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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the type of cell that utilizes its Ciliary to assist in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the type of cell that utilizes its Ciliary to assist in the movement of cerebrospinal fluid throughout the central nervous system of vertebrates?

      Your Answer: Microglial cells

      Correct Answer: Ependymal cells

      Explanation:

      The Functions of Cerebrospinal Fluid and the Roles of Different Types of Nervous System Cells

      The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear and colourless fluid that circulates in the subarachnoid space, ventricular system of the brain, and central canal of the spinal cord. It provides the brain and spinal cord with mechanical and immunological buoyancy, chemical/temperature protection, and intracranial pressure control. The circulation of CSF within the central nervous system is facilitated by the beating of the Ciliary of ependymal cells, which line the brain ventricles and walls of the central canal. Therefore, ependymal cells are responsible for this function.

      Different types of nervous system cells have distinct roles in supporting the nervous system. Astrocytes provide biochemical support to blood-brain barrier endothelial cells, supply nutrients to nervous tissue, maintain extracellular ion balance, and aid in repairing traumatic injuries. Microglial cells are involved in immune defence of the central nervous system. Oligodendrocytes generate myelin sheaths on neurones of the central nervous system, while Schwann cells generate myelin sheaths on neurones of the peripheral nervous system.

      In summary, the CSF plays crucial roles in protecting and supporting the central nervous system, and ependymal cells are responsible for its circulation. Different types of nervous system cells have distinct functions in supporting the nervous system, including biochemical support, immune defence, and myelin sheath generation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is seen in a specialist clinic with his mother. She asks the doctor if there is a treatment to slow the progression of the disease.

      Which treatment slows the progression of muscle weakness in DMD?

      Your Answer: Gene therapy

      Correct Answer: Steroids

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic condition that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting due to the lack of the dystrophin protein. While there is currently no cure for DMD, there are several treatment options available to manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

      Steroids are the mainstay of pharmacological treatment for DMD. They can slow the decline in muscle strength and motor function if started before substantial physical decline and if the side-effects of long-term steroid use are effectively managed.

      Ataluren is a medication that restores the synthesis of dystrophin in patients with nonsense mutations. It is used in patients aged less than five years with nonsense mutations who are able to walk and slows the decline in physical function.

      Immunoglobulin therapy is sometimes used for autoimmune myositis, but has no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Gene therapy seeks to manipulate the expression of a gene for therapeutic use in genetic conditions. Although there are currently clinical trials underway, gene therapy is not currently available for use in DMD.

      Methotrexate and other disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs may be used in the treatment of myositis, but have no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Biological therapies such as rituximab are often used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis, as well as myositis, but have no role in the treatment of DMD.

      Managing Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The right anterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old motorcyclist was brought to the Emergency Department after being in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old motorcyclist was brought to the Emergency Department after being in a road traffic accident and found alone on the road. Upon examination, he seems drowsy and is making grunting sounds, his pupils are equal and reactive to light, his eyes open to pain, and he withdraws his hand when the nurses attempt to insert a cannula. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used by clinicians to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state, particularly in cases of head injury. It provides a common language for healthcare professionals to discuss a patient’s condition. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s best eye, verbal, and motor responses, with a maximum score of 15/15 for a fully conscious and alert patient.

      The calculation for the GCS score is as follows: for eyes, the score ranges from 1 to 4 depending on whether the patient’s eyes open spontaneously, in response to speech, in response to pain, or not at all. For verbal response, the score ranges from 1 to 5 depending on whether the patient is oriented, confused, uses inappropriate words or sounds, or has no verbal response. For motor response, the score ranges from 1 to 6 depending on whether the patient obeys commands, localizes pain, withdraws from pain, exhibits abnormal flexion or extension, or has no response.

      If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to accurately calculate the GCS score and take appropriate action based on the score.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - As a Foundation Year 2 in general practice, you see a 35-year-old diabetic...

