-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that started suddenly during exercise. She reports vomiting and recurrent vertigo sensations. On examination, she has an ataxic gait, left-sided horizontal nystagmus, and an intention tremor during the 'finger-to-nose' test. An urgent CT scan is ordered. Which arteries provide blood supply to the affected area of the brain?
Your Answer: Anterior and middle cerebral arteries
Correct Answer: Basilar and the vertebral arteries
Explanation:The correct answer is the basilar and vertebral arteries, which form branches that supply the cerebellum. The patient’s sudden onset headache, vomiting, and vertigo suggest a pathology focused on the brain, with ataxia, nystagmus, and intention tremor indicating cerebellar syndrome. A CT scan is necessary to rule out a cerebellar haemorrhage or stroke, as the basilar and vertebral arteries are the main arterial supply to the cerebellum.
The incorrect answer is the anterior and middle cerebral arteries, which supply the cerebral cortex and would present with different symptoms. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries are also incorrect, as they supply the spine and would present with different symptoms. The ophthalmic and central retinal artery is also incorrect, as it would only present with visual symptoms and not the other symptoms seen in this patient.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 180/100 mmHg during ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. The physician prescribes Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor. What is the most frequent adverse effect associated with this medication?
Your Answer: A dry cough
Explanation:Hypotension, particularly on the first dose, and deterioration of renal function are common side effects of ACE inhibitors in patients. Although angioedema is a rare side effect of ACE inhibitors, oedema is typically associated with calcium channel blockers. Diuretics may cause excessive urine output, while shortness of breath and headaches are uncommon.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
You are caring for a woman who has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction due to a previous myocardial infarction.
Starling's Law of the Heart states that:Your Answer: As preload progressively increases, stroke volume decreases gradually then increases suddenly
Correct Answer: As preload progressively increases, stroke volume increases gradually then decreases suddenly
Explanation:Starling’s Law of the Heart states that as preload increases, stroke volume also increases gradually, up to a certain point. However, beyond this point, stroke volume decreases due to overloading of the cardiac muscle fibers. Therefore, the higher the cardiac preload, the greater the stroke volume, but only up to a certain limit.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe crushing chest pain that radiates to his jaw and is accompanied by profuse sweating and nausea. Upon conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in leads V2-V4, leading you to diagnose an anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI). Can you identify the coronary vessel that runs along the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?
Your Answer: Left circumflex artery
Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Explanation:The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart muscle, and blockages in these arteries can lead to heart attacks. The right coronary artery supplies the right side of the heart and is often associated with arrhythmias when blocked. The left circumflex artery supplies the left side of the heart and can cause lateral, posterior, or anterolateral heart attacks when blocked. The right marginal artery arises from the right coronary artery and travels along the bottom of the heart, while the left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery and travels along the curved edge of the heart.
The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 67-year old man with a history of cardiovascular disease and COPD visits his GP. During a routine blood test, the GP observes that the patient has mild hyponatraemia. Which medication could have played a role in causing his hyponatraemia?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics have been linked to the adverse effect of hyponatremia, while caution is advised when using β2-agonists like salbutamol in patients with hypokalemia due to their potential to decrease serum potassium. In cases of hyperkalemia, β2-agonists may be used as a temporary treatment option. Bendroflumethiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can cause electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypochloremic alkalosis. On the other hand, ACE inhibitors like ramipril may lead to hyperkalemia, especially in patients with renal impairment, diabetes mellitus, or those taking potassium-sparing diuretics, potassium supplements, or potassium-containing salts. Atenolol, however, is not directly associated with electrolyte disturbances.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male presents to the GP clinic complaining of increased shortness of breath during physical activity and swelling in both ankles. The GP schedules an echocardiogram for him as an outpatient. During the echocardiogram, the patient's heart rate was 72 bpm and blood pressure was 136/88 mmHg. The results of the echocardiogram show an end-diastolic volume of 105ml and an end-systolic volume of 65ml. What is the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman comes into the emergency department with her daughter after experiencing shortness of breath for 2 hours. She is in poor condition with a heart rate of 128/min, blood pressure of 90/66 mmHg, O2 saturation of 94% on air, respiratory rate of 29/min, and temperature of 36.3ºC. Her legs are swollen up to her knees, and her JVP is visible at her ear lobe. She has a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, angina, and a smoking history of 20 packs per year.
