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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder and arm for the past few weeks when he exercises at the gym. He stops exercising and it goes away within five minutes. He has taken glyceryl trinitrate and finds it relieves the pain. His blood pressure is 158/94 mmHg and examination of the cardiovascular system and upper limbs is normal. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive functional imaging for myocardial ischaemia

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Stable Angina: CT Coronary Angiography, Non-Invasive Functional Imaging, ECG, Endoscopy, and Exercise ECG

      Stable angina is suspected when a patient experiences constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms during physical exertion, which is relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate within five minutes. A typical angina diagnosis can be confirmed through a computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography, which should be offered if the patient exhibits typical or atypical angina or if the ECG shows ST-T changes or Q waves. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended if the CT coronary angiography is not diagnostic or if the coronary artery disease is of uncertain functional significance. While ECG changes may suggest coronary artery disease, a normal ECG doesn’t confirm or exclude a diagnosis of stable angina. Endoscopy is used to investigate gastro-oesophageal causes of chest pain, but exercise-induced chest pain is more likely to be cardiac in nature. Exercise electrocardiograms are no longer recommended to diagnose or exclude stable angina in patients without known coronary artery disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor...

    Correct

    • A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor feeding. The baby was born at 37 weeks gestation without any complications. No central cyanosis is observed, but the baby has a slightly elevated heart rate, rapid breathing, and high blood pressure in the upper extremities. Oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on air. Upon chest auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Additionally, the baby has weak bilateral femoral pulses. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta: A Narrowing of the Descending Aorta

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that affects the descending aorta, causing it to narrow. This condition is more common in males, despite its association with Turner’s syndrome. In infancy, coarctation of the aorta can lead to heart failure, while in adults, it can cause hypertension. Other features of this condition include radio-femoral delay, a mid systolic murmur that is maximal over the back, and an apical click from the aortic valve. Notching of the inferior border of the ribs, which is caused by collateral vessels, is not seen in young children. Coarctation of the aorta is often associated with other conditions, such as bicuspid aortic valve, berry aneurysms, and neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of switching to dabigatran to eliminate the requirement for regular INR testing.

      What would be a contraindication to prescribing dabigatran in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mechanical heart valve

      Explanation:

      Patients with mechanical heart valves should avoid using dabigatran due to its increased risk of bleeding and thrombotic events compared to warfarin. The MHRA has deemed it contraindicated for this population.

      Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications

      Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran doesn’t require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

    He was recently...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

      He was recently diagnosed when he was admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. Echocardiography has revealed impaired left ventricular function. He also has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.

      His current medications are: aspirin 75 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, metformin 850 mg TDS, ramipril 10 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily.

      He tells you that the ramipril was initiated when the diagnosis of heart failure was made and has been titrated up to 10 mg daily over the recent weeks. His symptoms are currently stable.

      Clinical examination reveals no peripheral oedema, his chest sounds clear and clinically he is in sinus rhythm at 76 beats per minute. His BP is 126/80 mHg.

      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to add to his therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Heart Failure Patients

      Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The ACE inhibitors should be considered first, followed by beta blockers once the patient’s condition is stable, unless contraindicated. However, the updated NICE guidance suggests using clinical judgment to decide which drug to start first. Combination treatment with an ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for these patients. Beta blockers have been shown to improve survival in heart failure patients, and three drugs are licensed for this use in the UK. Patients who are newly diagnosed with impaired left ventricular systolic function and are already taking a beta blocker should be considered for a switch to one shown to be beneficial in heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which statement accurately describes chest pain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleuritic pain is sharp and localised and aggravated by coughing

      Explanation:

      Pain and Innervation in the Diaphragm, Lungs, and Pericardium

      The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which only supplies the central portion of the muscle. Therefore, pain originating in the outer diaphragm will not be referred to the tip of the shoulder. Additionally, the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura are insensitive to pain, meaning that any discomfort felt in these areas is likely due to surrounding structures.