    Correct

    • As a Foundation Year 2 in general practice, you see a 35-year-old diabetic woman who complains of numbness and tingling in some of her fingers in her right hand. During examination, you observe that she has reduced sensation in her thumb, index and middle fingers in this hand. She also has some weakness in these fingers when she tries to flex them and make a fist, and there is some thenar muscle wasting. Her pulse is 80 bpm with a normal volume, and otherwise her skin, joints and bones appear totally normal.
      What is the most likely condition that she is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hand and Wrist Conditions: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Other Possibilities

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition where the median nerve is compressed, leading to symptoms such as tingling, numbness, altered sensation, and pain in the thumb, index finger, and half of the middle finger. This condition can be caused by various risk factors, including obesity, overuse of hand and wrist, wrist trauma, and pregnancy. Diagnosis can be made through tests such as Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests, and treatment options range from conservative measures to surgical intervention.

      Other possible hand and wrist conditions include radial nerve palsy, peripheral neuropathy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Radial nerve palsy presents with wrist drop and an inability to extend the wrist, while peripheral neuropathy typically affects both upper and lower limbs in a glove and stocking distribution of anesthesia. Cubital tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of the ulnar nerve and affects the ring and fifth finger, while rheumatoid arthritis tends to be symmetrical and affects the small joints of the hand. Understanding these conditions and their unique features can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      122
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man presents with daily severe headaches which come on over a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with daily severe headaches which come on over a few minutes and typically last 1 hour. This has been happening for the last 2 weeks. The pain is retro-orbital. The pain is lancinating in nature and associated with lacrimation and rhinorrhoea.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Headaches and Their Characteristics

      Headaches are a common ailment that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the different types of headaches and their characteristics:

      1. Cluster Headache: These are extremely severe headaches that are typically one-sided and located behind the eye. They occur in clusters, with attacks lasting 15 minutes to 3 hours and occurring regularly over a period of approximately 2 months. They are often accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and conjunctival injection. Treatment includes high-flow oxygen and subcutaneous sumatriptan.

      2. Hemicrania Continua: This headache is characterized by a continuous, fluctuating, unilateral pain that does not shift sides of the head. Autonomic symptoms such as eye watering and nasal blocking can occur, as well as migrainous symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. Treatment is with indomethacin.

      3. Migraine: This headache is typically one-sided and throbbing in nature, with associated features such as photophobia and aura.

      4. Space-Occupying Lesion: Headaches caused by a space-occupying lesion are likely to be constant and may be associated with focal neurology and signs of raised intracranial pressure such as papilledema.

      5. Tension Headache: This headache typically has a long history and is classically described as a tight band around the forehead.

      Understanding the characteristics of different types of headaches can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 5 years ago and has been in good health otherwise. He has noticed over the past week that he is unable to raise his right hand at the wrist without any pain. Upon examination, a right-sided wrist drop is observed. Which nerve is being affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects

      Wrist drop is a condition that occurs when the radial nerve is injured, resulting in the inability to extend the wrist. In addition to this, there is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of the hand. Another nerve injury that affects the shoulder muscles is axillary nerve palsy. This condition can cause weakness in the shoulder and difficulty lifting the arm.

      Long thoracic nerve injury is another common nerve injury that causes winging of the scapula. This condition occurs when the nerve that controls the muscles of the scapula is damaged, resulting in the shoulder blade protruding from the back. Median nerve palsy affects the sensation to the lateral palmar three and a half fingers and involves the muscles of the thenar eminence. This condition can cause weakness in the hand and difficulty with fine motor skills.

      Finally, ulnar nerve palsy causes a claw hand, which is characterized by the inability to extend the fingers and a claw-like appearance of the hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor notices evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of recurring headaches on the left side accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of recurring headaches on the left side accompanied by lacrimation, ptosis, and miosis on the same side. The duration of each episode is less than two hours. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster Headaches

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that affects the neurovascular system. These headaches are characterized by severe pain that is usually felt on one side of the head, specifically in the temple and periorbital region. Along with the pain, individuals may experience ipsilateral lacrimation, nasal congestion, conjunctival injection, miosis, ptosis, and lid oedema. The duration of each headache is brief, lasting only a few moments to two hours. The term cluster refers to the grouping of headaches that occur over a period of several weeks.

      In summary, cluster headaches are a debilitating type of headache that can cause significant discomfort and disruption to daily life. the symptoms and duration of these headaches can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
      A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions

      Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.

      Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.

