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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with chronic shortness of breath and symptoms of heart failure. After primary care investigation, she was urgently referred to the cardiologists due to an abnormal ECG and elevated brain natriuretic peptide level. The echocardiogram performed by the cardiologists confirmed a diagnosis of heart failure with left ventricular dysfunction.
Her current medications include: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, furosemide 20 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg daily.
During examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate is 75 beats per minute and regular, her lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral edema.
What is the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management at this point?Your Answer: Add in bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure Patients
Beta-blockers are recommended for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of age or comorbidities such as peripheral vascular disease, interstitial pulmonary disease, erectile dysfunction, diabetes, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease without reversibility. However, asthma is a contraindication to beta-blocker use.
Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol are the beta-blockers of choice for treating chronic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. These three beta-blockers have been proven effective in clinical trials and have prognostic benefits. Bisoprolol and carvedilol reduce mortality in all grades of stable heart failure, while nebivolol is licensed for stable mild to moderate heart failure in patients over the age of 70.
Even if a patient with heart failure is currently well and showing no signs of fluid overload, beta-blockers are still recommended due to their prognostic benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 2
Correct
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A 30-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with complaints of painful urination and left knee pain. He had experienced a severe episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis, and this patient exhibits two of these classic symptoms.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.
The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).
To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42-year-old male presents with jaundice and pruritus. He has a history of ulcerative colitis and is currently taking sulfasalazine. He reports feeling increasingly tired and has noticed a yellow tint to his eyes. On examination, he has scratch marks on his skin, hepatomegaly, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mmHg with a pulse rate of 74. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of bilirubin, ALT, and ALP. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis in Patients with Ulcerative Colitis
Patients with elevated ALP levels may be incidentally picked up and require further investigation. However, those who are symptomatic may present with jaundice, pruritus, fatigue, and abdominal pain. Clinically, patients may also have hepatomegaly and be jaundiced.
In the case of a patient with ulcerative colitis, the likelihood of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is significantly increased. Approximately 3% of UC sufferers have PSC, and 80% of those with PSC have UC. While gallstones in the common bile duct and liver cysts of hydatid disease can present with similar symptoms, the history of UC makes PSC a more likely diagnosis. Haemolytic anaemia and osteomalacia can cause elevated ALP levels, but they would not account for the cholestatic liver function and hepatomegaly seen in PSC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.
Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to you after finding out she is pregnant two months after getting a progesterone-only implant. She wants to continue the pregnancy but is concerned about the effects of the hormone on the fetus.
What advice would you give to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Remove contraceptive implant
Explanation:Contraceptive Hormones and Pregnancy
Women who are using contraceptive hormones should not worry about any harm to the fetus if they become pregnant. It is not necessary to terminate the pregnancy for this reason. If the woman chooses to abort the pregnancy, the contraceptive implant can be left in place for ongoing contraception. Referral to an early pregnancy assessment unit or for an anomaly scan is also unnecessary as there is no risk to the fetus.
However, it is important to remove the progesterone-only implant as soon as pregnancy is confirmed. The only exception to this is if an intrauterine device is in place and pregnancy is diagnosed after 12 weeks. In such cases, the contraception should not be removed. Women can be reassured that contraceptive hormones are safe and effective for preventing pregnancy, and should not hesitate to use them if desired.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.
Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old HGV driver presents to you seeking sickness certification. He was recently hospitalized after experiencing a loss of consciousness. During his inpatient stay, he was diagnosed with a single isolated seizure, but no clear underlying cause was identified. He has not been prescribed any anti-seizure medication and has been referred to a neurologist for further evaluation, which is currently pending. He has not driven since the seizure and plans to inform the DVLA. He is uncertain about the duration of time he will need to abstain from driving HGVs and seeks your advice.
What advice should you provide him regarding the potential impact on his ability to operate an HGV?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He must cease driving for 6 months
Explanation:Driving Regulations for Group 2 Drivers
There are stricter driving regulations for group 2 drivers, which include HGV drivers. In the event of a first unprovoked seizure, group 1 drivers typically have their driving privileges suspended for 6 months (or 12 months if there is an underlying issue that may increase seizure risk). However, group 2 drivers must cease driving for 5 years. This extended period of time can have a significant impact on employment. It is important to have a thorough understanding of the regulations for group 2 drivers, particularly for common medical conditions such as seizures/epilepsy, diabetes, and cerebrovascular disease. As a result, you may be asked to provide advice on the impact of these conditions on driving for those with a group 2 license.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days which initially started with a few days of cold symptoms. He describes it as ‘the worst cough I've ever had’. He has bouts of coughing followed by an inspiratory gasp. This is usually worse at night and can be so severe that he sometimes vomits. He is otherwise fit and well and confirms he completed all his childhood immunisations. Examination of his chest is unremarkable.
