, compression garments, fludrocortisone, midodrine, counter-pressure manoeuvres, and head-up tilt sleeping can be considered.

      Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation

      Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. This condition is characterized by a rapid onset, short duration, and complete recovery without any medical intervention. It is important to note that syncope is different from other causes of collapse, such as epilepsy. To better understand syncope, the European Society of Cardiology has classified it into three categories: reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope.

      Reflex syncope, also known as neurally mediated syncope, is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups. It can be triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other situational factors such as coughing or gastrointestinal issues. Orthostatic syncope occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, and it is more common in older patients. Cardiac syncope is caused by heart-related issues such as arrhythmias, structural abnormalities, or pulmonary embolism.

      To evaluate syncope, doctors may perform a series of tests, including a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, and 24-hour ECG monitoring. These tests help to identify the underlying cause of syncope and determine the appropriate treatment plan. By understanding the causes and evaluation of syncope, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman visits the Urgent Treatment Centre as she has discovered a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits the Urgent Treatment Centre as she has discovered a tick-like insect attached to her ankle. She had been hiking in a nearby forest earlier today and is worried because her sister was diagnosed with Lyme disease after a similar experience.
      There are no signs of inflammation or infection in the skin surrounding the tick.
      What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Remove the tick using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick by the head as close to the skin as possible and pulling firmly upwards

      Explanation:

      Proper Tick Removal Techniques and Treatment Options

      Ticks are common parasites that can cause a range of illnesses, including Lyme disease. It is important to remove ticks properly to prevent infection. The best way to remove a tick is by using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick as close to the skin as possible and pulling upwards firmly. This will prevent the body from detaching and leaving mouthparts in the skin. After removal, the bite area should be cleaned with antiseptic or soap and water. Irrigating the area with saline solution is not recommended as it may lead to partial removal of the tick. Prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended for tick bites, but antibiotics may be prescribed if a patient is diagnosed with Lyme disease. Vaccines for Lyme disease are not currently available. If there is a clear indication of infection, oral antibiotics may be prescribed. Proper tick removal and treatment can help prevent the spread of tick-borne illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man who was previously healthy comes to the clinic complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man who was previously healthy comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the past four to five months. His father passed away a few years ago due to a lung disease. During the examination, the doctor notices an elevated jugular venous pressure and a palpable heave at the left sternal edge.

      What is the most probable provisional diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial primary pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Familial Primary Pulmonary Hypertension

      Familial primary pulmonary hypertension is a rare condition that presents with breathlessness, fatigue, angina, or syncope. It has an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance with incomplete penetrance and physical signs such as elevated JVP, left parasternal heave, pansystolic murmur, right ventricular S4, and peripheral edema. Without treatment, average survival is less than three years. While tricuspid regurgitation may be present, it is best explained in the context of a diagnosis of familial primary pulmonary hypertension. Chronic pulmonary thromboembolism is a more common differential diagnosis that should be considered. Constrictive pericarditis and pulmonary venous hypertension are unlikely diagnoses as they do not run in families. Clinical management requires a specialist with considerable expertise in the field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon seeks...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon seeks an appointment with the team doctor due to an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. During the examination, the doctor observes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The team doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Conversion disorder

      Explanation:

      Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old man of African ethnicity visits the GP after receiving results from...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man of African ethnicity visits the GP after receiving results from ambulatory home blood pressure monitoring. The average reading was 152/96 mmHg, and he has no medical history. During today's visit, his heart rate is 78 bpm, blood pressure is 160/102 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 97%. What should the GP do next?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient of black African or African-Caribbean origin with hypertension, adding a calcium channel blocker (CCB) such as nifedipine is recommended as the first-line treatment. This is because ACE inhibitors and ARBs are less effective in patients of these ethnicities. Lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient if the patient’s average blood pressure reading on ambulatory monitoring is greater than 150/95 mmHg. Ramipril is not the first-line option for this patient population, and Losartan is a second-line option after CCBs.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 39-year-old female has been diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the best...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old female has been diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Oral metronidazole is the recommended treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his left eye upon waking up this morning. He reports no pain in his eye. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon fundoscopic examination, the right eye appears normal, but the left eye shows multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      The sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages observed on fundoscopy in this patient are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. Amaurosis fugax, which is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries, results in temporary vision loss that resolves within a few minutes. In contrast, this patient’s vision loss is persistent. While central retinal artery occlusion also causes acute painless vision loss, it is characterized by a loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, a cherry-red macula, and a white/pale retina on fundoscopy. Hypertensive retinopathy may cause flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots on the retina, but it does not result in sudden vision loss.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as...

    Correct

    • You are on-call and reviewing a potassium result. The patient's details are as follows:
      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 6.4 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 16 mmol/l
      Urea 13.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 µmol/l
      You are uncertain about administering calcium gluconate and decide to seek advice from your senior. She advises you to only give calcium gluconate if there are ECG changes. What ECG changes are most indicative of hyperkalaemia in a patient who is 60 years old?

      Your Answer: Widening of the QRS complex

      Explanation:

      ECG characteristics of hypokalaemia include a prolonged QT interval, prolonged PR interval, and the presence of U waves.

      Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.

      There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.

      Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and describes a feeling of weakness when climbing stairs. He has noticed occasional muscle twitches and spasms that seem to be increasing in frequency.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is polymyositis. This is a connective tissue disease that affects the striated muscles, causing symmetrical weakness in the proximal muscles. Patients may have difficulty rising from chairs and experience muscle tenderness. Creatine kinase levels are elevated, and a muscle biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. This presentation is not suggestive of Guillain-Barré syndrome, which typically presents with distal weakness that progresses proximally. Mononeuritis multiplex, which involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, is unlikely given the symmetrical distribution of symptoms affecting proximal muscles. Multiple sclerosis is also unlikely, as it tends to present with distal rather than proximal limb weakness or paraesthesia. Myasthenia gravis, which is associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors and causes fatigability, is not suggested by the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and left-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain had begun, she had noted that her right eyelid was ‘drooping’ and that she had developed weakness and altered sensation in her left arm and leg. She had recently visited a physiotherapist for neck pain after a fall. Examination reveals right Horner syndrome, and weakness and sensory disturbance on the left-hand side, with a left extensor plantar response.
      Which of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Neck Pain and Stroke Syndrome

      Carotid artery dissection, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and venous sinus thrombosis are all potential causes of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient. Carotid artery dissection is a tear in one of the carotid arteries that can occur spontaneously or following trauma. Symptoms may include vague headache, facial and neck pain, meiosis, ptosis, focal limb weakness, and cranial nerve palsies. Lateral medullary infarction is usually due to occlusion of the intracranial vertebral artery or the posterior inferior cerebellar artery and may present with vestibulocerebellar symptoms, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, sensory symptoms, and ipsilateral bulbar muscle weakness. Posterior fossa space-occupying lesions are more common in children and may cause symptoms due to raised intracranial pressure and brainstem/cerebellum compression. Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a sudden-onset, severe headache, while venous sinus thrombosis usually presents with progressive headache, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Hemiplegia may occur in both posterior fossa space-occupying lesions and venous sinus thrombosis, but Horner syndrome does not occur in either. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 33-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department with an eye injury...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department with an eye injury sustained during a game of squash. Upon examination of his right eye, there is evidence of blood in the anterior chamber, proptosis, a stiff eyelid, and a relative afferent pupillary defect, leading to a suspected diagnosis of orbital compartment syndrome. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Immediate canthotomy

      Explanation:

      In cases of ocular trauma, it is important to assess for orbital compartment syndrome as it may require urgent decompression before any imaging is done.