      It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical examination reveals CN III, CN IV and CN VI palsies, a Horner’s syndrome, and facial sensory loss in the distribution of the V1 (ophthalmic) and V2 (maxillary) divisions of the trigeminal cranial nerve.
      Where is the causative abnormality located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Cranial Nerves and the Cavernous Sinus

      The cavernous sinus is a crucial location for several cranial nerves and blood vessels. Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, as well as the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) divisions of the V cranial nerve, pass through the cavernous sinus with the internal carotid artery. The V2 division of the trigeminal nerve exits via the foramen rotundum, while the rest of the cranial nerves enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure.

      Damage to these nerves can result in ophthalmoplegia, facial pain, and sensory loss. Involvement of sympathetic nerves around the internal carotid artery can lead to Horner’s syndrome. Tolosa Hunt syndrome is an idiopathic inflammatory process that affects the cavernous sinus and can cause a cluster of these symptoms.

      Dorello’s canal carries cranial nerve VI (abducens) from the pontine cistern to the cavernous sinus. The zygomatic branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure. Meckel’s cave houses the trigeminal nerve ganglion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.

      She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.

      What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.

      On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.

      Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.

      A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:

      Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)

      CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)

      CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -

      CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.

      What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in...

    Incorrect

    • What impact would a voltage-gated calcium channel inhibitor have on action potentials in the central nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease of postsynaptic potentials

      Explanation:

      Effects of Inhibition of Voltage-Gated Channels in the Central Nervous System

      In the central nervous system, voltage-gated calcium channels play a crucial role in the release of neurotransmitters. On the other hand, action potentials involve sodium and potassium voltage-gated channels. If these channels are inhibited, the amount of neurotransmitter released would decrease, leading to a subsequent decrease in the postsynaptic potentials, both graded and action. It is important to note that the decrease in postsynaptic potentials is the only correct option from the given choices.

      It is incorrect to assume that the inhibition of voltage-gated channels would lead to a decrease in action potential amplitude. This is because the amplitude of an action potential is an all-or-none event, and it is the frequency of action potentials that determines the strength of a stimulus. Similarly, the decrease in action potential conduction speed is also incorrect as it depends on the myelination of the axon. Moreover, it is incorrect to assume that inhibiting voltage-gated channels would increase the speed and amplitude of action potentials.

      Lastly, inhibiting presynaptic potentials is also incorrect as they depend on sodium/potassium voltage-gated ion channels. Therefore, it is essential to understand the effects of inhibiting voltage-gated channels in the central nervous system to avoid any misconceptions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor, reporting a progressive weakness on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor, reporting a progressive weakness on the left side of her face for the past 48 hours. What symptom would be indicative of Bell's palsy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the left-hand side of the tongue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms and their Causes

      Bell’s palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, causing weakness or paralysis on one side of the face. Here are some common symptoms of Bell’s palsy and their causes:

      1. Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the left-hand side of the tongue: This is due to a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion, which carries taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

      2. Deviation of the tongue to the left on tongue protrusion: This is caused by a hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) lesion, which affects the movement of the tongue.

      3. Sparing of function of the forehead muscles and eye closure: This occurs with an upper motor neurone lesion, which affects the muscles of facial expression on the whole of one side of the face.

      4. Weakened voluntary facial movements but normal spontaneous movements: Bell’s palsy affects both voluntary and involuntary movements equally, but some stroke patients may show relative sparing of spontaneous movements.

      5. Inability to close both the right and the left eye: Bell’s palsy refers to a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion, which affects the facial muscles on the side ipsilateral to the lesion only.

      Understanding these symptoms and their causes can help in the diagnosis and treatment of Bell’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A previously healthy 72-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 72-year-old man reports experiencing intermittent flashes and a curtain-like loss of lateral vision in his right eye upon waking up this morning, which has since worsened. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal Detachment

      Retinal detachment is a serious eye emergency that occurs when the retina’s sensory and pigment layers separate. This condition can be caused by various factors such as congenital malformations, metabolic disorders, trauma, vascular disease, high myopia, vitreous disease, and degeneration. It is important to note that retinal detachment is a time-critical condition that requires immediate medical attention.