What is the most suitable initial management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start a course of oral clarithromycin
Explanation:If a patient presents with symptoms consistent with whooping cough within 21 days of onset, the recommended first-line treatment is a macrolide antibiotic such as clarithromycin or azithromycin. Starting treatment within this timeframe can reduce the risk of spread. It is not recommended to delay treatment or offer a booster vaccination as initial management. Doxycycline is not the first-line antibiotic for whooping cough.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old nursing home resident, with advanced dementia, has become increasingly verbally disruptive at meal times, often shouting out incoherent phrases at staff and other residents. A general examination, urine dipstick and baseline blood tests were normal.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restrain the patient at meal times in case of violent behaviour
Explanation:Managing Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia
With Behavioural and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD), it is crucial to identify and treat any reversible causes. However, in cases where there are no other symptoms and normal examination and investigations, empirical antibiotics should be avoided as they may lead to adverse clinical events such as Clostridium difficile. If conservative measures fail, it is advisable to seek advice from an elderly care physician who may recommend short-term use of medications such as haloperidol or lorazepam. It is important to note that restraining the patient during anticipated bad behaviour is not appropriate. By following these guidelines, we can effectively manage BPSD and improve the quality of life for patients with dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman undergoes antenatal haemoglobinopathy screening and is found to have sickle cell trait. The father of the child agrees to further screening and is found to have the HbAS genotype. What is the probability of their offspring having sickle cell disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.
When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.
Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and are generally more life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of genetic disorders to provide appropriate genetic counseling and medical management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A toddler has had a seizure. He has been unwell for a few hours and has a temperature of 38.2°C. There are no concerning features in his previous medical history.
Which of the following is most compatible with a diagnosis of ‘simple febrile seizure’?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age of child 18 months
Explanation:Febrile seizures are most common in children between 6 months and 6 years old, with the highest incidence at 18 months. They are associated with fever and affect 2-4% of European children. While tonic-clonic movements are typical during febrile seizures, complex febrile seizures may present with focal or myoclonic features. If a seizure lasts longer than 15 minutes, it is considered complex and may require hospitalization. Signs of meningeal irritation, such as neck stiffness and Kernig’s sign, suggest a possible CNS infection and require further evaluation. Recurrence of seizures within 24 hours or during the same illness may indicate a complex febrile seizure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old lady comes to see you after a routine assessment by her optician. She has had no visual problems prior to the assessment. The assessment revealed early nuclear sclerotic cataracts bilaterally. Her corrected visual acuity today is 6/5 in the right eye and 6/5 in the left eye.
What is the most appropriate action to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:Understanding Cataracts and Driving Requirements
It is common for individuals to develop nuclear sclerotic cataracts as they age. However, there is no need for referral unless there is a visual impairment that affects the patient’s lifestyle. If a person has a visual acuity of 6/5, it means they can read at a distance of six meters what a person with normal vision can read at five meters. Therefore, if a patient has excellent vision, they are unlikely to benefit from new glasses.
There is no indication for a person to stop driving if they meet the minimum eyesight standard for driving, which is a visual acuity of at least 6/12 measured on the Snellen scale. To drive legally, a person must also be able to read a car number plate made after 1 September 2001 from a distance of 20 meters, with glasses or contact lenses if necessary.
It is important to note that YAG laser capsulotomy is a procedure carried out for posterior capsular opacification, which can develop after cataract extraction. This procedure is not necessary for a patient with nuclear sclerotic cataracts and would not benefit them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman complains of light-headedness, weakness, nausea and difficulty breathing within minutes of a wasp sting. A neighbour brings her into the surgery. She is hypotensive and wheezy. You decide to administer adrenaline.