What is the underlying cause of her presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced cardiac output
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s acute heart failure is a decrease in cardiac output, which may be due to biventricular failure. This is evidenced by peripheral edema and respiratory distress, including shortness of breath, high respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturation. These symptoms are likely caused by inadequate heart filling, leading to peripheral congestion and pulmonary edema or pleural effusion.
The pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is not relevant to the patient’s condition, as it is not explained by her peripheral edema and elevated JVP.
While shortness of breath in heart failure may be caused by reduced ventilation/perfusion due to pulmonary edema, this is only one symptom and not the underlying mechanism of the condition.
The overactivity of the renin-angiotensin system is a physiological response to decreased blood pressure or increased renal sympathetic firing, but it is not necessarily related to the patient’s current condition.
Understanding Acute Heart Failure: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Acute heart failure (AHF) is a medical emergency that can occur suddenly or worsen over time. It can affect individuals with or without a history of pre-existing heart failure. Decompensated AHF is more common and is characterized by a background history of HF. AHF is typically caused by a reduced cardiac output resulting from a functional or structural abnormality. De-novo heart failure, on the other hand, is caused by increased cardiac filling pressures and myocardial dysfunction, usually due to ischaemia.
The most common precipitating causes of acute AHF are acute coronary syndrome, hypertensive crisis, acute arrhythmia, and valvular disease. Patients with heart failure may present with signs of fluid congestion, weight gain, orthopnoea, and breathlessness. They are broadly classified into four groups based on whether they present with or without hypoperfusion and fluid congestion. This classification is clinically useful in determining the therapeutic approach.
The symptoms of AHF include breathlessness, reduced exercise tolerance, oedema, fatigue, chest signs, and an S3-heart sound. Signs of AHF include cyanosis, tachycardia, elevated jugular venous pressure, and a displaced apex beat. Over 90% of patients with AHF have a normal or increased blood pressure.
The diagnostic workup for patients with AHF includes blood tests, chest X-ray, echocardiogram, and B-type natriuretic peptide. Blood tests are used to identify any underlying abnormalities, while chest X-ray findings include pulmonary venous congestion, interstitial oedema, and cardiomegaly. Echocardiogram is used to identify pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade, while raised levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (>100mg/litre) indicate myocardial damage and support the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing severe dizziness, vertigo, slurred speech, and nausea with vomiting. The diagnosis reveals a basilar artery stroke. Which blood vessels combine to form the affected artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vertebral arteries
Explanation:The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old male comes to your clinic complaining of occasional chest pain that usually occurs after meals and typically subsides within a few hours. He has a medical history of bipolar disorder, osteoarthritis, gout, and hyperparathyroidism. Currently, he is undergoing a prolonged course of antibiotics for prostatitis.
During his visit, an ECG reveals a QT interval greater than 520 ms.
What is the most likely cause of the observed ECG changes?
- Lithium overdose
- Paracetamol use
- Hypercalcemia
- Erythromycin use
- Amoxicillin use
Explanation: The most probable cause of the prolonged QT interval is erythromycin use, which is commonly associated with this ECG finding. Given the patient's medical history, it is likely that he is taking erythromycin for his prostatitis. Amoxicillin is not known to cause QT prolongation. Lithium toxicity typically presents with symptoms such as vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and agitation. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with a short QT interval, making it an unlikely cause. Paracetamol is not known to cause QT prolongation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin use
Explanation:The prolonged QT interval can be caused by erythromycin.