      Symptoms of retinal detachment include floaters, a grey curtain or veil moving across the field of vision, and sudden decrease of vision. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent permanent vision loss. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms associated with retinal detachment to ensure prompt medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 76-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of difficulty speaking, swallowing, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man comes to his doctor complaining of difficulty speaking, swallowing, and experiencing sudden emotional outbursts of laughter or tears. Upon examination, the doctor observes a spastic tongue, an exaggerated jaw jerk, normal gag reflex, and bilateral upper motor neuron signs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudobulbar palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pseudobulbar Palsy: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis

      Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition that results from lesions in the corticobulbar pathways connecting the cortex to the brainstem. This article aims to provide a comprehensive understanding of pseudobulbar palsy, including its symptoms, causes, and differential diagnosis.

      Symptoms of Pseudobulbar Palsy
      Patients with pseudobulbar palsy may experience emotional lability, difficulty swallowing, and spastic dysarthria, which can cause a husky or gravelly voice. On examination, patients may exhibit an exaggerated jaw jerk, weak muscles of mastication, a spastic immobile tongue, and bilateral upper motor neuron signs.

      Causes of Pseudobulbar Palsy
      Pseudobulbar palsy can occur due to demyelination, such as in multiple sclerosis, motor neuron disease, and bilateral cerebrovascular disease. Other causes include traumatic brain injury, brain tumors, and infections.

      Differential Diagnosis
      It is important to differentiate pseudobulbar palsy from other neurological conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, a frontal lobe tumor can cause emotional lability and personality changes, but it would not explain the bilateral upper motor neuron signs and voice changes seen in pseudobulbar palsy. Bulbar palsy, on the other hand, is caused by lower motor neuron disturbance and presents with nasal speech and tongue fasciculations, absent gag reflex, and lower motor neuron signs. Cerebellar infarcts and Huntington’s disease can also present with speech and motor impairments, but they have distinct clinical features that differentiate them from pseudobulbar palsy.

      Conclusion
      Pseudobulbar palsy is a neurological condition that can cause emotional lability, difficulty swallowing, and spastic dysarthria. It is important to consider this diagnosis in patients presenting with these symptoms and to differentiate it from other neurological conditions that may have similar presentations. Early diagnosis and management can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a...

    Incorrect

    • In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a neuron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: By its valence, concentration gradient and membrane permeability

      Explanation:

      The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.

      Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

      As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.

      Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe and unremitting occipital headache. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe and unremitting occipital headache. On examination, she is drowsy and confused, with a blood pressure of 180/95 mmHg. You suspect that she may have had a subarachnoid haemorrhage and arrange a computed tomography (CT) scan. This is normal. She undergoes a lumbar puncture and the results are shown below:
      Pot 1: red cells 490 × 109/l, white cells 10 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Pot 2: red cells 154 × 109/l, white cells 8 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Pot 3: red cells 51 × 109/l, white cells <5 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Traumatic tap

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Lumbar Puncture Results in Neurological Conditions

      Lumbar puncture is a diagnostic procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis in various neurological conditions. The results of a lumbar puncture can provide valuable information in diagnosing conditions such as traumatic tap, subarachnoid hemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, and viral meningitis.

      Traumatic Tap: A traumatic tap is characterized by a gradation of red cell contamination in sequential samples of CSF. This condition is often accompanied by severe headaches and can be managed with adequate analgesia and reassessment of blood pressure.

      Confirmed Recent Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage, red cells within the CSF are expected to be constant within each bottle. However, a more reliable way to examine for subarachnoid hemorrhage is to look for the presence of xanthochromia in the CSF, which takes several hours to develop.

      Bacterial Meningitis: Bacterial meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly polymorphs. CSF protein and glucose, as well as paired blood glucose, are valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing bacterial meningitis.

      Viral Meningitis: Viral meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly lymphocytes. Protein and glucose levels in the CSF are also valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing viral meningitis.

      Subarachnoid Hemorrhage >1 Week Ago: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage that occurred more than a week ago, few red cells would remain in the CSF. In such cases, examining the CSF for xanthochromia in the lab is a more valuable test.