      A man presents with symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome, including blood in the front part of the eye, bulging of the eye, a stiff eyelid, and a pupil defect. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to permanent vision loss. The condition is caused by an increase in volume within the orbit, which can be due to bleeding or swelling of the eye. It can be caused by surgical or external trauma, such as a sports injury. In this case, the correct course of action is to perform an immediate canthotomy to relieve the pressure.

      B-scan ultrasonography is not the correct answer. This imaging technique is useful for examining the back part of the eye and is used to diagnose conditions such as retinal detachment or vitreous hemorrhage. It is not helpful in diagnosing orbital compartment syndrome.

      Immediate IV acetazolamide is also not the correct answer. While this medication can be used to reduce intraocular pressure in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is not the primary treatment for orbital compartment syndrome.

      Non-contrast head CT is not the correct answer either. While this imaging test can help confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the condition, it should not be done before immediate surgical decompression is performed due to the severity of the condition.

      Ocular Trauma and Hyphema

      Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the redispersement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.

      In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.

      To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You see a 29-year-old woman who has recently become pregnant. She has well-controlled...

    Correct

    • You see a 29-year-old woman who has recently become pregnant. She has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health. Which of the following should be started at 12 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      In the context of managing a pregnant patient with well-controlled type 1 diabetes, it is crucial to implement preventive measures that can enhance maternal and fetal health. At 12 weeks of gestation, the initiation of low-dose aspirin is recommended for women with diabetes. This intervention is aimed at reducing the risk of preeclampsia, a condition characterized by high blood pressure and potential organ dysfunction that can arise during pregnancy, particularly in women with pre-existing conditions such as diabetes. While vitamin B12 supplementation is important for certain populations, it is not routinely initiated at this stage unless there is a specific deficiency. Ascorbic acid, or vitamin C, does not have established guidelines for routine supplementation during pregnancy. Multivitamins are generally beneficial, but they are not specifically indicated to be started at 12 weeks for this patient group. Ferrous fumarate, an iron supplement, is typically reserved for cases of iron deficiency anemia, which may not be applicable in this scenario given the patient’s current health status.

      Key Takeaways:

      – Low-dose aspirin is recommended at 12 weeks gestation for women with diabetes to lower the risk of preeclampsia.

      – Vitamin B12, ascorbic acid, multivitamins, and ferrous fumarate are not specifically indicated for initiation at this gestational age in this patient population.

      – Monitoring and preventive strategies are essential in managing pregnancies complicated by pre-existing diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP...

    Correct

    • A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP clinic upon moving to a different city. The clinic checks his immunization records and sends him an invite to get vaccinated. What vaccination should he get if he hasn't received it before?

      Your Answer: Men ACWY

      Explanation:

      The Meningitis ACWY vaccine is being gradually introduced and is recommended for all children during their 9th or 10th year of school. Instead of the Men C booster, they should receive this vaccination. The catch-up program is currently targeting individuals under the age of 25 who are starting university for the first time. It is recommended that they receive the vaccine a few weeks before beginning their studies.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 pre-school booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old presents to the emergency department following an altercation. He reports being...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old presents to the emergency department following an altercation. He reports being involved in a physical altercation while under the influence of alcohol at a bar. His recollection of the event is unclear, but he recalls being hit in the face and bitten on his hand. Upon examination, there is significant bruising around the left eye and a bite wound on the outer aspect of the left hand. What antibiotic should be administered for the bite?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      When it comes to treating human bites, it is recommended to use co-amoxiclav, which is also used for treating animal bites. This medication is effective in targeting the primary organisms that are commonly associated with human bites, such as Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Eikenella, Corynebacterium, and other anaerobes. It is important to note that even if there are no visible signs of infection, antibiotics should still be prescribed.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has effort-related angina. She has no other cardiac risk factors and no other relevant medical history. Her QRisk is calculated as 12.2%. She has already been prescribed a GTN spray which she can use for immediate relief of her symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Beta blocker and statin

