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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female attends your clinic on a Monday afternoon with a complaint of a worsening cough that produces green sputum and a sore throat that has been present for 2 days. She denies experiencing any other symptoms. Upon examination, there is a mild wheeze but no focal respiratory signs. The patient's observations, peak flow, and the rest of her examination are normal. She is currently taking salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers for asthma and has an intrauterine system for contraception.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Reassure and prescribe carbocisteine
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral doxycycline
Explanation:For this patient with pre-existing asthma, an immediate or delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered due to the higher risk of complications. The first-line antibiotic for acute bronchitis is oral doxycycline, unless the patient is pregnant or a child. As this patient has normal observations and no focal respiratory signs, same-day admission is not necessary, and treatment can be provided in the community without intravenous antibiotics or oxygen.
Reassuring the patient and prescribing carbocisteine is not recommended as mucolytics are not effective for managing acute cough caused by acute bronchitis. Administering IM amoxicillin is also not appropriate as doxycycline is the recommended first-choice antibiotic for this condition, and IM is an invasive route that is unnecessary for this patient who can swallow.
Understanding Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that is typically self-limiting and caused by inflammation of the trachea and major bronchi. This results in swollen airways and the production of sputum. The condition usually resolves within three weeks, but some patients may experience a cough for longer. Viral infections are the leading cause of acute bronchitis, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter.
Symptoms of acute bronchitis include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which may present with sputum, wheezing, and breathlessness.
Acute bronchitis is typically diagnosed based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to guide antibiotic therapy. Management of acute bronchitis includes analgesia, good fluid intake, and consideration of antibiotic therapy for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing co-morbidities, or have a CRP level indicating the need for antibiotics. Doxycycline is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries/BNF, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, her peak flow is measured at 300 l/min (normally 450 l/min) and she is able to speak in full sentences. Her pulse is 90 bpm and her respiratory rate is 18 / min. Upon chest examination, bilateral expiratory wheezing is detected, but there are no other notable findings. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Oxygen + nebulised salbutamol + advise to double inhaled steroids + allow home if settles with follow-up review
Correct Answer: Nebulised salbutamol + prednisolone + allow home if settles with follow-up review
Explanation:Asthma Assessment and Management in Primary Care
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. In primary care, patients with acute asthma are stratified into moderate, severe, or life-threatening categories based on their symptoms. For moderate asthma, treatment involves the use of beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer. If the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is between 50-75%, prednisolone 40-50 mg may also be prescribed.
For severe asthma, admission may be necessary, and oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%. Beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer, and prednisolone 40-50 mg should also be administered. If there is no response to treatment, admission is recommended.
In life-threatening asthma cases, immediate admission should be arranged through a 999 call. Oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%, and nebulized beta 2 agonists (e.g. Salbutamol) + ipratropium should be administered. Prednisolone 40-50 mg or IV hydrocortisone 100 mg may also be prescribed.
In summary, the management of asthma in primary care involves stratifying patients based on their symptoms and administering appropriate treatment based on their category. It is important to closely monitor patients and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent exacerbations and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is not included in the Centor criteria for evaluating the probability of a bacterial origin?
Your Answer: Duration > 5 days
Explanation:In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?
Your Answer: Persistent nocturnal cough
Correct Answer: Finger clubbing
Explanation:Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations
Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.
Which of the following features would suggest that further investigation or specialist referral is necessary?Your Answer: Unilateral wheeze
Explanation:Unilateral Wheeze and Poor Asthma Control
All the symptoms of asthma are present, but a peak flow of less than 300 indicates poor control. However, a unilateral wheeze may indicate a foreign body or tumor, especially in children. Therefore, further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the wheeze.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain.
Her medical history includes a deep vein thrombosis affecting the right leg eight years ago. She is not on any current regular medication.
On examination, her heart rate is 108 bpm, blood pressure is 104/68, respiratory rate is 24, oxygen saturations are 94% in room air and she is afebrile. She has no calf or leg swelling.
You suspect she might have a pulmonary embolism and there is nothing to find to suggest an alternative cause.