      In conclusion, interpreting lumbar puncture results requires careful consideration of various parameters and their respective values in different neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old man presents with wrist drop in his right hand. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with wrist drop in his right hand. Upon examination, a small region of sensory loss is noted on the back of his hand. Which nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve supplies muscles in the forearm and sensation to the dorsum of the thumb and fingers. Damage results in wrist drop and impaired sensation. The long thoracic nerve supplies serratus anterior and damage causes winging of the scapula. Median nerve palsy results in weakness in thumb and finger movement and sensory loss. T1 nerve root lesion results in Klumpke’s palsy. Ulnar nerve compression results in numbness and weakness in the hand, and can progress to a claw hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You observe that he is having some trouble speaking, and upon further inquiry, he reveals that this has also been worsening over time. He reports no issues with chewing. During the examination, you note that he has a missing gag reflex and displays tongue atrophy and fasciculations.
      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Bulbar Palsy

      Bulbar palsy is a condition that affects the lower motor neurons of the cranial nerves, causing difficulty in speech and swallowing. To manage a patient with this condition, appropriate investigations must be conducted to determine the underlying cause.

      MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, and lumbar puncture are some of the most appropriate investigations to manage a patient with bulbar palsy. These investigations can help identify reversible causes such as brainstem stroke or tumor, neurodegenerative diseases, infectious neuropathies, and autoimmune neuropathies.

      On the other hand, investigations such as nerve conduction studies and viral PCR have no place in the management of this patient. CT head may be helpful, but MRI brain is a more appropriate form of imaging. Routine bloods can also be done to determine the systemic health of the patient.

      Speech and language therapy is an essential part of managing a patient with bulbar palsy, as it can help improve their speech and swallowing. However, ophthalmology review and ECG are not necessary unless there is a clear clinical indication.

      In summary, appropriate investigations for a patient with bulbar palsy include MRI brain, serology for infectious neuropathies, lumbar puncture, and routine bloods. Speech and language therapy is also crucial for managing the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right eye. He has a regular heart rate of 88 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable test to diagnose the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid duplex ultrasonography

      Explanation:

      Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis

      Carotid duplex ultrasonography is an investigation used to identify significant stenosis or occlusive lesions in the internal carotid artery caused by atherosclerosis. This condition can lead to amaurosis fugax, temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. Although carotid duplex is not arranged directly from primary care, healthcare professionals should have an of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and be able to discuss this with patients in more general terms, including indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A middle-aged homeless alcoholic who frequently attends the Emergency Department is brought by...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged homeless alcoholic who frequently attends the Emergency Department is brought by ambulance, having been found unconscious on the street. He had been examined the previous day with head and facial injuries following a fist fight. Examination on admission reveals an unconscious patient smelling strongly of alcohol. He is rousable with painful stimuli, but confused and unco-operative. His pupils are unequal, with the left pupil measuring approximately 8 mm and the right 4 mm. The left pupil is unreactive to both direct and consensual light stimulus, whereas the right pupil constricts normally to direct and consensual light stimulus.
      Which cranial nerve(s) is this lesion affecting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The left oculomotor nerve

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Pupillary Light Reflex and Nerve Lesions

      The pupillary light reflex involves two cranial nerves, the second and third, and their respective pathways. The optic nerve carries visual stimuli to the brain, while the oculomotor nerve controls the constriction of the pupil. Second-order neurons from the optic tract bypass the thalamus and primary visual cortex to reach the midbrain’s pretectal area. From there, neurons pass to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei, which send preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to both oculomotor nerves en route to the ciliary ganglion and sphincter pupillae.

      If a lesion occurs in the left oculomotor nerve, the left pupil will not constrict to light. This can happen due to raised intracranial pressure with a left-sided subdural hematoma, which can impinge on the nerve. However, if the right pupil constricts normally, the right oculomotor nerve and optic nerve must be intact.

      If a lesion occurs in the left optic nerve, the left pupil will not constrict to light, and the right pupil will not constrict to consensual light. This is because the optic nerve relays visual stimuli from the retina to the brain, and both eyes must be intact for the reflex to occur.

      If a combined lesion occurs in the left oculomotor and optic nerves, the left pupil will not constrict to light, and the right pupil will not constrict to consensual light. However, the right pupil will still constrict to direct light, indicating that the optic nerve is intact bilaterally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A senior citizen visits his GP with a complaint of left facial weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen visits his GP with a complaint of left facial weakness. He reports difficulty in removing food from his mouth while eating. Which muscle is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccinator

      Explanation:

      Facial Nerve and its Branches: Muscles of Facial Expression

      The facial nerve, also known as the seventh cranial nerve, is responsible for providing motor function to the muscles of facial expression through its five branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, and cervical. Additionally, it supplies special sensation, such as taste, through the chorda tympani.