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart, can cause chest pain. However, this pain is typically relieved by sitting forward. This is because the pericardium is attached to the diaphragm and sternum, and sitting forward can reduce pressure on these structures, alleviating the pain. Understanding the innervation and sensitivity of these structures can aid in the diagnosis and management of chest pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 57-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with hypertension two years...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with hypertension two years ago and is currently taking ramipril 10 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, indapamide 2.5mg od, and spironolactone 25 mg od. A trial of doxazosin was discontinued due to dizziness. Despite these medications, his blood pressure in clinic today is 160/100 mmHg, which is confirmed with a 24-hour blood pressure reading averaging 156/98 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Due to the significantly elevated blood pressure of this relatively young patient, despite being on four antihypertensive medications, it is necessary to consider the possibility of a secondary cause. Therefore, referral to secondary care is recommended for further investigation. As per NICE guidelines, if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled even after using the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four medications, it is advisable to seek expert advice if it has not already been obtained.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old patient has a cholesterol level of 5.1 mmol/L and a QRISK...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old patient has a cholesterol level of 5.1 mmol/L and a QRISK score of 11%. They lead an active lifestyle and have no significant medical history. What is the best course of action for managing these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Based on the QRISK score, it appears that dietary changes alone may not be enough to lower the risk of cardiovascular disease to a satisfactory level.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She...

    Incorrect

    • An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has a history of asthma and atrial fibrillation (AF) and has been assessed by her Cardiologist, who has diagnosed her with permanent AF. The Cardiologist recommends rate control. Her resting heart rate is 120 bpm.
      Which of the following is the correct statement about rate control in these circumstances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil can be used for first-line rate control in asthmatic patients with AF

      Explanation:

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation: Choosing the Right Medication

      Patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) are at risk of stroke and require proper management. The initial approach to managing AF involves either rhythm or rate control, depending on the patient’s age, comorbidity, and the duration of AF.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, rate-limiting calcium antagonists or β-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment for many patients requiring rate-control medication. However, β-blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma.

      Rate-limiting calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem are alternative options. Digoxin is only recommended for very sedentary patients as a first-line medication, as it doesn’t control heart rate during exertion. However, it can be used in combination with a first-line drug if rate control is poor. The target for rate control should be a resting heart rate of less than 110 bpm, and lower if the patient remains symptomatic.

      Choosing the right medication for managing AF is crucial in reducing the risk of stroke and improving the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

    He is rushed to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.

      He is rushed to the Emergency department, and is found to be in ventricular tachycardia. He is defibrillated successfully and his 12 lead ECG following resuscitation demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy. Ventricular tachycardia recurs and despite prolonged resuscitation he dies.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy and its ECG Findings

      The sudden onset of arrhythmia in a young and previously healthy individual is often indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). It is important to screen relatives for this condition. The majority of patients with HCM have an abnormal resting ECG, which may show nonspecific changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, and T-wave inversion. Other possible ECG findings include right or left axis deviation, conduction abnormalities, sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, and atrial enlargement.

      Ambulatory ECG monitoring can reveal atrial and ventricular ectopics, sinus pauses, intermittent or variable atrioventricular block, and non-sustained arrhythmias. However, the ECG findings do not necessarily correlate with prognosis. Arrhythmias associated with HCM can include premature ventricular complexes, non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is also a common complication, occurring in approximately 20% of cases and increasing the risk of fatal cardiac failure.

      It is important to note that there is no history to suggest drug abuse, and aortic stenosis is rare in the absence of congenital or rheumatic heart disease. A myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism would have distinct ECG changes that are not typically seen in HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old man comes in for a follow-up on his angina. Despite taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes in for a follow-up on his angina. Despite taking the maximum dose of atenolol, he still experiences chest discomfort during physical activity, which is hindering his daily routine. He wishes to explore other treatment options. He reports no chest pain at rest and his vital signs are within normal limits.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a beta-blocker is not effective in controlling angina, the recommended course of action is to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker to the treatment plan. Among the options listed, amlodipine is the only dihydropyridine available.

      It is not advisable to add diltiazem due to the risk of complete heart block when used with atenolol. Although the risk is lower compared to verapamil, the potential harm outweighs the benefits.

      Verapamil should also not be added as it can cause complete heart block due to the combined blockade of the atrioventricular node with beta-blockers.

