-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 56-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset, searing interscapular back pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril and amlodipine. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 110 beats per minute, blood pressure (BP) 140/91 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 per minute, oxygen saturation 95% on room air, temperature 37.1°C. Upon examination of the chest, there are no additional positive findings. The lungs expand symmetrically and have normal breath sounds. Heart sounds I and II are present without additional sounds. The initial electrocardiogram (ECG) was normal, and a portable chest X-ray showed a widened mediastinum as the only abnormality. What is the most useful investigation for diagnosing the patient's likely underlying condition?
Your Answer: CT thorax with intravenous (IV) contrast
Explanation:The sudden onset of intense, searing pain between the shoulder blades is a common symptom of aortic dissection, a condition where the inner layer of the aortic wall separates from the middle layer, creating a false and true aortic lumen. This can cause tachycardia and elevated blood pressure due to increased sympathetic activity. A widened mediastinum on an erect chest X-ray is a classic sign of aortic dissection, but other conditions can also cause this appearance. To diagnose aortic dissection, a CT thorax with IV contrast is recommended for detailed and rapid visualization. Treatment options range from medical management of blood pressure to emergency cardiothoracic surgery, depending on the extent of the dissection. Other diagnostic tests, such as a coronary angiogram, 24-hour ECG, troponin test, and echocardiogram, may not be as effective in diagnosing aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a serious and life-threatening cause of chest pain and can be classified based on the involvement of the ascending aorta and/or the descending aorta.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the obstetric clinic for a routine ultrasound scan. During the examination, it is observed that the mother's uterus is smaller than expected for her stage of pregnancy, and the ultrasound scan confirms the presence of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). The medical team inquires about any potential risk factors for IUGR that the mother may have.
What is a known maternal risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction?Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is a condition where a baby does not grow properly in the womb. There are various risk factors associated with IUGR, including smoking during pregnancy, which can increase the likelihood of developing the condition.
There are two types of IUGR: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical growth retardation occurs at the start or during early pregnancy and is characterized by a small head and short length. Asymmetrical growth retardation occurs in advanced pregnancy and is characterized by reduced abdominal growth compared to head circumference, due to selective shunting of blood to the brain.
It’s important to note that a baby with a birthweight below the tenth centile is considered small for gestational age (SGA), which may be normal or due to IUGR.
Contrary to popular belief, hypotension (low blood pressure), obesity, and stress are not recognized risk factors for IUGR. However, poorly controlled diabetes is a risk factor for IUGR, while well-controlled diabetes is not.
Understanding these risk factors can help healthcare providers identify and manage IUGR early on, leading to better outcomes for both mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old teacher and mother of two presents with back pain. This started after lifting some heavy boxes during a move. The pain was initially limited to her lower back but now she has shooting pains radiating down the back of her thigh, the lateral aspect of her leg and into the lateral border of her left foot. The pain can wake her at night if she moves suddenly but does not otherwise disturb her sleep. She is well, without past medical history of note. She reports no lower limb weakness, disturbance of sphincter function, nor any saddle symptoms. Examination reveals a tender lumbar spine, numbness to the lateral border of the left foot and pain on straight leg raise at 40 degrees on the left. There is no limb weakness.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Give analgesia and, in view of the presence of night pain, arrange an urgent MRI spine
Correct Answer: Give analgesia and refer for physiotherapy, with a review after 8 weeks to consider onward referral to a spinal surgeon or musculoskeletal medicine specialist if no better
Explanation:Management of Sciatica: Analgesia and Referral for Physiotherapy
Sciatica, also known as lumbar radiculopathy, is a common condition caused by a herniated disc, spondylolisthesis, or spinal stenosis. It is characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness that typically extends from the buttocks down to the foot. Diagnosis is made through a positive straight leg raise test. Management involves analgesia and early referral to physiotherapy. Bed rest is not recommended, and patients should continue to stay active. Symptoms usually resolve within 6-8 weeks, but if they persist, referral to a specialist may be necessary for further investigation and management with corticosteroid injections or surgery. Red flag symptoms, such as major motor weakness, urinary/faecal incontinence, saddle anaesthesia, night pain, fever, systemic symptoms, weight loss, past history of cancer, or immunosuppression, require urgent medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant. After three months he starts to feel unwell with flu-like symptoms, fever, and pain over the transplant area.