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends using a β blocker or calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment for angina, along with a statin. If a patient is intolerant to β blockers or not responding to a CCB alone, a long-acting nitrate can be added. An ACE inhibitor is not indicated for angina treatment. Beta blockers and CCBs can be used together if one alone does not control symptoms, but caution is needed to avoid conduction problems. Long-acting nitrates should only be used in isolation if CCB or β blocker use is contraindicated. Aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention, and short-acting nitrates can be used for symptom relief. The 4S study showed that statins significantly reduce the risk of MI in patients with angina and high cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      4.9
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic complaining of purulent vaginal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic complaining of purulent vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for two weeks. Upon examination of an endocervical swab sample, Gram-negative diplococci are observed, while other pathogen tests are negative. The patient has no allergies or comorbidities. Which antibiotic option is the most suitable?

      Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old man undergoes a routine electrocardiogram (ECG) as part of an examination...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man undergoes a routine electrocardiogram (ECG) as part of an examination at his local general practice surgery.
      On examination, his pulse is 64 bpm and his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. The clinician notes a delta wave on the ECG and refers him to the Cardiology Department.
      What is the most likely cause of this irregularity?

      Your Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition where there is an extra electrical pathway in the heart, making the patient more susceptible to developing supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The presence of delta waves, which are a slurred upstroke in the QRS complex, and a shortened PR interval are characteristic of WPW syndrome. Atrial fibrillation (AF), on the other hand, is an irregularly irregular pulse that is diagnosed by the absence of P waves and irregular QRS complexes on an ECG. Delta waves are not typically seen in AF unless the patient also has WPW syndrome. Sinus arrhythmia, which is an irregular rhythm, does not show delta waves on an ECG. Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is not associated with delta waves, but rather with ST elevation or depression and T wave inversion. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a regular narrow complex tachycardia that may or may not have delta waves, depending on whether the patient has underlying WPW syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following treatments has not been demonstrated to enhance survival in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following treatments has not been demonstrated to enhance survival in individuals with persistent heart failure?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Although furosemide is effective in treating the symptoms of both acute and chronic heart failure, it does not provide any predictive advantages.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia...

    Correct

    • At her booking appointment, a 29-year-old pregnant woman reports a history of pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy. To decrease the risk of intrauterine growth retardation, what medication should be initiated at 12-14 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: Low dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      What is the effectiveness of secondary prevention measures for women with pre-eclampsia? A-level research has shown that low-dose aspirin, when started at 12-14 weeks’ gestation, is more effective than a placebo in reducing the occurrence of pre-eclampsia in high-risk women. This treatment also reduces perinatal mortality and the risk of babies being born small for gestational age. While low molecular weight heparin may reduce placental insufficiency in pre-eclampsia, there is currently a lack of long-term safety studies. Labetalol and methyldopa are commonly used antihypertensive drugs for acute management of pre-eclampsia, but they are not given prophylactically and do not reduce intrauterine growth retardation. Unfractionated heparin has also not been proven to prevent the development of uteroplacental insufficiency.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.5
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  • Question 22 - A 6-day-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who...

    Correct

    • A 6-day-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who has noticed a yellow tinge to his sclera and skin. He is being breastfed. He is otherwise well and had a normal newborn blood-spot test.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breastmilk jaundice

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Jaundice in a Breastfed Baby: Excluding Cystic Fibrosis, Galactosaemia, ABO Incompatibility, and Hypothyroidism

      Breastmilk jaundice is a common cause of jaundice in healthy, breastfed babies beyond two weeks of age. However, other potential causes should still be screened for. The exact mechanism of breastmilk jaundice is unknown, but breastfeeding should continue and bilirubin levels should be monitored. If levels are above the treatment line, phototherapy may be necessary. Jaundice can persist for up to 12 weeks in some cases. Cystic fibrosis is excluded as a diagnosis if the newborn blood-spot test is normal. Galactosaemia is unlikely if the baby has not shown symptoms such as difficulty feeding, vomiting, and faltering growth. ABO incompatibility typically presents within the first 24 hours of life, so it is unlikely if symptoms appear eight days after birth. Hypothyroidism is screened for in the newborn blood-spot test, and normal results exclude it as a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 23 - A man of 45 years presents following the death of his wife.
    Which one...