Select from the list the single correct option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg (0.5 ml 1 : 1000) intramuscular injection
Explanation:Administering Adrenaline: Dosage and Site of Injection
When administering adrenaline, it is recommended to inject it intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This site is considered safe, easy, and effective. The standard adult dose is 0.5 ml 1:1000, while children aged 6-12 years should receive 0.3 ml. For younger children, the dose varies from 0.15 ml for those aged 6 months to 6 years, and 0.1-0.15 ml for infants younger than 6 months. If there is no improvement after 5 minutes, a repeat dose of intramuscular adrenaline may be necessary. In some cases, patients may require intravenous adrenaline, which should only be administered by trained and experienced medical professionals such as anaesthetists and A&E consultants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient complains of recurrent episodes of 'dizziness'. These episodes usually last for 30-60 minutes and happen every few days. The patient experiences a sensation of the room spinning and often feels nauseous during these attacks. Additionally, there is a 'roaring' sensation in the left ear. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, but Weber's test indicates localization to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meniere's disease
Explanation:The Weber’s test in sensorineural hearing loss indicates that the sound is perceived more strongly in the ear opposite to the affected ear.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with sinusitis inquires about the safety of using Sudafed (pseudoephedrine). Is there any medication that would make Sudafed use inappropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
Explanation:The combination of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor and pseudoephedrine may lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of recurrent burning and itching in his eyes. He frequently wakes up with red, sticky eyes and has received treatment for conjunctivitis multiple times, but with no lasting improvement. During the examination, the doctor observes red and inflamed lid margins and mild conjunctival injection.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Blepharitis: This condition is commonly seen in adults and can be divided into anterior and posterior blepharitis. Anterior blepharitis affects the skin and eyelashes, while posterior blepharitis involves the meibomian glands. Symptoms include red and swollen eyelids, crusts at the base of eyelashes, a gritty or burning sensation in the eyes, and excessive watering. Regular lid cleaning with baby shampoo is key to effective management, and topical antibiotics may be used if there is an infection.
Viral Conjunctivitis: Those with viral conjunctivitis typically have a recent history of upper respiratory tract infection or contact with a sick individual. Symptoms include redness, watering, and discharge from the eyes. This condition usually settles in 1-2 weeks and is not chronic.
Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: This condition is characterized by chronic low-grade conjunctivitis that may persist for 3-12 months if left untreated. Symptoms include a green stringy discharge in the morning. Recurrent conjunctivitis in sexually active patients should raise the possibility of chlamydia.
Contact Dermatitis: Excessive eye makeup use can lead to contact dermatitis. Symptoms include redness, itching, and swelling in the periorbital area. A history of new cosmetics or makeup use should be explored.
Meibomianitis: Symptoms of meibomianitis include dry and gritty eyes, skin flaking around the eyes, and crusty eyes after sleeping. This condition responds to long courses of systemic antibiotics. However, the symptoms described here are more consistent with blepharitis than meibomianitis.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a number of large boil-like lesions that have appeared on her back over the course of a few days. She is awaiting investigations by a gastroenterologist for diarrhoea and has been found to be anaemic. On examination three out of four lesions have broken down, leaving large ulcerated painful areas.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Pyoderma Gangrenosum, Impetigo, Ecthyma, Herpes Zoster, and Insect Bites
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a condition characterized by the sudden appearance of large ulcerating lesions that can progress rapidly. The lower legs are the most common site, and fever and malaise may be present. It can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, monoclonal gammopathy, myeloma, chronic active hepatitis, and rheumatoid arthritis. The lesions are caused by underlying small vessel thrombosis and vasculitis. Treatment involves systemic steroids.
Impetigo is a condition where tiny pustules or vesicles rapidly evolve into honey-colored crusted plaques. Ecthyma is a deeper form of impetigo that causes deeper erosions of the skin.
Herpes zoster is a painful eruption of vesicles on an erythematous base located in a single dermatome.
Insect bites typically present as grouped itchy papules that arise in crops and may blister.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.
Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.
What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size
Explanation:Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.
It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen him on a number of occasions over the past 20 years with a moderate depression and you conclude that his symptoms have returned.
When he was first seen, as a student, he was given lofepramine, then dosulepin but responded poorly. This was switched to fluoxetine and he appeared to respond well and finished his medication six months later.
Then in his 30s he suffered from another bout of depression following the failure of a business venture. He was given fluoxetine and was treated successfully, stopping his therapy eight months later.
One month before your consultation, your primary care organisation advised that you should consider initiating treatment for newly diagnosed depressed patients with citalopram, due to cost benefits. Your choice is further enhanced by a recent meeting with a pharmaceutical representative who presents a convincing argument for treating patients with a new selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is claimed to have greater efficacy than existing treatments.