You calculate her two-level PE Wells score.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Give low molecular weight heparin and request D-dimer blood testing in primary care
Correct Answer: Admit as an emergency
Explanation:Calculating the Wells Score for Pulmonary Embolism
To determine the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE), healthcare professionals use the Wells score. This score is calculated based on several factors, including clinical examination consistent with deep vein thrombosis, pulse rate, immobilization or recent surgery, past medical history, haemoptysis, cancer, and the likelihood of an alternative diagnosis.
If the two-level Wells score is more than 4 points, hospital admission should be arranged for an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram. If the score is 4 or lower, a D-dimer blood test should be arranged. A negative result may indicate an alternative diagnosis, while a positive result should be managed the same way as a two-level Wells score of more than 4.
It is important to note that HASBLED and CHADS2VASC scoring are used in the management of patients with atrial fibrillation, not pulmonary embolism. By using the Wells score, healthcare professionals can quickly and accurately determine the likelihood of a patient having a PE and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman comes in with initial signs of COPD. She is a frequent smoker and inquires about medications that could assist her in quitting smoking. Specifically, she has heard about a medication called Champix (varenicline).
What is the mechanism of action of varenicline, an agent used to aid smokers in quitting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a nicotine replacement therapy
Explanation:Therapies for Smoking Cessation
There are various therapies available for smoking cessation, including newer drugs that have been specifically developed for this purpose. One such drug is Varenicline, which is a non-nicotine drug that acts as a partial agonist of the alpha-4 beta-2 nicotinic receptor.
Nicotine is a stimulant that releases dopamine in the brain, leading to addictive effects of smoking. However, nicotine replacement therapy can help replace these effects and reduce addiction to cigarette smoking. Bupropion (Zyban) is another drug that reduces the neuronal uptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
Clonidine is a second-line agent due to its side effects, but it is an a2-noradrenergic agonist that suppresses sympathetic activity. Nortriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant with mostly noradrenergic properties, is also an effective agent for smoking cessation.
Overall, there are many options available for those looking to quit smoking, and it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best approach for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old complains of breathlessness for six months.
He has recently been to the hospital for spirometry testing and these are his post bronchodilator results:
FEV1/FVC ratio 0.65
FEV1 (% predicted) 57%
A colleague has given him a short acting muscarinic antagonist but he has returned because he has persistent breathlessness.
Which of the following would be included in the next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antitussive therapy
Explanation:Management of Moderate COPD
Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for this condition is a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, a long acting beta agonist or a long acting muscarinic antagonist may be used. Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended, but may be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with FEV1 <50% and asthmatic features. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy is not recommended, and antitussive therapy should also be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.
She complains of a dry cough, myalgia, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has a temperature of 38.3°C and auscultation of the chest reveals bibasal crepitations.
She had seen the out of hours GP two days previously who had prescribed her amoxicillin but this has not produced a clinical response.
Blood tests show:
Haemoglobin 136 g/L (130-180)
WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 12.2 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 0.9 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Sodium 121 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 176 µmol/L (60-110)
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii
Explanation:Legionnaires Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Gram-negative bacillus, Legionella pneumophilia. The disease is usually associated with contaminated water cooling systems, air conditioning units, or showers. However, sporadic cases can also occur. People who travel and stay in hotels or resorts with poorly maintained air conditioning or showers are at risk of exposure to the bacteria.
The symptoms of Legionnaires disease can vary and may include gastrointestinal upset, flu-like symptoms, diarrhea, jaundice, headache, and confusion. Patients may also experience a decrease in their white blood cell count, resulting in lymphopenia. Additionally, the disease can cause the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), leading to hyponatremia. Abnormal liver and renal biochemistry occur in about half of patients.
Amoxicillin is not an effective treatment for Legionnaires disease. Instead, macrolides such as erythromycin or clarithromycin are typically used. Some doctors prefer to use quinolones as the first choice of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department with lip swelling and wheezing following the blowing up of a latex balloon.
During examination, she displays visibly swollen lips and an urticarial rash. Her respiratory rate is 40/min and bilateral wheezing is detected on auscultation.