What is the most likely type of reaction that has occurred in the patient?Your Answer: Wound infection
Correct Answer: Acute graft failure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Graft Failure After Transplantation
Acute graft failure is a type of graft failure that occurs within six months after transplantation. If a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms, and pain over the transplant after three months, it may indicate acute graft failure. This type of failure is usually caused by mismatched human leukocyte antigen and may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Wound infection is not a likely cause of symptoms after three months since any wounds from the transplant would have healed by then. Chronic graft failure, on the other hand, occurs after six months to a year following the transplant and is caused by a combination of B- and T-cell-mediated immunity, infection, and previous occurrences of acute graft rejections.
Hyperacute rejection is a rare type of graft failure that occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. It happens because of pre-existing antibodies towards the donor before transplantation. In cases of hyperacute rejection, removal of the organ and re-transplantation is necessary.
It is important to understand the different types of graft failure after transplantation to properly diagnose and treat patients who may be experiencing symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman has given birth to her second and final child at 40 weeks gestation. She has been in the third stage of labor for 70 minutes and has lost 2900 ml of blood. Her previous baby was delivered via elective c-section. She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. An antenatal ultrasound was performed due to her risk factors, but the results were not seen by the delivery team until now. What is the most effective treatment for the underlying issue?
Your Answer: Oxytocin administration
Correct Answer: Hysterectomy
Explanation:In cases where delayed placental delivery is observed in patients with placenta accreta, hysterectomy is the recommended treatment. This patient has a history of previous caesarean-section and pelvic inflammatory disease, indicating a likely placenta accreta, which was also diagnosed antenatally on ultrasound. The optimal management approach involves leaving the placenta in-situ and performing a hysterectomy to avoid potential haemorrhage from attempts to actively remove the placenta. While medical management with oxytocin and ergometrine may help manage post-partum haemorrhage, it is not a definitive treatment option. Cord traction is also unlikely to be effective as the placenta is abnormally implanted into the uterine wall. Waiting another 30 minutes is not advisable due to the risk of further bleeding.
Understanding Placenta Accreta
Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.
There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which of these patients have an absolute contraindication for the COCP?
Your Answer: 38-year-old smoker, smoking 10 cigarettes/day
Correct Answer: 25-year-old breastfeeding at 4 weeks postpartum
Explanation:1: If you are over 35 years old and smoke at least 15 cigarettes a day, smoking is not recommended.
2: A BMI over 35 kg/m² should be evaluated by a medical professional, but it is not considered an absolute contraindication.
3: A history of ectopic pregnancies does not affect the use of COCP.
4: It is not recommended to use COCP within 6 weeks after giving birth.
5: There is no evidence linking the use of COCP to carpal tunnel syndrome.The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of weight loss, fatigue, heart palpitations, excessive sweating, and a lump in her throat that has been present for 2 months. After conducting tests, the doctor discovers a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Carbimazole
Explanation:Treatment Options for Thyroid Disorders: Carbimazole, Thyroxine, Carbamazepine, Surgery, and Radionuclide Iodine
Thyroid disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and require different treatment options depending on the diagnosis. Primary hyperthyroidism, caused by a disorder of the thyroid gland itself, is confirmed with raised serum levels of fT3/fT4 and a suppressed/reduced TSH. Symptoms include sweating, weight loss, palpitations, a goitre, hyperactivity, insomnia, emotional lability, reduced libido, heat intolerance, diarrhoea, increased appetite and menstrual irregularities. First-line treatment is with a thionamide such as carbimazole, which inhibits the thyroid peroxidase enzyme involved in the production and release of thyroid hormones. However, carbimazole is associated with serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, angioedema, lymphadenopathy, hepatic disorders and acute pancreatitis.