    Correct

    • A man of 45 years presents following the death of his wife.
      Which one of the following is going to heighten your suspicion of an abnormal grief reaction?

      Your Answer: Delayed or absent grief

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal and Normal Grief Reactions

      Grief is a highly individualized experience that can be influenced by personal, social, and cultural factors. There are three recognized types of abnormal grief reactions: delayed, inhibited, and prolonged. Delayed grief is characterized by a delay of more than two weeks before grieving begins, or sometimes not occurring at all until triggered by another subsequent bereavement. Inhibited grief occurs when the bereaved person appears minimally affected by the death, and prolonged grief lasts significantly longer than average.

      On the other hand, normal grief reactions are characterized by features such as sadness, weeping, poor sleep, reduced appetite, motor restlessness, searching for the deceased, poor concentration and memory, low mood (but not frank depression), and the impression of seeing or hearing the deceased. Poor memory, brief episodes of seeing the dead person, poor concentration, and searching for the deceased are all common manifestations of a normal grief reaction.

      It is important to note that there is a great degree of flexibility when assessing whether a grief reaction is normal or abnormal, as it is a highly personal experience. Understanding the different types of grief reactions can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old woman undergoing treatment for rheumatoid arthritis complains of nephrotic syndrome.
    Which...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman undergoing treatment for rheumatoid arthritis complains of nephrotic syndrome.
      Which medication is the probable cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Penicillamine

      Explanation:

      Overview of Medications Used in the Treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. There are several medications used in the management of this condition, each with their own benefits and potential side effects.

      Penicillamine is a drug commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also cause secondary membranous nephropathy, a condition characterized by proteinuria. Hydroxychloroquine is another medication that can be used for active rheumatoid arthritis, but its main complication is ocular toxicity. Sulfasalazine is primarily used for ulcerative colitis, but can also be used for rheumatoid arthritis under expert advice. Cyclophosphamide is rarely used for rheumatoid arthritis and is associated with the rare but serious complication of haemorrhagic cystitis. Methotrexate is a commonly used medication for severe Crohn’s disease and moderate to severe rheumatoid arthritis, but its main complication is bone marrow suppression.

      It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to determine the most appropriate medication for their individual needs and to monitor for potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      8.9
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to address an inguinal hernia. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is scheduled for surgery to address an inguinal hernia. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill and is not taking any other medications. What advice should be given to the patient regarding her medication before the operation?

      Your Answer: Continue taking the pill until four weeks before her operation

      Explanation:

      To lower the risk of a pulmonary embolism, it is advised to discontinue the use of contraceptive pills four weeks prior to undergoing an operation, as per NICE guidelines. This is because oral contraceptives are recognized as a risk factor for thrombosis.

      Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.

      It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) four weeks after suffering from a vomiting illness. She complains of numbness and tingling in her lower limbs which has developed over the past three days. On examination, she has weakness of ankle and knee flexion and extension, diminished knee and ankle reflexes and sensory loss below the knee. The GP arranges urgent hospital admission and she is started on treatment as soon as she arrives at the hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.

      Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nerves, resulting in symmetrical weakness, hyporeflexia, and paraesthesia. The condition often occurs after an infection, usually involving the respiratory or gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly used treatment for GBS is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which helps to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms. Plasmapheresis (plasma exchange) is another option that filters antibodies from the patient’s plasma.