What is the appropriate course of action for follow-up after initial emergency treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to a specialist allergy clinic
Explanation:Patients who have been diagnosed with anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic for proper management. In the case of this boy, specialist input and education for his caregivers and school may be necessary. Prescribing a 300 microgram adrenaline injector is not recommended as it is the incorrect dose for his age. Instead, he should be given two 150 microgram adrenaline injectors with appropriate training provided. Referral for patch testing may not be sufficient as more rigorous follow-up is needed after anaphylaxis. Regular antihistamines may be necessary if ongoing symptoms such as urticaria are present, but this is not indicated in the question.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia six weeks ago after experiencing flu-like symptoms and a productive cough. Despite having no history of asthma, she quit smoking three years ago due to hypertension. A chest x-ray was performed and showed consolidation in the left lower zone, but no pleural effusion or abnormal heart size. She was treated with amoxicillin for a week and her symptoms improved. Now, six weeks later, a follow-up x-ray shows that the consolidation has improved but not completely resolved. Her cough is mostly gone and is no longer productive, and she has not experienced any coughing up of blood or weight loss. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic
Explanation:As an ex-smoker, this woman is experiencing a gradual improvement in her consolidation, but she still has a persistent cough. It is recommended that she be referred for further evaluation under the 2 week wait rule to rule out the possibility of lung cancer.
Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer
Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.
For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.
In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.
Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP for a check-up on his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), despite not experiencing any exacerbations in the past year. During the appointment, the GP orders some routine blood tests.
What alterations could be observed on the full blood count as a chronic effect of this man's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased concentration of haematocrit
Explanation:Polycythaemia can be a long-term complication of COPD that may be detected through a full blood count. This condition is caused by chronic hypoxia, which triggers the kidneys to produce more erythropoietin and increase haemoglobin levels. Thrombocytopenia, on the other hand, is a reduction in platelet count that can be caused by various factors such as medication side effects, vitamin deficiencies, or disseminated intravascular coagulation. Conversely, thrombocythemia, or an elevated platelet count, can be caused by inflammation, malignancy, or infection. Leukopenia, or a decrease in white blood cells, can be a result of acute infection or serious conditions like HIV or cancer. Finally, anaemia, or a decrease in haemoglobin concentration, can be caused by deficiencies in iron, vitamin B12, or folic acid.
Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.
To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.
In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer to the latest NICE guidelines.
Which of the following factors in her medical history would warrant the prescription of prophylactic antibiotics?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has had 5 exacerbations in the past year
Explanation:Patients with COPD who experience frequent exacerbations and meet specific criteria are recommended to undergo azithromycin prophylaxis. According to NICE guidelines, this treatment should be considered for non-smokers, patients who have already undergone pulmonary rehabilitation and are on the maximum inhaled therapy, and those who have had more than four exacerbations resulting in hospitalization with sputum production. Before starting the antibiotics, patients should undergo a CT scan to eliminate other lung pathologies.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual review. Until around two years ago they used just a salbutamol inhaler as required. Following a series of exacerbations, they were started on a corticosteroid inhaler and currently takes Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 400mcg bd. The patient reports that their asthma control has been 'good' for the past six months or so. They have had to use their asthma inhaler twice over the past six months, both times after going for a long jog. Their peak flow today is 520 l/min which is 90% of the best value recorded 5 years ago but up from the 510 l/min recorded 12 months ago. Their inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease the Clenil dose to 200mcg bd
Explanation:If asthma is well controlled, it is advisable to reduce the treatment, as per the guidelines of the British Thoracic Society.
Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.
Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old retired factory worker comes to the clinic complaining of left-sided pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of five to ten cigarettes per day since he was in his twenties.
During the physical examination, the patient exhibits clubbing, and chest auscultation reveals decreased air entry and dullness to percussion on the left side. A chest x-ray shows pleural thickening and a pleural effusion on the left side.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis
Explanation:Causes of Clubbing and Mesothelioma as a Differential Diagnosis
Clubbing can be caused by respiratory, gastroenterological, and cardiac conditions. Respiratory causes include cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, lung carcinoma, fibrosis, and mesothelioma. Gastroenterological causes include lymphoma, inflammatory bowel disease, and cirrhosis. Cardiac causes include cyanotic heart disease, atrial myxoma, and bacterial endocarditis.