What would be the most appropriate treatment for his current exacerbation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Choosing the Right Antidepressant
When it comes to treating depression, finding the right medication can be a challenge. However, if a patient has responded well to a particular drug in the past, it is recommended to consider that drug for a recurrent episode. In the case of this patient, he has responded well to fluoxetine but not to lofepramine or dosulepin. While it is possible that an alternative SSRI could work, such as citalopram or a new SSRI from a pharmaceutical representative, the best course of action is to consider the drug that has worked for him in the past. By doing so, the patient has a higher chance of responding positively to the medication and experiencing relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You come across a mother with her 6-month-old baby boy who has just been released from the hospital after being admitted for bloody stools. The baby has been diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy and the mother is seeking further information on the condition.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cows milk protein allergy can occur in exclusively breastfed infants
Explanation:Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old smoker has been experiencing a persistent cough and chest pain. A plain chest x-ray examination suggests a diagnosis of bronchial carcinoma. However, before a tissue diagnosis can be made, the patient unexpectedly dies in the hospital due to a massive haemoptysis. The relatives consent to a post mortem examination, which reveals that the patient actually had tuberculosis and not carcinoma. Is there a requirement to report this to a specific authority, and if so, which one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consultant in Communicable Diseases Control
Explanation:Reporting Notifiable Diseases in England and Wales
Doctors in England and Wales have a legal obligation to report suspected cases of certain infectious diseases to the appropriate authorities. The purpose of reporting is to help control the spread of diseases. The local Consultant in Communicable Disease Control is usually the Proper Officer to whom doctors should report. However, if in doubt, doctors can find details of the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) on the Public Health England website.
Doctors should fill out a notification certificate immediately upon diagnosing a suspected notifiable disease, without waiting for laboratory confirmation. The certificate should be sent to the Proper Officer within three days or verbally within 24 hours if the case is considered urgent.
The following diseases are notifiable under the Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010: Acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of blood clots who takes warfarin has just missed a period and has a positive pregnancy test. She is concerned about the potential harm to the developing fetus.
Which fetal anomaly is linked to the administration of this medication while pregnant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasal hypoplasia
Explanation:The Risks of Warfarin Use During Pregnancy
Warfarin, a commonly used anticoagulant, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its ability to cross the placental barrier and cause bleeding in the fetus. Its use during the first trimester, particularly between the sixth and ninth weeks, can lead to skeletal abnormalities such as nasal hypoplasia, limb abnormalities, and calcification of the vertebral column, femur, and heel bone. Other potential complications include low birthweight, developmental disabilities, and an increased risk of spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, neonatal death, and preterm birth. However, unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin can be used as safer alternatives. While warfarin is not known to cause neural tube defects or cleft lip and palate, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with its use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently on day 14 of her regular 28-30 day cycle and has no medical history or regular medications. She desires a method that is effective immediately and doesn't require daily attention. What contraceptive option would be suitable for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrauterine device
Explanation:If a woman is not starting her contraceptive method on the first day of her period, the only option that will be effective immediately is an intrauterine device (IUD). This device is a T-shaped plastic device that contains copper and is inserted into the uterus to provide contraception immediately.
Other methods, such as the contraceptive injection, implant, and combined oral contraceptive (COC), as well as the intrauterine system (IUS), require 7 days to become effective if not started on the first day of menstruation. The progesterone-only pill (POP) is also not the best choice as it requires 2 days before becoming effective and must be taken every day. It is important to consider the effectiveness and convenience of each method when choosing a contraceptive.
Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have influenza-like symptoms at the start of the influenza season. She has no chronic disease and no symptoms of influenza. The residents have not yet received seasonal influenza immunisation.
What is the single most suitable immediate prophylactic measure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oseltamivir
Explanation:Treatment and Prevention of influenza: A Summary of NICE Recommendations
influenza is best prevented through vaccination, but in cases where the protective response is not quick enough, antiviral medications such as oseltamivir and zanamivir can be effective. These medications work by inhibiting viral neuraminidase and reducing the replication of influenza A and B viruses. They are most effective when started within a few hours of symptom onset and can reduce the duration of symptoms by about 1-1.5 days in otherwise healthy individuals.
Oseltamivir and zanamivir are also recommended for at-risk patients, including the elderly and those with chronic disease, to reduce the risk of complications from influenza. In addition, they can be used for post-exposure prophylaxis when influenza is circulating in the community or in exceptional circumstances when vaccination doesn’t cover the infecting strain.
It is important to note that amantadine is not recommended for the treatment or prevention of influenza. Overall, vaccination remains the most effective way to prevent illness from influenza, but antiviral medications can be a useful tool in certain situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient with low back pain who wishes to return to work but needs workplace alterations to avoid prolonged periods of sitting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You do not need to see the patient in person when completing the certificate
Explanation:Changes to Sickness Certification in 2010
In 2010, the process of sickness certification underwent significant changes with the introduction of a new ‘fit note’. The aim of this new certificate was to encourage patients to return to work as soon as possible by suggesting options such as a phased return, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. The form also includes a section where clinicians can provide additional details to support their recommendations.