Thyroxine is prescribed for patients with hypothyroidism, in which case the TSH would be raised and the T3/T4 hormones low. Symptoms of hypothyroidism include weight gain, constipation, oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea, cold intolerance, tiredness, depression, brittle hair and nails, as well as muscle weakness. Thyroxine is contraindicated in patients with hyperthyroidism as it worsens their symptoms and might precipitate a thyroid storm.
Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication used in the treatment of epilepsy. It is a sodium channel blocker that prevents sodium binding and repetitive firing of action potentials. However, one of the most serious side effects associated with the use of carbamazepine is Stevens–Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. It can be licensed for use in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy and treatment of patients with bipolar disorder that is resistant to lithium.
Surgery is not first line for hyperthyroidism unless there is compression or compromise of the airway, medication has failed to control symptoms, or there is a concurrent suspicious or malignant thyroid nodule. Thyroidectomy has complications such as hypocalcaemia due to the removal of the parathyroid glands, vocal cord paralysis and hypothyroidism. Following a thyroidectomy, the patient will need to go on lifelong thyroid replacement therapy.
Radionu
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 55-year-old male patient reports experiencing excessive thirst and frequent urination for the past three months. What diagnostic measurement would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: A fasting plasma glucose of 7.5 mmol/L
Explanation:Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed based on symptoms and a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L or fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or the two hour oral glucose tolerance test. Impaired glucose tolerance is indicated by a post OGTT plasma glucose between 7.7 and 11.1 or a fasting plasma glucose between 6.1 and 7. HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut point for diagnosing diabetes for suitable groups. A value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes diagnosed using glucose test.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol per day. His liver function is normal.
After 12 hours of admission, he suddenly becomes unwell. His vital signs are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/minute
- Oxygen saturations: 96%
- Blood pressure: 123/76 mmHg
- Heart rate: 106 bpm
- Capillary blood glucose: 4.1 mmol/L
An ECG shows sinus tachycardia at a rate of 103 bpm. Upon examination, he appears tremulous and sweaty and complains of feeling anxious.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide regimen and regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement
Explanation:The administration of glucose IV is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing hypoglycemia. Simply providing regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement is insufficient as the patient also requires a benzodiazepine regimen for alcohol withdrawal. A stat dose of bisoprolol is not appropriate as the patient’s sinus tachycardia is a result of alcohol withdrawal and will not be effectively treated with bisoprolol.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old male comes to his primary care physician complaining of asymmetrical oligoarthritis mainly affecting his lower limbs, accompanied by dysuria and conjunctivitis for the past 2 weeks. He is typically healthy except for experiencing a bout of diarrhea a month ago. What is the initial recommended treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NSAIDs
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for acute reactive arthritis, provided there are no contraindications, is NSAIDs.
Reactive arthritis is characterized by an asymmetrical oligoarthritis accompanied by urethritis and conjunctivitis, which is preceded by a diarrheal illness. This condition is caused by exposure to certain gastrointestinal and genitourinary infections, with chlamydia, salmonella, and Campylobacter jejuni being the most commonly implicated bacteria. The first-line management for this patient should be NSAIDs, as there are no contraindications.
Intra-articular glucocorticoids are not the correct treatment option, although they may be considered in cases of reactive arthritis limited to a small number of joints that do not respond to NSAID treatment. Methotrexate is not appropriate for acute reactive arthritis, but it may be considered for chronic cases that are unresponsive to both NSAIDs and glucocorticoids. Oral glucocorticoids are not the first-line treatment option, but they may be considered if NSAIDs fail to control the patient’s symptoms.
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.
Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
An 82-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of confusion, lethargy and repeated vomiting. He has a medical history of heart failure, hypertension and atrial fibrillation, which is managed with digoxin. During a recent medication review with his general practitioner, he was prescribed a new medication. Upon examination, his heart rate is 34/min, respiratory rate 15/min, blood pressure 90/65 mmHg and temperature 35.9 ºC. An electrocardiogram reveals downsloping ST depression and inverted T waves. Which medication is most likely responsible for exacerbating his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, can lead to digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. This is evident in a patient presenting with symptoms such as confusion, lethargy, vomiting, and bradycardia, as well as an electrocardiogram showing downsloping ST depression and flattened or inverted T waves. Amlodipine, bisoprolol, and flecainide are not associated with hypokalemia or digoxin toxicity, but may cause other side effects such as flushing, bronchospasm, and arrhythmias.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. He is diagnosed with renal clear cell carcinoma. Upon staging, it is discovered that the tumour has spread to the adrenal gland. What would be the primary management option for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunomodulatory drugs
Explanation:Treatment Options for Stage 4 Renal Cancer with Metastases
Loin pain, haematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass are the classic symptoms of renal cancer, which is not very common. When the cancer has metastasized to the adrenal gland, it becomes a stage 4 tumor. Targeted molecular therapy is the first-line treatment for stage 4 renal cancer with metastases. Immunomodulatory drugs such as sunitinib, temsirolimus, and nivolumab are commonly used for this purpose.
Other treatment options for renal cancer include cryotherapy, partial nephrectomy, radiofrequency ablation, and radical nephrectomy. Cryotherapy uses liquid nitrogen to freeze cancerous cells, but it is usually only used for early-stage disease and is not first-line here. Partial nephrectomy is reserved for patients with small renal masses, usually stage 1. Radiofrequency ablation can be used for non-surgical candidates with small renal masses without metastasis, usually stage 1 or 2. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of the entire kidney, which is primarily done for stage 2 and 3 renal cell cancers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man, who is a heavy smoker, was seen in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic, complaining of severe pain in both legs, even at rest. On examination, he had chronic ulceration of his toes.
Which of the following conditions is he most likely to have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buerger’s disease
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans. This disease affects medium-sized and small arteries, particularly the tibial and radial arteries, and can extend to veins and nerves of the extremities. It is most commonly seen in heavy cigarette-smoking men, but there has been an increase in cases among women due to changing smoking trends. The disease typically begins before the age of 35 and causes severe pain, even at rest, due to neural involvement. Chronic ulcerations and gangrene can occur as later complications. Abstinence from smoking in the early stages can prevent further attacks. Other possible conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Kawasaki’s disease, polyarteritis nodosa, and Takayasu’s arthritis, have been ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman with a past medical history of back pain presents with urinary and fecal incontinence. What nerve roots are likely responsible for her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S 2,3,4
Explanation:The Anatomy and Pathology of the Spinal Cord and Nerve Roots
In adults, the spinal cord is shorter than the vertebral column, resulting in a progressive obliquity of the spinal nerve roots. As the distance between the spinal cord segments and the corresponding vertebrae increases, the length of the nerve roots also increases, particularly in the lumbar and sacral regions. The lumbar and sacral nerve rootlets are the longest and descend until they reach their IV foramina of exit in the lumbar and sacral regions of the vertebral column.
The bundle of spinal nerve roots in the lumbar cistern within the vertebral canal resembles a horse’s tail and is known as the cauda equina. However, spinal stenosis, which is a narrowing of the vertebral canal or the IV foramina, can cause compression of the spinal cord or the cauda equina. This condition may be congenital or caused by degeneration of vertebrae and typically occurs in the lumbar region of the vertebral column. Symptoms of spinal stenosis include back pain and paraesthesia resulting from ischaemia of the cauda equina.
The S2, 3, 4 nerve roots form the pudendal nerve, which supplies structures within the perineum, including sensory to the genitalia, muscular branches to perineal muscles, external urethral sphincter, and external anal sphincter. the anatomy and pathology of the spinal cord and nerve roots is crucial in diagnosing and treating conditions such as spinal stenosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his urine for the past week. He experiences a burning sensation while urinating but no other discomfort. He has noticed some weight loss recently but is unsure of the amount and duration.
The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis. He takes metformin, amlodipine, methotrexate, and prednisolone for these conditions. He has also had malaria and schistosomiasis in the past. There is no significant family history.
The patient has a 10 pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol occasionally. He recently returned from 40 years of teaching and traveling in rural Africa.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of bladder
Explanation:Bladder cancer of squamous origin is the most probable diagnosis considering the patient’s history of residing in high-risk areas and having schistosomiasis. Nephrolithiasis, on the other hand, would cause renal colic, which patients describe as intense pain waves and discomfort. Clear cell carcinoma, although the most common subtype of renal cell carcinoma, is still less prevalent than bladder cancer and would not result in bladder symptoms.
Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.
On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.
In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a head-on collision with a truck. The air ambulance arrives at the scene and finds that the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 6 (E2, V1, M3) and he has no air entry on the right side of the chest, with an open fractured neck of femur on the left side. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.8ºC, heart rate 120 bpm, blood pressure 70/50 mmHg, SpO2 94% on air, and respiratory rate 24/min. The fractured femur is reduced at the scene, but due to the patient's low GCS, the decision is made to intubate him at the scene. What is the most appropriate agent for induction of anesthesia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is a suitable anaesthetic option for patients who are haemodynamically unstable. Other anaesthetic agents can cause hypotension, which can be dangerous for patients who are already experiencing low blood pressure. Ketamine is often used in prehospital settings for pain relief and intubation, as it does not reduce blood pressure or cause cardiosuppression. Propofol, suxamethonium, desflurane, and thiopental sodium are not ideal options for induction of anaesthesia in haemodynamically unstable patients due to their potential to cause hypotension or other adverse effects.
Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents
Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and daycase surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.
Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood results are obtained:
- Adjusted calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
- Phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
- PTH 15.21 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
- Urea 4.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
- Creatinine 81 µmol/L (60-120)
- 25 OH Vit D 12 nmol/L (optimal >75)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin D Deficiency and its Effects on the Body
Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can be caused by a lack of dietary vitamin D or insufficient exposure to sunlight. This deficiency is more common in certain populations, such as the elderly, institutionalized patients, and ethnic groups with dark skin tones. Additionally, reduced sunlight exposure due to cultural dress codes, poor intake of dairy foods, and malabsorption states affecting fat-soluble vitamins can also contribute to vitamin D deficiency.
When the kidneys are functioning normally, they activate vitamin D through the 1-alpha hydroxylase mechanism. The actions of 1,25(OH)2 Vitamin D have various effects on the body. It has a direct effect on the gut, increasing the absorption of calcium and phosphate. It also has a direct effect on the kidney, inhibiting its own synthesis by reducing 1-alpha hydroxylase activity. Furthermore, it has a direct effect on the parathyroids, inhibiting PTH synthesis. At high concentrations, activated vitamin D increases osteoclastic activity, promoting bone resorption.
In conclusion, the risk factors and effects of vitamin D deficiency is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing related conditions. Adequate exposure to sunlight and a balanced diet can help prevent vitamin D deficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. She has a medical history of depression, epilepsy, and pulmonary tuberculosis and is currently taking carbamazepine, St John's wort, rifampicin, and isoniazid. Upon examination, she appears emaciated and has a noticeable odor of alcohol. Given her overdose, what factors may be associated with a lower risk of hepatotoxicity in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute alcohol intake
Explanation:There is no evidence to suggest that acute alcohol intake increases the risk of hepatotoxicity from paracetamol overdose. In fact, it may even have a protective effect. Chronic alcohol excess, on the other hand, is known to increase the risk of liver damage. Additionally, drugs like carbamazepine that induce liver enzymes should be used with caution in cases of paracetamol overdose.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his doctor complaining of worsening abdominal pain that has been present for two days. He also reports feeling nauseous and experiencing loose bowel movements. During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 37.9 °C, and he has a heart rate of 90 bpm and a blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg. The doctor notes that the patient's abdomen is tender to the touch and that he has a positive Rovsing sign. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Appendicitis
Explanation:Physical Signs and Symptoms of Abdominal Conditions
Abdominal conditions can present with a variety of physical signs and symptoms that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some common signs and symptoms associated with different abdominal conditions:
Appendicitis: A positive Rovsing sign, psoas sign, and obturator sign are less commonly found symptoms of appendicitis. More common signs include rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.
Splenic rupture: A positive Kehr’s sign, which is acute shoulder tip pain due to irritation of the peritoneum by blood, is associated with a diagnosis of splenic rupture.