In this case, the patient presents with clubbing and respiratory symptoms, making it difficult to determine the exact cause. However, the patient’s occupational history as a dock worker puts them at risk for mesothelioma, a type of cancer caused by exposure to asbestos. Mesothelioma is more likely than other options due to the patient’s age, clinical and chest x-ray findings of pleural thickening and effusion. It is important to consider mesothelioma as a differential diagnosis in patients with clubbing and a history of asbestos exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is associated with thyroid dysfunction
Explanation:Treatment Options and Risks for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that affects breathing during sleep, leading to interrupted sleep and daytime fatigue. In the UK, the Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) treatment is used for simple snoring, while in the USA, it is used to treat OSA with a success rate of around 65%. Tonsillectomy can also benefit some cases. However, successful treatment with continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the most effective way to reduce the risk of road traffic accidents (RTA) to normal levels and doesn’t exclude the sufferer from holding any type of driving licence. The risk of RTA, untreated, is estimated to be eight times normal. OSA is also associated with hypothyroidism and acromegaly, according to a study published in the Medicine Journal in May 2008. It is important to consider the various treatment options and risks associated with OSA to manage the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old comes in for an asthma check-up. She shows her inhaler technique and performs the following steps when using her salbutamol:
First, she removes the cap and shakes the puffer. Then, she breathes out gently before placing the mouthpiece in her mouth and pressing the canister as she inhales deeply. She holds her breath for 20 seconds before repeating the process for the next dose.
Is there anything wrong with her technique?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She must wait at least 30 seconds before administering her next dose
Explanation:The patient has good inhaler technique but needs to wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating the dose. Holding the breath for at least 10 seconds after administering the medication is recommended, but holding it for longer is not necessary. Advising the patient to hold their breath for at least 30 seconds after administering the dose is incorrect.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a medical history of COPD, ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism presented to your clinic for follow-up. He was recently released from the hospital after being diagnosed with pneumonia. According to his discharge summary, he had an allergic reaction to co-trimoxazole during his hospital stay, resulting in the discontinuation of one of his regular medications. He has been instructed to consult with his GP about this medication. Which medication is most likely to have been stopped due to the drug allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:If a patient has a known allergy to a sulfa drug like co-trimoxazole, they should avoid taking sulfasalazine.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 57-year-old woman who has just joined the practice. She has come to see you for a prescription for inhalers for her 'smokers cough'.
Her last GP had prescribed her salbutamol as required and tiotropium once daily. She tells you that she has always had 'trouble with her chest' and as a child had pneumonia which required a prolonged stay in hospital. She expectorates a large amount of grey-green sputum every day and this has been the case for 'years'; there have been no recent changes in her symptoms.
She gave up smoking about 20 years ago having smoked five cigarettes a day from the age of 20. On examination she has coarse crepitations at the right base and has finger clubbing. There is no lymphadenopathy or peripheral oedema. Her weight is stable.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Overlapping Symptoms of COPD and Other Respiratory Diagnoses
There are several respiratory diagnoses that can present with similar symptoms to COPD, including asthma, bronchiectasis, congestive cardiac failure, and bronchial carcinoma. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when assessing patients with COPD symptoms.
The basics of history and examination are crucial in forming a list of possibilities and guiding any investigation. In some cases, patients may have a rarer condition such as bronchopulmonary dysplasia or obliterative bronchiolitis.
In the case of this patient, the underlying diagnosis is bronchiectasis caused by childhood pneumonia. This has resulted in chronic sputum production and the presence of clubbing, ruling out asthma, COPD, and congestive cardiac failure. While bronchial carcinoma can also cause finger clubbing and focal chest signs, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history and other clinical features. Overall, healthcare professionals should always keep in mind the possibility of an alternative diagnosis when assessing patients with COPD symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent spirometry test. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past six months. Previously, he could walk comfortably to the pub at the far end of the village to meet his old friends from the steelworks, but he has been struggling to keep up with them for some time. He quit smoking four years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day since his 20s. He occasionally uses a salbutamol inhaler, which he has been prescribed for the past two years.