It is highly probable that the patient is taking erythromycin to treat his prostatitis, which is the reason for the prolonged QT interval.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dyspnea while in a supine position. Despite having a normal ejection fraction, what could be a potential cause for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He has diastolic dysfunction
Explanation:When there is systolic dysfunction, the ejection fraction decreases as the stroke volume decreases. However, in cases of diastolic dysfunction, ejection fraction is not a reliable indicator as both stroke volume and end-diastolic volume may be reduced. Diastolic dysfunction occurs when the heart’s compliance is reduced.
Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
What is the average stroke volume in a resting 75 Kg man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70ml
Explanation:The range of stroke volumes is between 55 and 100 milliliters.
The stroke volume refers to the amount of blood that is pumped out of the ventricle during each cycle of cardiac contraction. This volume is usually the same for both ventricles and is approximately 70ml for a man weighing 70Kg. To calculate the stroke volume, the end systolic volume is subtracted from the end diastolic volume. Several factors can affect the stroke volume, including the size of the heart, its contractility, preload, and afterload.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease is diagnosed with antithrombin III deficiency after presenting to the emergency department with left leg pain and swelling. A doppler-ultrasound scan confirms the presence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient is prescribed dabigatran. What is the mechanism of action of dabigatran?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct thrombin inhibitor
Explanation:Dabigatran inhibits thrombin directly, while heparin activates antithrombin III. Clopidogrel is a P2Y12 inhibitor, Abciximab is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor, and Rivaroxaban is a direct factor X inhibitor.
Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications
Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran does not require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Whilst in general practice, you review John, a 50-year-old patient with hypertension. Despite taking lisinopril, his blood pressure remains clinically elevated. Based on current guidelines you consider add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic.
Which of the following electrolyte imbalances may arise with this new treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Hypokalaemia may be caused by thiazides
Thiazide diuretics can lead to hypokalaemia by stimulating aldosterone production and inhibiting the Na-Cl symporter. This inhibition results in more sodium being available to activate the Na/K-ATPase channel, leading to increased potassium loss in the urine and hypokalaemia.
Thiazide diuretics may also cause other side effects such as hypocalciuria, hypomagnesemia, and hyperlipidemia. The other options that describe the opposite of these disturbances are incorrect.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old man presents to a heart failure clinic with worsening peripheral oedema and seeks advice on potential treatment options. The patient has a medical history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and chronic kidney disease. His current medication regimen includes ramipril, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and furosemide.
The patient's laboratory results show a sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 7.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), creatinine level of 132 µmol/L (55 - 120), and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 53 ml/min/1.73m2 (>60).
What adjustments should be made to the patient's furosemide treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the dose
Explanation:To ensure sufficient concentration of loop diuretics within the tubules, patients with poor renal function may require increased doses. This is because loop diuretics, such as furosemide, work by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which reduces the absorption of NaCl. As these diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Therefore, increasing the dose can help achieve the desired concentration within the tubules. The other options, such as changing to amlodipine, keeping the dose the same, or stopping immediately, are not appropriate in this scenario.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old boy collapses at home and is taken to the hospital. After all tests come back normal, what is the underlying mechanism behind a vasovagal episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral vasodilation and venous pooling
Explanation:Vasovagal syncope is a common type of fainting that is often seen in adolescents and older adults. It typically occurs when a person with a predisposition to this condition is exposed to a specific trigger. Before losing consciousness, the individual may experience symptoms such as lightheadedness, nausea, sweating, or ringing in the ears. When they faint, they fall down, which helps restore blood flow to the brain by eliminating the effects of gravity and allowing the person to regain consciousness.
The mechanism behind a vasovagal episode involves a cardioinhibitory response that causes a decrease in heart rate (negative chronotropic effect) and contractility (negative inotropic effect), leading to a reduction in cardiac output and peripheral vasodilation. These effects result in the pooling of blood in the lower limbs.
Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. It is a common condition that can affect people of all ages. Syncope can be caused by various factors, including reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope. Reflex syncope is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups, while orthostatic and cardiac causes become more common in older patients.