Pyelonephritis: Positive costovertebral angle tenderness, also known as the Murphy’s punch sign, may indicate pyelonephritis.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm: A large abdominal aortic aneurysm may present with a pulsatile abdominal mass on palpation of the abdomen. However, the Rovsing sign is associated with appendicitis, not an abdominal aneurysm.
Pancreatitis: A positive Grey Turner’s sign, which is bruising/discoloration to the flanks, is most commonly associated with severe acute pancreatitis. Other physical findings include fever, abdominal tenderness, guarding, Cullen’s sign, jaundice, and hypotension.
Knowing these physical signs and symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 9 month old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother who is worried about the location of his testes. She has only noticed them during bath time and not at any other time. What could be the possible diagnosis for this concern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retractile testis
Explanation:A testis that can be brought down on clinical examination and does not immediately retract or appears in warm conditions is typically classified as a retractile testis.
Cryptorchidism is a condition where a testis fails to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. It is a congenital defect that affects up to 5% of male infants at birth, but the incidence decreases to 1-2% by the age of 3 months. The cause of cryptorchidism is mostly unknown, but it can be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions are differential diagnoses that need to be considered.
It is important to correct cryptorchidism to reduce the risk of infertility, allow for examination of the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testes are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, particularly if the testis is intra-abdominal. Orchidopexy, which involves mobilisation of the testis and implantation into a dartos pouch, is the preferred treatment for cryptorchidism between 6-18 months of age. Intra-abdominal testes require laparoscopic evaluation and mobilisation, which may be a single or two-stage procedure depending on the location. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be necessary in late teenage years to avoid the risk of malignancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old boy is brought to see the pediatrician by his father. He was born at 34/40 weeks gestation. His father is worried about cerebral palsy, as he has heard that premature birth can cause developmental problems. The child has been meeting all his developmental milestones, but his father is still concerned. During the examination, the boy shows normal power, tone, and reflexes in all four limbs.
What developmental problem would indicate a diagnosis of cerebral palsy in this 3-year-old boy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Not walking by 18 months old (corrected for prematurity)
Explanation:Developmental Milestones and Red Flags in Children: A Guide for Parents and Caregivers
As children grow and develop, they reach certain milestones that indicate their progress in various areas such as motor skills, social skills, and language development. However, if a child is not meeting these milestones within a certain timeframe, it may be a cause for concern and require further investigation. Here are some red flags to look out for:
– Not walking by 18 months old (corrected for prematurity): This may be a sign of cerebral palsy or other developmental problems including muscular dystrophy. Other areas of development should also be assessed.
– Hand preference at 18 months old: It is abnormal for a child to develop hand dominance before the age of 12 months old. This could be a sign of cerebral palsy or an injury causing an occult fracture or neuropathy.
– Loss of attained developmental milestones: While cerebral palsy is a non-progressive condition, delays in achieving milestones may be a sign of prenatal infections, birth trauma, hypoxic brain injury, or meningitis in the neonatal period.
– Not able to balance on one leg by the age of two years: This may be a sign of cerebral palsy or Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
– Not sitting up by six months old (corrected for prematurity): If a baby is unable to sit unsupported by the age of eight months, corrected for prematurity, further investigations should be done.It is important to remember that every child develops at their own pace, but if you have concerns about your child’s development, it is always best to seek advice from a healthcare professional. Early intervention and support can make a significant difference in a child’s development and future outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man has arrived at the emergency department after ingesting 28 paracetamol tablets. He has a history of alcohol and drug addiction, as well as being under the care of the mental health crisis team. Prior to the overdose, he had been consuming alcohol heavily. His BMI is 24 kg/m² and he has smoked for 24 pack-years. He is currently taking a statin, omeprazole, and occasionally aspirin for pain relief. The results of his liver function tests show an AST level of 110 iu/l (3-30 iu/l). What aspect of this patient's medical history places him at a heightened risk of hepatotoxicity following his overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic alcohol use
Explanation:Patients who have a history of chronic alcohol intake, anorexia nervosa, or are taking liver-enzyme inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin or carbamazepine are at high risk of hepatotoxicity if they overdose on paracetamol. This can cause permanent damage to the liver and even lead to mortality. Acute alcohol intake, on the other hand, is not a risk factor for hepatotoxicity and may even be protective. Aspirin can harm the stomach lining and kidneys if taken too frequently, but it is unlikely to have a lasting effect on the liver. Statin use does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity. While an AST level of 110 iu/l indicates acute hepatocyte damage, it does not provide information on the long-term effects on the liver, which can be better assessed using Prothrombin time or albumin.