It is important to note that employers are not legally obligated to follow the advice provided on the fit note. If the employer cannot facilitate an earlier return to work, the patient doesn’t need to see a doctor for a further certificate. The original certificate will cover them as being unfit for work.
Patients no longer require a ‘fit for work’ certificate, and the new certificates do not include the option to state that a patient ‘need not refrain from work’. If an employer requires such a certificate, they should arrange for a private assessment.
The RM7 form, which allowed GPs to request an independent medical assessment for patients claiming benefits, is now obsolete. Most patients making a new claim for benefits will have a medical assessment within a short period of making their claim.
Finally, it is worth noting that telephone consultations and assessments based on written reports from other healthcare professionals are now acceptable forms of assessment, and patients do not necessarily need to be seen in person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes in for a blood pressure check. His at-home readings have consistently been high at 155/94 mmHg. He reports feeling fine. He is currently on the maximum dose of amlodipine. An echocardiogram done recently showed moderate to severe aortic stenosis.
What is the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add indapamide and review urea and electrolytes and blood pressure in 2 weeks
Explanation:It is not recommended to prescribe ACE inhibitors to patients with moderate-severe aortic stenosis, making ramipril an inappropriate choice. Similarly, angiotensin-II receptor blockers like losartan are also contraindicated. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension treatment. According to NICE CKS guidance, a combination of thiazide-like diuretics and calcium channel blockers is recommended, making indapamide a suitable alternative to ramipril and losartan. Digoxin has no role in hypertension treatment in this case.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is unsure if he has experienced a heart attack. Which statement from the list accurately describes non-ST elevation myocardial infarction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a risk of recurrent infarction in up to 10% in the first month
Explanation:Understanding Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) and Unstable Angina
Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is a condition that is diagnosed in patients with chest pain who have elevated troponin T levels without the typical ECG changes of acute MI, such as Q-waves and ST elevation. Instead, there may be persistent or transient ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion, flat T waves, pseudo-normalisation of T waves, or no ECG changes at all. On the other hand, unstable angina is diagnosed when there is chest pain but no rise in troponin levels.
Despite their differences, both NSTEMI and unstable angina are grouped together as acute coronary syndromes. In the acute phase, 5-10% of patients may experience death or re-infarction. Additionally, another 5-10% of patients may experience death due to recurrent myocardial infarction in the month after an acute episode.
To manage these patients, many units take an aggressive approach with early angiography and angioplasty. By understanding the differences between NSTEMI and unstable angina, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and timely treatment to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon conducting an ECG, it is revealed that she has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication should be prescribed to manage her heart rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has Chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:
Varicella IgM Negative
Varicella IgG Negative
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.
To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.
If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, complaining of profound fatigue. This has developed during and since he completed adjuvant chemotherapy for prostate cancer. He finds that he is low in energy despite getting around seven hours of sleep a day.
Recent blood tests including a full blood count, prostate-specific antigen (PSA), thyroid function tests, vitamin D, iron studies and renal function are all normal. He requests advice on how he can address his symptoms.
What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should maintain a good level of physical activity
Explanation:Managing Cancer-Related Fatigue: Practical Advice and Guidance
Cancer-related fatigue is a common symptom experienced by many patients undergoing treatment. While the causes are not fully understood, there are practical steps that can be taken to manage this debilitating condition.
One important factor is maintaining a good level of physical activity. This can help reduce symptoms of fatigue, boost appetite, provide more energy, and improve sleep quality. However, it’s important to strike a healthy balance between activity and rest.
While support groups can be helpful for some patients, it’s important to note that speaking to others about fatigue may worsen symptoms for some. It’s important to find what works best for each individual.
Short-term sedative sleeping tablets are not recommended for managing fatigue. Instead, establishing a sleep routine and practicing good sleep hygiene can be more effective.
Psychological support can also be beneficial for some patients. Many hospitals offer access to counsellors or staff specially trained to provide emotional support to people affected by cancer. Oncologists or specialist nurses can provide information about available services.
Overall, managing cancer-related fatigue requires a multifaceted approach that takes into account individual needs and preferences. By following practical advice and guidance, patients can improve their quality of life and better cope with the challenges of cancer treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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