Reflex syncope is triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other stimuli. Situational syncope can be caused by coughing, urination, or gastrointestinal issues. Carotid sinus syncope is another type of reflex syncope that occurs when pressure is applied to the carotid artery in the neck.
Orthostatic syncope occurs when a person stands up too quickly, causing a sudden drop in blood pressure. This can be caused by primary or secondary autonomic failure, drug-induced factors, or volume depletion.
Cardiac syncope is caused by arrhythmias, structural issues, or pulmonary embolism. Bradycardias and tachycardias are common types of arrhythmias that can cause syncope.
To diagnose syncope, doctors may perform a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, an ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, or a 24-hour ECG. These tests can help determine the underlying cause of syncope and guide treatment options.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old man experienced recurrent episodes of breathlessness and palpitations lasting approximately 20 minutes and resolving gradually. No unusual physical signs were observed. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panic attacks
Explanation:Likely Diagnosis for Sudden Onset of Symptoms
When considering the sudden onset of symptoms, drug abuse is an unlikely cause as the symptoms are short-lived and not accompanied by other common drug abuse symptoms. Paroxysmal SVT would present with sudden starts and stops, rather than a gradual onset. Personality disorder and thyrotoxicosis would both lead to longer-lasting symptoms and other associated symptoms. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis for sudden onset symptoms would be panic disorder. It is important to consider all possible causes and seek medical attention to properly diagnose and treat any underlying conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
How many valves are present between the right atrium and the superior vena cava (SVC)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:Inserting a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium is relatively easy due to the absence of valves.
The Superior Vena Cava: Anatomy, Relations, and Developmental Variations
The superior vena cava (SVC) is a large vein that drains blood from the head and neck, upper limbs, thorax, and part of the abdominal walls. It is formed by the union of the subclavian and internal jugular veins, which then join to form the right and left brachiocephalic veins. The SVC is located in the anterior margins of the right lung and pleura, and is related to the trachea and right vagus nerve posteromedially, and the posterior aspects of the right lung and pleura posterolaterally. The pulmonary hilum is located posteriorly, while the right phrenic nerve and pleura are located laterally on the right side, and the brachiocephalic artery and ascending aorta are located laterally on the left side.
Developmental variations of the SVC are recognized, including anomalies of its connection and interruption of the inferior vena cava (IVC) in its abdominal course. In some individuals, a persistent left-sided SVC may drain into the right atrium via an enlarged orifice of the coronary sinus, while in rare cases, the left-sided vena cava may connect directly with the superior aspect of the left atrium, usually associated with an unroofing of the coronary sinus. Interruption of the IVC may occur in patients with left-sided atrial isomerism, with drainage achieved via the azygos venous system.
Overall, understanding the anatomy, relations, and developmental variations of the SVC is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating related conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 53-year-old woman presents with stroke symptoms after experiencing difficulty speaking and changes in vision while at a hair salon. She developed a headache after having her hair washed, and further examination reveals a vertebral arterial dissection believed to be caused by hyperextension of her neck.
What is the pathway of this blood vessel as it enters the cranial cavity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum to enter the cranial cavity. If the neck is hyperextended, it can compress and potentially cause dissection of these arteries. A well-known example of this happening is when a person leans back to have their hair washed at a salon. The vertebral artery runs alongside the medulla in the foramen magnum. The carotid canal is not involved in this process, as it contains the carotid artery. Similarly, the foramen ovale contains the accessory meningeal artery, not the vertebral artery, and the foramen spinosum contains the middle meningeal artery, not the vertebral artery.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old woman delivers a baby boy in the delivery room. The midwife observes microcephaly, polydactyly, and low-set ears during the neonatal assessment. Trisomy 13 is confirmed through rapid genetic testing. What is the most commonly associated cardiac abnormality with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Explanation:Understanding Ventricular Septal Defect
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common congenital heart disease that affects many individuals. It is caused by a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. In some cases, VSDs may close on their own, but in other cases, they require specialized management.