Risk Factors for Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to hepatotoxicity, especially in certain groups of patients. Those taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs such as rifampicin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, or those with chronic alcohol excess or who take St John’s Wort are at an increased risk. Malnourished patients, such as those with anorexia nervosa, or those who have not eaten for a few days are also at a higher risk. Interestingly, acute alcohol intake does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity, and may even have a protective effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors when treating patients who have overdosed on paracetamol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A patient in their 60s with severe intermittent claudication undergoes an axillo-bifemoral bypass. Two days after the operation, they develop pain in the leg. Examination reveals a warm, erythaematous swelling in the groin.
What complication has occurred?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The graft has become infected
Explanation:Possible Complications of a Graft Procedure
Graft procedures are commonly performed to improve blood flow in patients with peripheral arterial disease. However, like any surgical intervention, there are potential complications that may arise. One possible complication is an infected graft, which can cause swelling and abscess formation. Another possibility is graft occlusion, which may occur if there is a surgical error and can lead to the recurrence of claudication symptoms. An anastomotic aneurysm is another rare but serious complication that may cause pulsatile swelling. Embolism is more likely to occur in patients with aneurysmal disease and can present with acute limb ischaemia or petechiae. Finally, an anastomotic leak is an extremely rare complication that may cause sudden pain and swelling at the site of the graft. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms after a graft procedure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with poorly controlled rheumatoid arthritis. Her hands and feet have been swollen and painful for the past five years, particularly her metacarpophalangeal joints. The stiffness and pain are worse in the morning but improve with use throughout the day. Despite trying methotrexate and sulfasalazine, both treatments have been unsuccessful. The doctor decides to start her on a trial of TNF-inhibitors. What should be done before beginning treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest x-ray
Explanation:Performing a chest X-ray before starting biologics for rheumatoid arthritis is crucial to check for TB as these medications can trigger reactivation of the disease. This is the correct answer. An abdominal X-ray is not necessary in this scenario as it is typically used for suspected abdominal perforation. While full blood count and liver function tests are essential monitoring tools for DMARDs, they are not required before initiating treatment due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis.
Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies
The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her 41 week check-up with consistently high blood pressure readings of 140/90 mmHg for the past 2 weeks. Her initial blood pressure at booking was 110/70 mmHg. Labetalol is administered to manage the hypertension. What is the recommended next step in her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer induction of labour
Explanation:At 41 weeks gestation, the pregnancy is considered post term. The woman can choose between induction of labour or expectant management. However, the risks to the foetus are higher at this stage, especially for those with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia, who are usually advised to deliver. Medical induction of labour is the recommended option, while caesarean section is only necessary in cases of foetal compromise. Treatment is not required for this level of blood pressure.
Understanding Post-Term Pregnancy
A post-term pregnancy is defined by the World Health Organization as one that has gone beyond 42 weeks. This means that the baby has stayed in the womb for longer than the usual 40 weeks of gestation. However, this prolonged pregnancy can lead to potential complications for both the baby and the mother.
For the baby, reduced placental perfusion and oligohydramnios can occur, which means that the baby may not be receiving enough oxygen and nutrients. This can lead to fetal distress and even stillbirth. On the other hand, for the mother, there is an increased risk of intervention during delivery, including forceps and caesarean section. There is also a higher likelihood of labor induction, which can be more difficult and painful for the mother.