      While switching to diltiazem or verapamil is possible, it is not the best option. Dual therapy is recommended when monotherapy fails to control angina.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 11 - You are assessing a 67-year-old woman who is on amlodipine 10 mg and...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 67-year-old woman who is on amlodipine 10 mg and ramipril 2.5 mg for her hypertension. Her current clinic BP reading is 139/87 mmHg.

      What recommendations would you make regarding her medication regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      To maintain good control of hypertension in patients under 80 years of age, the target clinic blood pressure should be below 140/90 mmHg. In this case, the patient’s blood pressure is within the target range, indicating that their current medication regimen is effective and should not be altered. However, if their blood pressure was above 140/90 mmHg, increasing the ramipril dosage to 5mg could be considered before adding a third medication, as the amlodipine is already at its maximum dose.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman presents at the GP practice with increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents at the GP practice with increasing shortness of breath (SOB). She experiences SOB on exertion and when lying down at night. Her symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past few weeks. She is an ex-smoker and is not taking any regular medication. During examination, she appears comfortable at rest, heart sounds are normal, and there are bibasal crackles. She has pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally. Observations reveal a pulse of 89 bpm, oxygen saturations of 96%, respiratory rate of 12/min, and blood pressure of 192/128 mmHg.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for acute medical admission

      Explanation:

      If the patient has a new BP reading of 180/120 mmHg or higher and is experiencing new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury, they should be admitted for specialist assessment. This is the correct course of action for this patient, as she has a BP reading above 180/120 mmHg and is showing signs of heart failure. Other indications for admission with a BP reading above 180/120 mmHg include new-onset confusion, chest pain, or acute kidney injury.

      Arranging an outpatient echocardiogram and chest x-ray is not the appropriate action for this patient. While these investigations may be necessary, the patient should be admitted for specialized assessment to avoid any unnecessary delays.

      Commencing a long-acting bronchodilator (LABA) is not the correct course of action for this patient. While COPD may be a differential diagnosis, the signs of heart failure and new hypertension require a referral for acute medical assessment.

      Commencing furosemide is not the appropriate action for this patient. While it may improve her symptoms, it will not address the underlying cause of her heart failure. Therefore, she requires further investigation and treatment, most appropriately with an acute medical admission.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins. These have been present for a few years and do not cause any discomfort, but she is unhappy with their appearance.

      Upon examination, there are no skin changes, leg ulcers, or signs of thrombophlebitis.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE NEXT step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg OD

      Explanation:

      Conservative Management of Varicose Veins

      Conservative management is recommended for patients with asymptomatic varicose veins, meaning those that are not causing pain, skin changes, or ulcers. This approach includes lifestyle changes such as weight loss, light/moderate physical activity, leg elevation, and avoiding prolonged standing. Compression stockings are also recommended to alleviate symptoms.

      There is no medication available for varicose veins, and ultrasound is not necessary in the absence of thrombosis. Referral to secondary care may be necessary based on local guidelines, particularly if the patient is experiencing discomfort, swelling, heaviness, or itching, or if skin changes such as eczema are present due to chronic venous insufficiency. Urgent referral is required for venous leg ulcers and superficial vein thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - Mrs Maple is an 80-year-old woman who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. You...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Maple is an 80-year-old woman who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. You have prescribed a new medication for her as treatment for an infection. A repeat INR was taken 3 days after starting her treatment. The level was 6.5.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluconazole

      Explanation:

      When taking warfarin, it is important to monitor INR levels carefully when also taking fluconazole due to their interaction. Fluconazole can cause an increase in INR. However, medications such as amikacin, vancomycin, clindamycin, and nitrofurantoin do not affect INR levels.

      Interactions of Warfarin

      Warfarin is a commonly used anticoagulant medication that requires careful monitoring due to its interactions with other drugs and medical conditions. Some general factors that can potentiate warfarin include liver disease, drugs that inhibit platelet function such as NSAIDs, and cranberry juice. Additionally, drugs that either inhibit or induce the P450 system can affect the metabolism of warfarin and alter the International Normalized Ratio (INR), which measures the effectiveness of the medication.