      However, corticosteroids such as intravenous prednisolone have not been shown to improve GBS symptoms and may even prolong recovery. Haemodialysis is not necessary unless the patient has concurrent renal failure. Antivirals such as intravenous acyclovir have no role in managing GBS as it is not a viral illness. Although a bacterial infection may precede GBS, antibiotics such as intravenous ceftriaxone are not used to treat the autoimmune process causing the neurological symptoms. In some cases, patients with GBS may require invasive ventilation, which may cause pneumonia and require treatment with antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man with hypertension controlled with lisinopril undergoes blood testing for fatigue....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with hypertension controlled with lisinopril undergoes blood testing for fatigue. The results show an eGFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2) and normal U&Es, and urinalysis is normal. He had a previous USS of the renal tract two years ago which was reported as normal.
      Which class of CKD does he belong to?

      Your Answer: No CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages and GFR Categories

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition characterized by a gradual loss of kidney function over time. To assess the severity of CKD, healthcare professionals use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.

      A GFR of >90 without other evidence of kidney disease indicates normal renal function. However, if the GFR falls below this level, the patient may be classified into one of the following stages:

      – CKD stage 2: GFR 60-89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
      – CKD stage 3a: GFR 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
      – CKD stage 3b: GFR 30-44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
      – CKD stage 4: GFR 15-29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
      – CKD stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) To further assess the risk of adverse outcomes, the 2008 NICE guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b and adding the suffix P to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the GFR categories and CKD stages can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage CKD, as well as educate patients on their kidney function and potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      4.2
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  • Question 28 - A young librarian seeks therapy as he is lonely and unhappy. He describes...

    Correct

    • A young librarian seeks therapy as he is lonely and unhappy. He describes a solitary life cataloguing books all day and then remaining alone all night and on weekends. He declines invitations for dinners, as he feels anxious when other people are around.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Vignette Analysis

      The following vignette describes a patient with symptoms of anxiety in a social situation. To properly diagnose the patient, it is important to differentiate between various anxiety disorders.

      Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by anxiety in public, particularly when feeling scrutinized. It typically starts in adolescence and is equally prevalent in men and women. Some patients have a specific social phobia, while others have a more diffuse type. Treatment is mainly with psychological interventions.

      Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): GAD is characterized by non-specific and persistent anxiety. Patients feel anxious most days for periods of at least several weeks, and may experience a variety of worries that are not objectively warranted by their circumstances. Autonomic and motor overactivity are also common.

      Panic Disorder: Panic attacks are recurrent episodes of severe anxiety that occur unpredictably and under unrestricted circumstances. A diagnosis of panic disorder can be given only if several panic attacks have occurred in about 1 month in situations that do not pose an objective danger, in unrestricted circumstances and with relative freedom from symptoms of anxiety between attacks.

      Separation Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is mainly diagnosed in children, although an adult form has been increasingly recognized. Symptoms include anxiety and fear when separated from emotionally attached individuals, and avoidance of being alone.

      Conduct Disorder: This disorder is a precursor to dissocial personality disorder and presents as a persistent and repetitive pattern of dissocial behavior beyond the expected mischief and rebelliousness of childhood and adolescence.

      In the vignette, the patient’s anxiety is specific to certain situations and therefore predictable, which excludes the diagnosis of panic disorder. The patient’s symptoms do not fit the criteria for GAD or separation anxiety disorder. The most likely diagnosis is social phobia, which is characterized by anxiety in public situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      3.1
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant presents with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is currently 39 weeks pregnant presents with complaints of itching in her genital area and thick white discharge. What treatment options would you suggest for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clotrimazole pessary

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from thrush and requires antifungal medication. However, since the patient is pregnant, oral fluconazole cannot be prescribed due to its link with birth defects. Instead, metronidazole can be used to treat bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking...

    Correct

    • You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking aspirin, verapamil, allopurinol, and co-codamol. Which medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently with the current medications?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      The combination of beta-blockers and verapamil has the potential to cause severe bradycardia and asystole.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (7/7) 100%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (3/3) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (6/6) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Passmed