There are various causes of VSDs, including chromosomal disorders such as Down’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, Patau syndrome, and cri-du-chat syndrome. Congenital infections and post-myocardial infarction can also lead to VSDs. The condition can be detected during routine scans in utero or may present post-natally with symptoms such as failure to thrive, heart failure, hepatomegaly, tachypnea, tachycardia, pallor, and a pansystolic murmur.
Management of VSDs depends on the size and symptoms of the defect. Small VSDs that are asymptomatic may require monitoring, while moderate to large VSDs may result in heart failure and require nutritional support, medication for heart failure, and surgical closure of the defect.
Complications of VSDs include aortic regurgitation, infective endocarditis, Eisenmenger’s complex, right heart failure, and pulmonary hypertension. Eisenmenger’s complex is a severe complication that results in cyanosis and clubbing and is an indication for a heart-lung transplant. Women with pulmonary hypertension are advised against pregnancy as it carries a high risk of mortality.
In conclusion, VSD is a common congenital heart disease that requires specialized management. Early detection and appropriate treatment can prevent severe complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is typically not provided by the right coronary artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The circumflex artery
Explanation:The left coronary artery typically gives rise to the circumflex artery.
The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of atrial fibrillation that was not effectively managed with atenolol alone. Digoxin works by inhibiting a crucial element in the cardiac action potential that restores resting potential. This inhibition leads to changes in the levels of specific ions on either side of the membrane, resulting in an enhanced contractile force of the heart and an improvement in left ventricular ejection fraction.
Which element does digoxin inhibit to achieve this effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase
Explanation:Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain.
He has a past medical history of stroke and myocardial infarction. During examination, there was noticeable distension of the abdomen and the stools were maroon in color. The lactate level was found to be 5 mmol/L, which is above the normal range of <2.2 mmol/L.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a disruption in blood flow to the small intestine or right colon. This can be caused by arterial or venous disease, with arterial disease further classified as non-occlusive or occlusive. The classic triad of symptoms associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia includes gastrointestinal emptying, abdominal pain, and underlying cardiac disease.
The hallmark symptom of mesenteric ischaemia is severe abdominal pain, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, ileus, peritonitis, blood in the stool, and shock. Advanced ischaemia is characterized by the presence of these symptoms.
There are several risk factors associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia, including congestive heart failure, cardiac arrhythmias (especially atrial fibrillation), recent myocardial infarction, atherosclerosis, hypercoagulable states, and hypovolaemia. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and to seek medical attention promptly if any symptoms of acute mesenteric ischaemia are present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A routine ECG is performed on a 24-year-old man. Which segment of the tracing obtained indicates the repolarization of the atria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:During the QRS complex, the process of atrial repolarisation is typically not discernible on the ECG strip.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements relating to the basilar artery and its branches is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest of the cerebellar arteries arising from the basilar artery
Explanation:The largest of the cerebellar arteries that originates from the vertebral artery is the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. The labyrinthine artery, which is thin and lengthy, may emerge from the lower section of the basilar artery. It travels alongside the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves into the internal auditory meatus. The posterior cerebral artery is frequently bigger than the superior cerebellar artery and is separated from the vessel, close to its source, by the oculomotor nerve. Arterial decompression is a widely accepted treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with increasing fatigue and difficulty exercising. After undergoing various tests, including echocardiography and right heart catheterization, it is determined that he has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) with a mean pulmonary artery pressure of 35 mmhg and a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 8mmhg. One of the medications prescribed for him is ambrisentan. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endothelin-1 receptor antagonist
Explanation:Ambrisentan is an antagonist of endothelin-1 receptors, which are involved in vasoconstriction. In pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), the expression of endothelin-1 is increased, leading to constriction of blood vessels. Ambrisentan selectively targets ETA receptors found in vascular smooth muscle, reducing morbidity and mortality in PAH patients. Common side effects include peripheral edema, sinusitis, flushing, and nasal congestion. Prostacyclins like PGI2 can also be used to manage PPH by dilating blood vessels and inhibiting platelet aggregation. PGE2, an inflammatory mediator, is not used in PAH treatment. PDE inhibitors like sildenafil increase cGMP levels in pulmonary vessels, relaxing vascular smooth muscle and reducing pulmonary artery pressure.
Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a condition where the resting mean pulmonary artery pressure is equal to or greater than 25 mmHg. The pathogenesis of PAH is thought to involve endothelin. It is more common in females and typically presents between the ages of 30-50 years. PAH is diagnosed in the absence of chronic lung diseases such as COPD, although certain factors increase the risk. Around 10% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
The classical presentation of PAH is progressive exertional dyspnoea, but other possible features include exertional syncope, exertional chest pain, peripheral oedema, and cyanosis. Physical examination may reveal a right ventricular heave, loud P2, raised JVP with prominent ‘a’ waves, and tricuspid regurgitation.
Management of PAH should first involve treating any underlying conditions. Acute vasodilator testing is central to deciding on the appropriate management strategy. If there is a positive response to acute vasodilator testing, oral calcium channel blockers may be used. If there is a negative response, prostacyclin analogues, endothelin receptor antagonists, or phosphodiesterase inhibitors may be used. Patients with progressive symptoms should be considered for a heart-lung transplant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman is scheduled to begin taking warfarin. Prior to starting this medication, her other medications are reviewed for potential contraindications. Is there any medication that should be reconsidered or adjusted before initiating warfarin therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Before prescribing warfarin to a patient, it is crucial to thoroughly check for potential interactions with other medications. Warfarin is metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver, which means that medications that affect this enzyme system can impact warfarin metabolism.
Certain medications, such as NSAIDs, antibiotics like erythromycin and ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, and SSRIs like fluoxetine, can inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes and slow down warfarin metabolism, leading to increased effects.
On the other hand, medications like phenytoin, carbamazepine, and rifampicin can induce cytochrome P450 enzymes and speed up warfarin metabolism, resulting in decreased effects.
However, medications like simvastatin, salmeterol, bisoprolol, and losartan do not interfere with warfarin and can be safely prescribed alongside it.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
An 85-year-old man presents to the hospital with complaints of breathlessness at rest. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension, for which he takes metformin, lisinopril, and metoprolol. He also smokes five cigarettes a day. On examination, he has a heart rate of 100 bpm, blood pressure of 128/90 mmHg, and a respiratory rate of 26 with oxygen saturation of 88% on 2l/minute. He has a regular, slow rising pulse, an ejection systolic murmur, crepitations at both lung bases, and oedema at the ankles and sacrum.
What investigation is most crucial for his immediate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electrocardiogram
Explanation:Managing Pulmonary Edema from Congestive Cardiac Failure
Pulmonary edema from congestive cardiac failure requires prompt investigation and management. The most crucial investigation is an ECG to check for a possible silent myocardial infarction. Even if the ECG is normal, a troponin test may be necessary to rule out a NSTEMI. Arterial blood gas analysis is also important to guide oxygen therapy. Additionally, stopping medications such as metformin, lisinopril, and metoprolol, and administering diuretics can help manage the condition.
It is likely that the patient has aortic stenosis, which is contributing to the cardiac failure. However, acute management of the valvular disease will be addressed separately. To learn more about heart failure and its management, refer to the ABC of heart failure articles by Millane et al. and Watson et al.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with pleuritic thoracic pain and fever. His medical history includes an inferior STEMI that occurred 3 weeks ago. During auscultation, a pericardial rub is detected, and his ECG shows diffuse ST segment elevation and PR segment depression. What is the complication of myocardial infarction that the patient is experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dressler syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms strongly suggest Dressler syndrome, which is an autoimmune-related inflammation of the pericardium that typically occurs 2-6 weeks after a heart attack. This condition is characterized by fever, pleuritic pain, and diffuse ST elevation and PR depression on an electrocardiogram. A pleural friction rub can also be heard during a physical exam.
