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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only passed a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
What is a potential cause of post-renal AKI?Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: Papillary necrosis
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body and disrupts the balance of fluids and electrolytes. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.
The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases that develop outside of healthcare settings are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These causes typically involve low blood pressure associated with conditions like sepsis and fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated.
Pre-renal:
– Volume depletion (e.g., severe bleeding, excessive vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
– Oedematous states (e.g., heart failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
– Low blood pressure (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
– Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe heart failure, arrhythmias)
– Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, abdominal aortic aneurysm
– Renal artery stenosis
– Hepatorenal syndromeIntrinsic renal:
– Glomerular diseases (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
– Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged lack of blood supply
– Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
– Vascular diseases (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
– EclampsiaPost-renal:
– Kidney stones
– Blood clot
– Papillary necrosis
– Urethral stricture
– Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
– Bladder tumor
– Radiation fibrosis
– Pelvic malignancy
– Retroperitoneal -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes in with symptoms of anaphylaxis. You provide initial treatment, but there is no improvement in her symptoms. What condition might this indicate?
Your Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
Explanation:Anaphylaxis caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor is not effectively treated with adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Instead, treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma.
Further Reading:
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It is characterized by a rapid onset and can lead to difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. In paediatrics, anaphylaxis is often caused by food allergies, with nuts being the most common trigger. Other causes include drugs and insect venom, such as from a wasp sting.
When treating anaphylaxis, time is of the essence and there may not be enough time to look up medication doses. Adrenaline is the most important drug in managing anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary based on the age of the child. For children under 6 months, the dose is 150 micrograms, while for children between 6 months and 6 years, the dose remains the same. For children between 6 and 12 years, the dose is increased to 300 micrograms, and for adults and children over 12 years, the dose is 500 micrograms. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary.
The preferred site for administering adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This ensures quick absorption and effectiveness of the medication. It is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for anaphylaxis management, as they have recently been updated.
In some cases, it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis. This can help confirm the diagnosis and guide further management.
Overall, prompt recognition and administration of adrenaline are crucial in managing anaphylaxis in paediatrics. Following the recommended doses and guidelines can help ensure the best outcomes for patients experiencing this severe allergic reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man receives a blood transfusion and experiences a severe transfusion reaction. His condition quickly worsens, and he ultimately succumbs to this reaction. His death is reported to Serious Hazards of Transfusion (SHOT).
Which of the following is the SECOND most common cause of transfusion-related fatalities in the UK?Your Answer: Acute haemolytic reaction
Correct Answer: TACO
Explanation:Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is responsible for about one-third of all transfusion-related deaths, making it the leading cause. On the other hand, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) accounts for approximately 20% of these fatalities, making it the second leading cause. TACO occurs when a large volume of blood is rapidly infused, particularly in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are especially vulnerable to this reaction.
The typical signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening pulmonary edema on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid accumulation. In many cases, simply reducing the transfusion rate, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient to manage the condition. However, in more severe cases, it is necessary to halt the transfusion and consider non-invasive ventilation.
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is defined as new acute lung injury (ALI) that occurs during or within six hours of transfusion, not explained by another ALI risk factor. Transfusion of part of one unit of any blood product can cause TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old patient with advanced metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing significant difficulty breathing and appears visibly distressed. Despite his discomfort, he remains mentally alert and reports moderate levels of pain. He has been informed that he has only a few days left to live. Currently, his oxygen saturation levels are at 95% when breathing regular air, and there are no specific signs of chest abnormalities.
What would be the most suitable course of action to alleviate his breathlessness in this situation?Your Answer: Oral morphine
Explanation:Here are some suggestions for managing breathlessness in the final days of life, as provided by NICE:
1. It is important to identify and treat any reversible causes of breathlessness in the dying person, such as pulmonary edema or pleural effusion.
2. Non-pharmacological methods can be considered for managing breathlessness in someone nearing the end of life. It is not recommended to start oxygen therapy as a routine measure. Oxygen should only be offered to individuals who are known or suspected to have symptomatic hypoxemia.
3. Breathlessness can be managed using different medications, including opioids, benzodiazepines, or a combination of both.