      Drugs that induce the P450 system, such as antiepileptics and barbiturates, can decrease the INR, while drugs that inhibit the P450 system, such as antibiotics and SSRIs, can increase the INR. Other factors that can affect the metabolism of warfarin include chronic alcohol intake, smoking, and certain medical conditions. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these interactions and monitor patients closely to ensure safe and effective use of warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. His blood pressure is within normal limits and there are no other notable findings upon examination of his cardiorespiratory system. He has a medical history of controlled asthma (treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone) and depression (managed with citalopram). He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately three days. What is the most suitable medication for controlling his heart rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diltiazem

      Explanation:

      Prescribing a beta-blocker is not recommended due to her asthma history, which is a contraindication. Instead, NICE suggests using a calcium channel blocker that limits the heart rate. Additionally, it is important to consider antithrombotic therapy.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now asking which foods he should avoid.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kippers

      Explanation:

      Diet Recommendations Following a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important for patients to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. One of the key recommendations is to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, patients should switch to a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, and aim to consume five portions of fresh fruits and vegetables daily, as well as oily fish.

      However, it is important to note that NICE guidance on Acute Coronary Syndromes (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another heart attack. While oily fish is still recommended as a source of omega-3, patients should not rely on supplements as a substitute for a healthy diet. By making these dietary changes, patients can improve their heart health and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation after experiencing some palpitations. She has no other medical history and only takes atorvastatin for high cholesterol. She has no symptoms currently and her observations are stable with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      What would be the appropriate next step in managing Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for an echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      When a patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score that suggests they do not need anticoagulation, it is recommended to perform a transthoracic echo to rule out valvular heart disease. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in AF patients, and anticoagulant treatment is generally indicated for those with a score of two or more. Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that can be used in AF, but it is not necessary in this scenario. Aspirin should not be used to prevent stroke in AF patients. If a patient requires rate control for fast AF, beta-blockers are the first line of treatment. Digoxin is only used for patients with a more sedentary lifestyle and doesn’t protect against stroke. It is important to perform a transthoracic echo in AF patients, especially if it may change their management or refine their risk of stroke and need for anticoagulation.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of cardiogenic syncope. During the syncope episodes, ECG monitoring revealed that he had a sustained ventricular arrhythmia. He has opted for an elective ICD insertion and seeks your guidance on driving. He is employed as a software programmer in a business park located approximately 10 miles outside the town center, and he typically commutes to and from work by car. What are the DVLA regulations concerning driving after an ICD implantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No driving for 6 months

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has stringent rules in place for individuals with ICDs. They are prohibited from driving a group 1 vehicle for a period of 6 months following the insertion of an ICD or after experiencing an ICD shock. Furthermore, they are permanently disqualified from obtaining a group 2 HGV license.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 35%. He is currently on the maximum tolerated dose of an ACE-I and beta blocker. He reports to still be symptomatic from his heart failure.

      What would be the next appropriate step in his management to improve his prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a heart failure specialist as no other drugs should be prescribed in primary care

      Explanation:

      MRA Treatment for Heart Failure Patients

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with heart failure and a reduced ejection fraction who continue to experience symptoms of heart failure should be offered an MRA such as spironolactone or eplerenone. Previously, only a heart failure specialist could initiate these treatments. However, now it is recommended that all healthcare professionals involved in the care of heart failure patients should consider offering these treatments to improve symptoms and reduce the risk of hospitalization. This guideline update aims to ensure that more patients have access to effective treatments for heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman undergoes successful DC cardioversion for atrial fibrillation (AF).
      Select from the list the single factor that best predicts long-term maintenance of sinus rhythm following this procedure.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absence of structural or valvular heart disease

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Success of Cardioversion

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, the success of cardioversion can be influenced by various factors.

      Factors indicating a high likelihood of success include being under the age of 65, having a first episode of atrial fibrillation, and having no evidence of structural or valvular heart disease.

      On the other hand, factors indicating a low likelihood of success include being over the age of 80, having atrial fibrillation for more than three years, having a left atrial diameter greater than 5cm, having significant mitral valve disease, and having undergone two or more cardioversions.

      Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider these factors when deciding whether or not to perform cardioversion on a patient with atrial fibrillation.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high resting blood pressure.