What is the recommended course of action for this patient's treatment, as per the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries guidelines?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Formoterol 12 micrograms 1 puff BD
Explanation:Spirometry and Management of COPD
In spirometry, a ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 indicates the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A diagnosis of stage 3 (severe) COPD is made when FEV1 is between 30-49% predicted. Smoking cessation is crucial in managing COPD. If a person prescribed with a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) remains breathless or experiences exacerbations, a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be offered. It is recommended to discontinue treatment with a SAMA if prescribing a LAMA. A regular LAMA is preferred over a regular SAMA four times daily. It is important to note that this approach differs from the PCRS approach, which categorizes treatment based on phenotypic groups for patients with predominant breathlessness, exacerbations, or COPD with asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as she is desperate to stop smoking. She has had a number of unsuccessful attempts to stop smoking over the years and has tried nicotine patches.
Which of the following would be an appropriate choice to assist in her attempts at smoking cessation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varenicline
Explanation:Varenicline: An Effective Anti-Smoking Agent
Varenicline, also known as Champix, is an oral medication that helps individuals quit smoking. It has a dual action, reducing the craving for cigarettes and making smoking less pleasurable. Clinical trials have shown that Varenicline is more effective than both bupropion and placebo.
The medication is prescribed for 12 weeks initially, and if cravings persist, a further 12-week course may be prescribed. Varenicline has been proven to be an effective tool in helping individuals quit smoking and can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive smoking cessation program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the most valuable tool for assessing a patient with suspected occupational asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Documentation of a known sensitising agent at the patient's workplace
Explanation:Understanding Occupational Asthma
Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by conditions and factors present in a particular work environment. It is characterized by variable air flow limitation and/or airway hyper-responsiveness. This type of asthma accounts for about 10% of adult asthma cases.
To diagnose occupational asthma, there are several investigations that are proven to be effective. These include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. If there is a consistent fall in peak flow values and increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work, then occupational asthma is confirmed.
It is important to understand occupational asthma and its causes to prevent and manage this condition effectively. Proper diagnosis and management can help individuals continue to work safely and maintain their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of cough and blood stained sputum, shortness of breath on exertion, and a dull ache in the right side of his chest for the past two weeks. He used to smoke 10 cigarettes per day for many years but quit five years ago. He works as a heating engineer and admits to having worked with asbestos in the past before safety measures were mandatory. On examination of the respiratory system, there are no abnormal findings, and he is apyrexial. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine chest x ray and review in two weeks
Explanation:Understanding Asbestos Exposure and Mesothelioma
Asbestos is a group of minerals that occur naturally in the environment as bundles of fibres. Exposure to asbestos can lead to various health problems, including asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and other cancers. Smokers who are also exposed to asbestos have a higher risk of developing lung cancer. If you suspect that you have been exposed to asbestos, it is important to inform your physician and report any symptoms.
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that is commonly associated with asbestos exposure. Symptoms of mesothelioma may include chest pain, breathlessness, weight loss, fatigue, and sweats. In some cases, there may be evidence of effusion or pleural thickening on a chest X-ray. An occupational history is important in identifying potential exposure to asbestos.
According to NICE guidelines, individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss should be offered an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks to assess for mesothelioma. This is especially important for those who have been exposed to asbestos or have a history of smoking. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for those with mesothelioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough and fever. He has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years.
On examination he has dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right lung base. He doesn't have any pain and is not breathless. You arrange a chest x ray, prescribe antibiotics and review him in one week.
He now feels better with less cough and no fever. His chest x ray reports an area of consolidation with a small pleural effusion at the right lung base. The radiologist recommends a follow up x ray in four weeks.
When the patient returns for the result of the follow up x ray the radiologist reports that there is little change in the appearances.