For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on the care of dying adults in the last days of life. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng31
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male presents with central chest pain radiating to the jaw and left arm. The patient is sweating profusely and appears pale. The pain began 4 hours ago. ECG reveals 2-3 mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. 300 mg aspirin has been administered. Transporting the patient to the nearest coronary catheter lab for primary PCI will take 2 hours 45 minutes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Administer clopidogrel and transfer for PCI
Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:Fibrinolysis is a treatment option for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) if they are unable to receive primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 120 minutes, but fibrinolysis can be administered within that time frame. Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset. However, if primary PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given, fibrinolysis should be considered. Along with fibrinolysis, an antithrombin medication such as unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), fondaparinux, or bivalirudin is typically administered.
Further Reading:
Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).
The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.
There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.
The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.
The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.
The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after experiencing respiratory distress. You observe that the patient has a tracheostomy tube in place, which the patient's wife informs you was inserted before undergoing radiation therapy. The patient finished radiation therapy one month ago. What should be the initial step in evaluating this patient?
Your Answer: Deflate the cuff
Correct Answer: Remove inner tube
Explanation:When a patient with a tracheostomy is experiencing difficulty breathing, the first step is to assess their condition and provide them with oxygen. If there is suspected obstruction, one of the initial steps to resolve it is to remove the inner tube of the tracheostomy. After that, the mouth and tracheostomy should be examined, and if the patient is breathing, high flow oxygen should be applied to both the mouth and the tracheostomy stoma site. The next steps in managing the patient would be to pass a suction catheter. If the catheter cannot be passed, the cuff should be deflated. If the patient does not stabilize or improve, the tracheostomy tube should be removed. This order of steps is summarized in the green algorithm.
Further Reading:
Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.
When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.
Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ECG findings in atrial fibrillation?Your Answer: Some impulses are filtered out by the AV node
Explanation:The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.
In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.
The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of dizziness. She is currently unable to leave her bed and is lying still. The dizziness symptoms are present at all times and not worsened by head position. She has vomited multiple times this morning. She had a respiratory infection last week that was treated with antibiotics and has now resolved. She had a similar episode 3 months ago, which lasted about five days and then resolved. On examination, she has an unsteady gait, normal hearing, and prominent horizontal nystagmus to the left side. The Hallpike maneuver was negative.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Labyrinthitis
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Differentiating between the various causes of vertigo can be challenging, but there are several clues in the question that can help determine the most likely cause. The sudden onset of severe fixed vertigo, not related to position, following a sinus infection suggests vestibular neuronitis rather than labyrinthitis. Vestibular neuronitis is typically characterized by severe vertigo without hearing loss or tinnitus.
Here are the key clinical features of the different causes of vertigo mentioned in the question:
Vestibular neuronitis:
– Infection of the 8th cranial nerve, which can be viral or bacterial
– Often preceded by a sinus infection or upper respiratory tract infection
– Severe vertigo
– Vertigo is not related to position
– No hearing loss or tinnitus
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus (involuntary eye movement) away from the side of the lesion
– Episodes may recur over an 18-month periodLabyrinthitis:
– Usually caused by a viral infection
– Can affect the entire inner ear and 8th cranial nerve
– Severe vertigo
– Vertigo can be related to position
– May be accompanied by sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus away from the side of the lesionBenign positional vertigo:
– Often idiopathic (no known cause)
– Can be secondary to trauma or other inner ear disorders
– Triggered by head movement, rolling over, or looking upward
– Brief episodes lasting less than 5 minutes
– No hearing loss or tinnitus
– Nausea is common, vomiting is rare
– Positive Hallpike maneuver (a diagnostic test)Meniere’s disease:
– Idiopathic (no known cause)
– Sensorineural hearing loss
– Hearing loss usually gradually progressive and affects one ear
– Associated with tinnitus
– Vertigo attacks typically last 2-3 hours
– Attacks of vertigo last less than 24 hours
– Sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear(s)
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion
– More common in individuals with migrainesAcoustic neuroma:
– Benign tumor of the 8th cranial nerve in the brain
– Gradually worsening unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
– Facial numbness and tingling -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 9
Correct
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A 3 year old is brought to the emergency department due to concern that the patient has developed a fever, symptoms of a cold, and a widespread rash with blisters. You diagnose the child with chickenpox and advise the mother on how to manage the condition. The mother informs you that she is 12 weeks pregnant and is worried about the potential consequences of contracting chickenpox during pregnancy.