      Ambulatory testing revealed a level of 146/84 mmHg. He has no signs of end organ damage on standard testing.

      According to the latest NICE guidance (NG136), what would be your most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of NICE Guidance on Hypertension

      This passage discusses the latest NICE guidance on hypertension and its importance in evaluating the long-term balance of treatment benefit and risks for adults under 40 with hypertension. However, it also highlights the criticism that the guidance has received from some clinicians, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring. It is important to have a balanced view and be aware of other guidelines and consensus opinions in medicine. While AKT questions may not contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to consider the bigger picture and not solely rely on the latest guidance. Remember that the questions test your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion. Proper understanding of NICE guidance on hypertension is crucial, but it is equally important to have a broader perspective on the matter.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals space. It radiates into the left arm and shoulder.
      Select from the list the single associated symptom that this woman is most likely to have.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angina

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, leading to restricted blood flow from the heart. One of the most common symptoms of aortic stenosis is a murmur heard in the aortic area. This is often due to calcification of the valve. However, symptoms usually only appear when the stenosis becomes severe.

      Patients with aortic stenosis may experience dyspnea on exertion, which is difficulty breathing during physical activity. More concerning symptoms include angina, syncope, or symptoms of heart failure. Angina is caused by left ventricular hypertrophy, while syncope is thought to be due to a failure to increase cardiac output during times of peripheral vasodilation and subsequent hypotension. It’s important to note that drugs that cause peripheral vasodilation, such as nitrates or ACE inhibitors, can increase the risk of syncope.

      Dysphagia is a rare complication of left atrial hypertrophy due to mitral valve disease. Palpitations and transient ischemic attacks are not symptoms that are typically associated with aortic stenosis. The most common source of emboli with transient ischemic attacks is the carotids. Vertigo is not caused by aortic stenosis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms of aortic stenosis is crucial for early detection and treatment. If you experience any concerning symptoms, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - Raj is a 50-year-old man who has been prescribed an Antihypertensive medication for...

    Incorrect

    • Raj is a 50-year-old man who has been prescribed an Antihypertensive medication for his high blood pressure. He visits you with a complaint of persistent bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 weeks, which is causing him concern. Which of the following drugs is the probable cause of his new symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lacidipine

      Explanation:

      Ankle swelling is more commonly associated with dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like amlodipine than with verapamil. Although ankle oedema is a known side effect of all calcium channel blockers, there are differences in the incidence of ankle oedema between the two classes. Therefore, lacidipine, which belongs to the dihydropyridine class, is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil.

      Factors that increase the risk of developing ankle oedema while taking calcium channel blockers include being female, older age, having heart failure, standing upright, and being in warm environments.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman complains of intermittent attacks of severe pain in her hands....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of intermittent attacks of severe pain in her hands. These symptoms occur on exposure to cold. She describes her fingers becoming white and numb. Episodes last for 1-2 hours after which her fingers become blue, then red and painful. The examination is normal.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raynaud’s disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hand and Arm Symptoms

      Raynaud’s Disease and Syndrome, Subclavian Artery Insufficiency, Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Systemic Sclerosis, and Vibration White Finger are all potential causes of hand and arm symptoms. Raynaud’s Disease is the primary form of Raynaud’s Phenomenon and can be treated by avoiding triggers. Secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon, or Raynaud’s Syndrome, is less common and may indicate an underlying connective tissue disorder. Subclavian Artery Insufficiency can cause arm claudication and other neurological symptoms. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome presents with pain, numbness, and tingling in specific fingers without vascular instability. Systemic Sclerosis, specifically CREST Syndrome, can cause calcinosis, Raynaud’s Phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. Vibration White Finger is caused by the use of vibrating tools and is another potential cause of secondary Raynaud’s Phenomenon in the hands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug from the list provides the LEAST mortality benefit in chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Digoxin in Congestive Heart Failure Treatment

      Digoxin, a medication commonly used in the past for congestive heart failure, has lost its popularity due to the lack of demonstrated mortality benefit in patients with this condition. However, it has shown a reduction in hospitalizations for congestive heart failure. Therefore, it is recommended to maximize the use of other therapies such as ACE inhibitors, β blockers, and spironolactone before considering digoxin. If the ACE inhibitor cannot be tolerated, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist like candesartan can be used as an alternative. Digoxin should only be considered as a third-line treatment for severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction after first- and second-line treatments have been exhausted.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and ischemic heart disease.