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a respiratory physician urgently
Explanation:Importance of Thorough Respiratory Examination in Lung Cancer Diagnosis
Pleural effusion and slowly resolving consolidation may indicate lung cancer, requiring urgent referral to a respiratory physician under the two week wait criteria. However, a comprehensive examination is necessary to avoid missing an effusion. Simply auscultating the chest is insufficient. A thorough respiratory examination, including noting any deviation of the trachea, percussion note, and tactile vocal fremitus, can provide important clues and need not significantly prolong the examination time. Failure to perform a thorough examination or investigation of malignancy is a contributing factor to delay in cancer diagnosis, according to the NPSA. In this case, the patient’s smoking history and slow-to-resolve consolidation further support the need for urgent referral and detailed imaging to reveal any underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is a smoker but has no history of respiratory disease and regularly plays football. Upon admission, a chest x-ray reveals a pneumothorax with a 3 cm rim of air. Aspiration is successful, and he is discharged. Two weeks later, a follow-up chest x-ray shows complete resolution. What is the most crucial advice to minimize his risk of future pneumothoraces?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:For non-smoking men, successful drainage can lead to a decrease in the risk of pneumothorax recurrence. The CAA recommends waiting for 2 weeks after drainage before flying if there is no remaining air. The British Thoracic Society previously advised against air travel for 6 weeks, but now suggests waiting only 1 week after a follow-up x-ray.
Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What statement about cough is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis is usually associated with purulent sputum
Explanation:Cough Characteristics and Associated Conditions
A bovine cough, resembling the sound of cattle, is often heard in cases of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which is commonly caused by lung cancer. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by the production of large amounts of purulent sputum. In women, chronic cough without airways disease is more common, and reflux is often the underlying cause. In cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), a productive cough is typical, but it may become non-productive in the end stages of the disease. These distinct cough characteristics can provide valuable clues in diagnosing and managing various respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old complains of breathlessness for four months.
She has recently seen the practice nurse for spirometry testing and these are her post bronchodilator results:
FEV1/FVC ratio 0.60
FEV1 (% predicted) 65%
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroids
Explanation:Initial Management for COPD
The most appropriate initial management for COPD would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. According to the Guidelines in Practice summary, a LAMA+LABA combination should be offered to people with spirometrically confirmed COPD who do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite other treatments. LABA+ICS should be considered for those with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. Antitussive therapy is not recommended, but a mucolytic can be considered for those with a chronic productive cough. In this breathless patient, a short acting muscarinic antagonist is the better choice. By optimizing non-pharmacological management and relevant vaccinations, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity that has been going on for two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. On examination, there are no abnormalities, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What is the most useful test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for arterial blood studies before and after exercise
Explanation:Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma
This patient is showing signs of exercise-induced asthma. To confirm this diagnosis, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This is because exercise is the trigger for his asthma symptoms, and spirometry can measure any changes in lung function before and after physical activity. By comparing the results, doctors can determine if the patient has exercise-induced asthma and develop an appropriate treatment plan. It is important to confirm the diagnosis to ensure the patient receives the correct treatment and can continue to participate in physical activity safely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a geriatric patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is the recommended vaccination protocol for this population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual influenza + one-off pneumococcal
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old gentleman with known bronchiectasis. Over the past 3 days, his cough has become increasingly productive and the sputum has become more thick and green than usual. He is slightly more short of breath than usual.
On examination, he is apyrexial, has a respiratory rate of 20, coarse crackles in both lung bases and doesn't appear cyanosed. He has no drug allergies.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sputum culture then amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5-7 days
Explanation:Treating Infective Exacerbation of Bronchiectasis
When managing a suspected infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis, it is crucial to obtain a sputum culture before initiating antibiotics. However, treatment should not be delayed until the culture results are available. It is also recommended to administer a more extended course of antibiotics than what is typically prescribed for a lower respiratory tract infection.
NICE provides specific guidance on the selection and duration of antibiotics based on the identified organism. Additionally, hospital admission should be considered if there are indications of a more severe illness, such as cyanosis, confusion, respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, significant breathlessness, or a temperature of 38°C or higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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