What is the most significant complication of chickenpox infection for the mother during pregnancy?Your Answer: Pneumonitis
Explanation:Pregnant women who contract chickenpox for the first time are more likely to develop pneumonitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the lungs. Additionally, these women face a five-fold increased risk of pneumonitis compared to non-pregnant individuals. Furthermore, the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome, a condition associated with chickenpox infection during pregnancy.
Further Reading:
Chickenpox exposure during pregnancy poses risks to both the mother and the fetus. The mother has a 5 times greater risk of developing pneumonitis, a potentially serious complication. The fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the maternal exposure occurs before 20 weeks gestation. The risk of FVS is around 1% in these cases and includes features such as skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There have been very few cases of FVS reported between 20-28 weeks gestation and none following 28 weeks.
Other risks to the fetus include the development of shingles in infancy, which has a 1-2% risk if the maternal exposure occurs in the second or third trimester. There is also a risk of severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth. This condition can be fatal to the newborn child in around 20% of cases.
In the management of chickenpox exposure during pregnancy, it is important to determine if the mother is immune to varicella. If there is any doubt, maternal blood should be urgently checked for varicella antibodies. If the pregnant woman is not immune, she should be given varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible. VZIG is considered effective up to 10 days post-exposure. Consensus guidelines also recommend the use of oral aciclovir if the pregnant woman presents with chickenpox within 24 hours of the rash onset.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and extending to the groin. You suspect she may have ureteric colic.
What are the two types of drugs that can be used for conservative treatment as medical expulsive therapy?Your Answer: Alpha-blocker and calcium-channel blocker
Explanation:Conservative management of ureteric stones may involve the use of medical expulsive therapy (MET), which can be achieved through the administration of either an alpha-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker. This treatment aims to facilitate the natural passage of the stone during the observation period.
Research has shown that in adults, both alpha-blockers and calcium channel blockers have been effective in improving the passage of distal ureteric stones that are less than 10 mm in size, when compared to no treatment. Additionally, alpha-blockers have shown to be more effective than placebo in promoting stone passage. Alpha-blockers have also demonstrated more benefits than calcium channel blockers in terms of stone passage, as well as some advantages in terms of hospital stay and pain management. However, there was no significant difference in the time it took for the stone to pass or the overall quality of life.
Currently, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends alpha-blockers as the preferred choice for medical expulsive therapy. For more detailed information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of renal and ureteric stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of lower back pain and rib pain. She has been brought to your clinic today by her husband, who is concerned about her confusion over the past few days. She has also had difficulty passing urine today. On examination, she appears pale and has tenderness over her lumbar spine and lower ribs. Fundoscopy reveals retinal haemorrhages. Her most recent blood results are shown below:
Hb 8.4 g/dl (13-17 g/dl)
MCV 102.6 fl (80-100 fl)
Platelets 114 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
WCC 3.4 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
Normal differential
Sodium 140 mmol/l (135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium 4.6 mmol/l (3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Calcium 2.94 mmol/l (2.05-2.60 mmol/l)
Creatinine 193 mmol/l (60-110 mmol/l)
Urea 11.2 mmol/l (3-7 mmol/l)
Total protein 88 g/l (60-85 g/l)
Albumin 23 g/l (36-52 g/l)
ESR 132 mm/hr (30 mm/hr)
Which is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Multiple myeloma is a cancerous growth of plasma cells, a type of white blood cell responsible for producing antibodies. It is more prevalent in men and typically occurs in individuals over the age of 60.
When a patient over 60 presents with an elevated ESR, unexplained anemia, hypercalcemia, renal impairment, and bone pain, the initial diagnosis is usually multiple myeloma until proven otherwise.
The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include:
1. Anemia: This is caused by the infiltration of the bone marrow and suppression of blood cell production. It is typically normocytic and normochromic, but can also be macrocytic.