      The patient is currently taking the following medications:
      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
      - Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily
      - Atorvastatin 80 mg once daily
      - Aspirin 75 mg once daily

      The most recent change to his blood pressure medication was the addition of bendroflumethiazide 6 months ago, which has reduced his average home systolic readings by approximately 15 mmHg. The average of home blood pressure monitoring over the past two weeks is now 160/82 mmHg.

      A blood test is conducted, and the results show:
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      After ruling out secondary causes of hypertension, what is the next course of action in managing his blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add atenolol 25 mg orally once daily

      Explanation:

      The patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. As their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, it is recommended to add an alpha- or beta-blocker to their medication regimen. According to the 2019 NICE guidelines, this stage is considered treatment resistance hypertension, and the GP should also assess for adherence to medication and postural drop. If blood pressure remains high, referral to a specialist or adding a fourth drug may be necessary. Bendroflumethiazide should not be stopped as it has been effective in lowering blood pressure. Atenolol is a suitable beta-blocker to start with, and a reasonable starting dose is 25 mg, which can be adjusted based on the patient’s response. Spironolactone should only be considered if potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a medical history of hypertension and has experienced a STEMI in the past. Upon examination, his pulse is 68 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, and he displays bilateral pitting ankle edema. Which medication is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease, which is a leading cause of death among men in the UK. Beta-blockers are the only medication proven to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, and they can also help control hypertension. However, before starting treatment, his blood pressure and pulse should be checked to ensure that he is not at risk of bradycardia or hypotension. Spironolactone is not recommended for improving mortality in heart failure patients, but it can be used to treat hypertension and oedema. U&Es should be monitored regularly to avoid renal function deterioration and hyperkalaemia. Amlodipine and furosemide have not been shown to improve mortality in heart failure patients, but they can be used to control hypertension and oedema, respectively. U&Es should also be monitored regularly when using these medications. Ramipril has been shown to reduce hospital admissions in heart failure patients, but it can impair renal function and cause hyperkalaemia. U&Es should be checked regularly, and the medication should not be initiated if the patient’s potassium level is too high. Patients should also be advised to stop taking ramipril during diarrhoea or vomiting illnesses to avoid dehydration and acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man presents with shortness of breath.
    An ECG shows atrial fibrillation (AF).
    He...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with shortness of breath.
      An ECG shows atrial fibrillation (AF).
      He takes digoxin, furosemide, and lisinopril.
      What further drug would improve this patient's outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abciximab

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Therapy for AF Patients with Heart Failure

      The risk of embolic events in patients with heart failure and AF is high, with the risk of stroke increasing up to five-fold in non-rheumatic AF. The most appropriate prophylactic therapy for these patients is with an anticoagulant, such as warfarin.

      According to studies, for every 1,000 patients with AF who are treated with warfarin for one year, 30 strokes are prevented at the expense of six major bleeds. On the other hand, for every 1,000 patients with AF who are treated with aspirin for one year, only 12.5 strokes are prevented at the expense of six major bleeds.

      It is important to note that NICE guidelines on Atrial fibrillation (CG180) recommend warfarin, not aspirin, as the preferred prophylactic therapy for AF patients with heart failure.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with hypertension on home blood pressure recordings (155/105 mmHg). His medical records indicate a recent hospitalization for pyelonephritis where he was diagnosed with renal artery stenosis. What is the most suitable medication to initiate for his hypertension management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      In patients with renovascular disease, ACE inhibitors are contraindicated. Therefore, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines. If hypertension persists despite CCB and thiazide-like diuretic treatment and serum potassium is over 4.5mmol/L, a cardioselective beta-blocker like carvedilol may be considered. If blood pressure is still not adequately controlled with a CCB, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide would be the second-line treatment. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, is also contraindicated in patients with renovascular disease for the same reason as ACE inhibitors.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date

      Explanation:

      Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations

      Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.

      To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.

      In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
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