While another heart attack is a possibility, the absence of diffuse ST elevation and the presence of a pleural friction rub make this diagnosis less likely.
A left ventricular aneurysm would present with persistent ST elevation but no chest pain.
Ventricular free wall rupture typically occurs 1-2 weeks after a heart attack and would present with acute heart failure due to cardiac tamponade, which is characterized by raised jugular venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus, and diminished heart sounds.
A ventricular septal defect usually occurs within the first week and would present with acute heart failure and a pansystolic murmur.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man with diabetes presents to the vascular clinic with a chronic cold purple right leg that previously only caused pain during exercise. However, he now reports experiencing leg pain at rest for the past week. Upon examination, it is noted that he has no palpable popliteal, posterior tibial, or dorsalis pedis pulses on his right leg and a weak posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulse on his left leg. His ABPI is 0.56. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty
Explanation:The man is experiencing critical ischemia, which is a severe form of peripheral arterial disease. He has progressed from experiencing claudication (similar to angina of the leg) to experiencing pain even at rest. While lifestyle changes and medication such as aspirin and statins are important, surgical intervention is necessary in this case. His ABPI is very low, indicating arterial disease, and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty is the preferred surgical option due to its minimally invasive nature. Amputation is not recommended at this stage as the tissue is still viable.
Symptoms of peripheral arterial disease include no symptoms, claudication, leg pain at rest, ulceration, and gangrene. Signs include absent leg and foot pulses, cold white legs, atrophic skin, arterial ulcers, and long capillary filling time (over 15 seconds in severe ischemia). The first line investigation is ABPI, and imaging options include colour duplex ultrasound and MR/CT angiography if intervention is being considered.
Management involves modifying risk factors such as smoking cessation, treating hypertension and high cholesterol, and prescribing clopidogrel. Supervised exercise programs can also help increase blood flow. Surgical options include percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and surgical reconstruction using the saphenous vein as a bypass graft. Amputation may be necessary in severe cases.
Understanding Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI)
Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) is a non-invasive test used to assess the blood flow in the legs. It is a simple and quick test that compares the blood pressure in the ankle with the blood pressure in the arm. The result is expressed as a ratio, with the normal value being 1.0.
ABPI is particularly useful in the assessment of peripheral arterial disease (PAD), which is a condition that affects the blood vessels outside the heart and brain. PAD can cause intermittent claudication, which is a cramping pain in the legs that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest.
The interpretation of ABPI results is as follows: a ratio between 0.6 and 0.9 is indicative of claudication, while a ratio between 0.3 and 0.6 suggests rest pain. A ratio below 0.3 indicates impending limb loss and requires urgent intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A patient in his late 60s presents with dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, fatigue, cyanosis. A diagnosis of acute heart failure is made. He is started on diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers but shows minimal improvement with medications.
What should be considered if he continues to fail to improve?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure
Explanation:If a patient with acute heart failure does not show improvement with appropriate medication, CPAP should be considered as a viable treatment option.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be given in accordance with British Thoracic Society guidelines to maintain oxygen saturations between 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may be considered for those with concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect and contraindication.
For patients with respiratory failure, CPAP may be used. In cases of hypotension or cardiogenic shock, treatment can be challenging as loop diuretics and nitrates may exacerbate hypotension. Inotropic agents like dobutamine may be considered for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and potentially reversible cardiogenic shock. Vasopressor agents like norepinephrine are typically only used if there is insufficient response to inotropes and evidence of end-organ hypoperfusion. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be used.
While opiates were previously used routinely to reduce dyspnoea/distress in patients, NICE now advises against routine use due to studies suggesting increased morbidity in patients given opiates. Regular medication for heart failure such as beta-blockers and ACE-inhibitors should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped if the patient has a heart rate less than 50 beats per minute, second or third degree atrioventricular block, or shock.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)