2. Bone pain: Approximately 70% of patients experience bone pain, which commonly affects the spine and ribs. Localized pain and tenderness may indicate a pathological fracture, and vertebral fractures can lead to spinal cord compression.
3. Renal failure: Acute or chronic renal failure occurs in about one-third of patients. This is generally due to the effects of light chains on the tubules.
4. Neurological symptoms: Hypercalcemia can cause weakness, lethargy, and confusion, while hyperviscosity can result in headaches and retinopathy. Amyloid infiltration can lead to peripheral neuropathies, with carpal tunnel syndrome being the most common.
5. Infection: The most common infections seen in multiple myeloma patients are pyelonephritis and pneumonia.
In addition to the routine blood tests already conducted, a suspected diagnosis of multiple myeloma should prompt further investigations, including:
– Plasma viscosity measurement
– Urinary protein electrophoresis to detect Bence-Jones proteins
– Serum electrophoresis to identify the type of paraprotein
– Quantitative immunoglobulin level testing
– Skeletal survey to look for lytic lesions
– Bone marrow aspirate and possibly biopsyA diagnosis of multiple myeloma is confirmed by the presence of a monoclonal protein in the serum or urine, lytic lesions on X-ray, and an increased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old woman who has come in with a nosebleed and was initially assessed by one of the medical students. You get ready to conduct rhinoscopy in order to locate the source of bleeding.
What is the probable location of epistaxis?Your Answer: Kiesselbach plexus
Explanation:Most nosebleeds, also known as epistaxis, occur at a specific area called Little’s area.
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 13
Correct
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A 45-year-old presents to the emergency department following a seemingly minor rear-end car accident. There are no reported sensory deficits. What clinical finding would indicate the need for radiological evaluation of the cervical spine in this scenario?
Your Answer: Patient unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right
Explanation:The ability to rotate the neck actively by 45 degrees to the left and right is a crucial distinction between the ‘no risk’ and ‘low risk’ categories when applying the Canadian C-spine rules. In this case, the patient does not exhibit any high-risk factors for cervical spine injury according to the Canadian C-spine rule. However, they do have a low-risk factor due to their involvement in a minor rear-end motor collision. If a patient with a low-risk factor is unable to actively rotate their neck by 45 degrees in either direction, they should undergo imaging. It is important to note that while the patient’s use of anticoagulation medication may affect the need for brain imaging, it typically does not impact the decision to perform a CT scan of the cervical spine.
Further Reading:
When assessing for cervical spine injury, it is recommended to use the Canadian C-spine rules. These rules help determine the risk level for a potential injury. High-risk factors include being over the age of 65, experiencing a dangerous mechanism of injury (such as a fall from a height or a high-speed motor vehicle collision), or having paraesthesia in the upper or lower limbs. Low-risk factors include being involved in a minor rear-end motor vehicle collision, being comfortable in a sitting position, being ambulatory since the injury, having no midline cervical spine tenderness, or experiencing a delayed onset of neck pain. If a person is unable to actively rotate their neck 45 degrees to the left and right, their risk level is considered low. If they have one of the low-risk factors and can actively rotate their neck, their risk level remains low.
If a high-risk factor is identified or if a low-risk factor is identified and the person is unable to actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization should be maintained and imaging should be requested. Additionally, if a patient has risk factors for thoracic or lumbar spine injury, imaging should be requested. However, if a patient has low-risk factors for cervical spine injury, is pain-free, and can actively rotate their neck, full in-line spinal immobilization and imaging are not necessary.
NICE recommends CT as the primary imaging modality for cervical spine injury in adults aged 16 and older, while MRI is recommended as the primary imaging modality for children under 16.
Different mechanisms of spinal trauma can cause injury to the spine in predictable ways. The majority of cervical spine injuries are caused by flexion combined with rotation. Hyperflexion can result in compression of the anterior aspects of the vertebral bodies, stretching and tearing of the posterior ligament complex, chance fractures (also known as seatbelt fractures), flexion teardrop fractures, and odontoid peg fractures. Flexion and rotation can lead to disruption of the posterior ligament complex and posterior column, fractures of facet joints, lamina, transverse processes, and vertebral bodies, and avulsion of spinous processes. Hyperextension can cause injury to the anterior column, anterior fractures of the vertebral body, and potential retropulsion of bony fragments or discs into the spinal canal. Rotation can result in injury to the posterior ligament complex and facet joint dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a red, warm, swollen left knee a few days after returning from a vacation in Thailand. She also reports feeling generally sick and has a rash on her trunk. The doctor decides to send a sample of the knee fluid to the lab for testing. What is the most likely finding on Gram-stain testing?