      One of the muscles affected by a lesion of the facial nerve is the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for emptying food residue from the vestibule when it contracts. On the other hand, the temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, and masseter muscles are supplied by the mandibular nerve, a branch of the trigeminal nerve. Lesions of this nerve would not lead to facial paralysis.

      Understanding the facial nerve and its branches is crucial in diagnosing and treating facial paralysis and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to a Paediatrician due to learning and behavioural difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes symmetrical muscle weakness and notes that the child has only recently learned to walk. The girl requires assistance from her hands to stand up. The Paediatrician suspects that she may have Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and orders additional tests.
      What is the protein that is missing in DMD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dystrophin

      Explanation:

      Proteins and Genetic Disorders

      Dystrophin, Collagen, Creatine Kinase, Fibrillin, and Sarcoglycan are all proteins that play important roles in the body. However, defects or mutations in these proteins can lead to various genetic disorders.

      Dystrophin is a structural protein in skeletal and cardiac muscle that protects the muscle membrane against the forces of muscular contraction. Lack of dystrophin leads to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), a debilitating and life-limiting condition.

      Collagen is a protein found in connective tissue and defects in its structure, synthesis, or processing can lead to Ehlers Danlos syndrome, a genetic connective-tissue disorder.

      Creatine kinase is an enzyme released from damaged muscle tissue and elevated levels of it are seen in children with DMD.

      Fibrillin is a protein involved in connective tissue formation and mutations in the genes that code for it are found in Marfan syndrome, a connective tissue disorder.

      Sarcoglycans are transmembrane proteins and mutations in the genes that code for them are involved in limb-girdle muscular dystrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind the eyes and photophobia. She has vomited twice since the headache came on. She says it is the worst headache she has ever had by far. There is no past history of migraine. Examination reveals no neurological deficit.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Headache: CT Scan, Lumbar Puncture, Plasma Viscosity, MRI, and Angiography

      Headaches can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying condition to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of a headache:

      1. CT Scan of the Head: This imaging test is the initial investigation of choice when subarachnoid haemorrhage is suspected. It can show the presence of blood in the subarachnoid or intraventricular spaces.

      2. Lumbar Puncture: If there is doubt about the presence of subarachnoid haemorrhage, a lumbar puncture may be considered 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Multiple cerebrospinal fluid samples should be sent for microscopy to look for the persistent presence of red blood cells and xanthochromia.

      3. Plasma Viscosity: This test is useful when temporal arthritis is suspected as a cause of headache. It will typically be highly elevated. However, it is not useful in the diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      4. MRI of the Head: This imaging test may be considered later in the diagnostic process if other diagnoses are being considered. However, CT scan is a more appropriate first-line test.

      5. Angiography: This test is usually performed to identify an aneurysm that may be amenable to intervention, either with open surgery or commonly interventional radiology.

      In conclusion, the appropriate diagnostic test for a headache depends on the suspected underlying condition. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old female patient, who smokes and is taking the combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient, who smokes and is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, reports experiencing pain and swelling in her right calf for the past two days. She also presents with sudden onset weakness on her right side. Upon examination, she displays a dense hemiplegia, with upper motor neuron signs and weakness in her right hand. Additionally, evidence of a deep vein thrombosis in her right calf is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paradoxical embolism

      Explanation:

      Possible Embolic Cerebrovascular Accident in a Patient with History of DVT and Contraceptive Pill Use

      This patient presents with symptoms suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), including calf pain and swelling, and has a history of using the combined oral contraceptive pill, which increases the risk of DVT. However, the sudden onset of right-sided hemiplegia indicates the possibility of an embolic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) caused by an embolus passing through the heart and crossing over to the systemic side of circulation via an atrial septal defect (ASD) or ventricular septal defect (VSD).

      It is important to note that pulmonary embolism would not occur in this case without an ASD. While an aneurysm or hemorrhagic stroke are possible, they are less likely given the patient’s history of DVT. A tumor would also have a more chronic symptomatology, further supporting the possibility of an embolic CVA in this patient. Further diagnostic testing and treatment are necessary to confirm and address this potential complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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