It is important for pregnant women to be aware of the risks associated with post-term pregnancy and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular prenatal check-ups and monitoring can help detect any potential complications early on and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while playing basketball. He reports hearing a loud 'pop' and experiencing severe pain in his right knee, causing him to fall to the ground. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee and feels like it may give out. Upon examination, the knee is visibly swollen. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation:The sudden popping sound that occurred during athletic activity followed by knee pain, swelling, and instability is indicative of an ACL injury. This is the most likely answer based on the given information. A ruptured patella tendon would result in a high riding patella, while a ruptured medial meniscus would cause catching or locking of the knee. A ruptured posterior cruciate ligament is less common and would require further testing to differentiate from an ACL injury. However, based on the scenario described, an ACL injury is the most probable cause.
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is a knee ligament that is frequently injured, with non-contact injuries being the most common cause. However, a lateral blow to the knee or skiing can also cause ACL injuries. Symptoms of an ACL injury include a sudden popping sound, knee swelling, and a feeling of instability or that the knee may give way. To diagnose an ACL injury, doctors may perform an anterior draw test or a Lachman’s test. During the anterior draw test, the patient lies on their back with their knee at a 90-degree angle, and the examiner pulls the tibia forward to assess the amount of anterior motion in comparison to the femur. An intact ACL should prevent forward translational movement. Lachman’s test is a variant of the anterior draw test, but the knee is at a 20-30 degree angle, and it is considered more reliable than the anterior draw test.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old child with a suspected squint is referred to an ophthalmologist by her General Practitioner. The ophthalmologist makes a diagnosis of amblyopia (lazy eye) and suggests occlusion therapy.
What is occlusion therapy and how is it used to treat amblyopia in a 5-year-old child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Covering the normal eye with a patch
Explanation:Different Treatment Options for Amblyopia and Squint
Amblyopia and squint are two common eye conditions that can affect children. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to manage these conditions. Here are some of the most common treatments:
1. Occlusion therapy: This involves covering either the normal or abnormal eye with a patch to force the child to use the other eye. This helps to strengthen the muscles in the weaker eye and improve vision.
2. Penalisation therapy: If a child is non-compliant with occlusion therapy, atropine drops can be used in the normal eye to blur vision. This forces the child to use the weaker eye and improve its strength.
3. Corrective glasses: Glasses can be used to correct any refractive errors that may be contributing to the squint. This can help to improve the alignment of the eyes.
4. Surgical management: In some cases, surgery may be necessary to correct the misalignment of the eyes. This involves shortening or altering the insertion point of the extra-ocular muscles.
By using one or a combination of these treatments, children with amblyopia and squint can improve their vision and quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who was diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder 8 months ago. She has been taking sertraline for 5 months but feels that her symptoms have not improved much. Sophie wants to switch to a different medication. What is the most suitable drug to start?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If sertraline, a first-line SSRI, is ineffective or not well-tolerated for treating GAD, alternative options include trying a different SSRI like paroxetine or escitalopram, or an SNRI like duloxetine or venlafaxine. In Maxine’s case, since sertraline did not work, venlafaxine, an SNRI, would be a suitable option. Bupropion is primarily used for smoking cessation but may be considered off-label for depression treatment if other options fail. Mirtazapine is a NaSSA used for depression, not GAD. Pregabalin can be used if SSRIs or SNRIs are not suitable, and propranolol can help with acute anxiety symptoms but is not a specific treatment for GAD.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his parents after they witnessed him having a seizure. He had been experiencing a fever and cold symptoms for the past three days. His father also noticed a rash on his chest and a swollen tongue yesterday. The boy has met all of his developmental milestones prior to this incident.
After being assessed, the medical team has determined that the boy is safe to go home. What advice should the parents be given?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An ambulance must be called if another seizure occurs and persists for longer than five minutes
Explanation:Parents should be informed that if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than five minutes, they should call an ambulance. The presence of a sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue in the vignette suggests a diagnosis of scarlet fever, which is often associated with febrile seizures. However, it is important to note that simple febrile seizures lasting only a few minutes are generally not a cause for concern. It is not recommended to prescribe prophylactic antipyretics as they have not been shown to reduce seizure frequency according to NICE guidelines. Referral to a paediatric neurologist is only necessary if the child has neurodevelopmental delay or signs of a neurocutaneous syndrome or metabolic disorder.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)