Your Answer: Gram-positive cocci in clusters
Correct Answer: Gram-negative pairs of cocci
Explanation:Septic arthritis occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint, causing it to become purulent. The main symptoms of septic arthritis include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and systemic upset. The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus, but other bacteria such as Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea, and Escherichia coli can also be responsible.
According to the current recommendations by NICE and the BNF, the initial treatment for septic arthritis is flucloxacillin. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin, clindamycin can be used instead. If there is a suspicion of MRSA infection, vancomycin is the recommended choice. In cases where gonococcal arthritis or a Gram-negative infection is suspected, cefotaxime is the preferred treatment. The suggested duration of treatment is typically 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 15
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl comes in with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She denies having a cough or any symptoms of a cold. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is visible exudate on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen. No anterior cervical lymph nodes can be felt. What is her score on the Centor Clinical Prediction Score for assessing her sore throat?
Your Answer: 3
Explanation:There are two scoring systems that NICE recommends for assessing sore throat: the Centor Clinical Prediction Score and the FeverPAIN Score.
The Centor Clinical Prediction Score was initially developed as a tool to determine the likelihood of a group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus (GABHS) infection in adults with a sore throat. This score was created and tested in US Emergency Departments, specifically for adult patients.
The Centor score evaluates patients based on several criteria, with one point given for each positive criterion. These criteria include a history of fever (temperature above 38°C), the presence of exudate or swelling on the tonsils, tender or swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes, and the absence of cough.
According to the current NICE guidance, the Centor score can be used to guide management in the following way:
– A score of 0 to 2 indicates a 3-17% likelihood of streptococcus isolation, and antibiotics are not recommended.
– A score of 3 to 4 indicates a 32-56% likelihood of streptococcus isolation, and immediate treatment with empirical antibiotics or a backup prescription should be considered.By utilizing these scoring systems, healthcare professionals can make more informed decisions regarding the management and treatment of patients with sore throat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 16
Correct
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A 72-year-old man comes with his wife due to worries about his memory. After gathering information, you observe a gradual decrease in his cognitive abilities. The only significant medical history he has is a heart attack he had 8 years ago.
What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?Your Answer: Vascular dementia
Explanation:Vascular dementia is the second most common form of dementia, accounting for approximately 25% of all cases. It occurs when the brain is damaged due to various factors, such as major strokes, multiple smaller strokes that go unnoticed (known as multi-infarct), or chronic changes in smaller blood vessels (referred to as subcortical dementia). The term vascular cognitive impairment (VCI) is increasingly used to encompass this range of diseases.
Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, which has a gradual and subtle onset, vascular dementia can occur suddenly and typically shows a series of stepwise increases in symptom severity. The presentation and progression of the disease can vary significantly.
There are certain features that suggest a vascular cause of dementia. These include a history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or cardiovascular disease, the presence of focal neurological abnormalities, prominent memory impairment in the early stages of the disease, early onset of gait disturbance and unsteadiness, frequent unprovoked falls in the early stages, bladder symptoms (such as incontinence) without any identifiable urological condition in the early stages, and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 17
Correct
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A 22-year-old presents to the emergency department with a nosebleed. You observe that they have blood-soaked tissue paper held against the nose, blocking the opening of the left nostril, and blood stains on the front of their shirt. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Your Answer: Advise the patient to sit forward and pinch just in front of the bony septum firmly and hold it for 15 minutes
Explanation:To control epistaxis, it is recommended to have the patient sit upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinch the cartilaginous part of the nose, specifically in front of the bony septum, and maintain pressure for 10-15 minutes without releasing it.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35 year old female trauma patient is being treated in the resus. It is decided to administer intravenous ketamine for rapid sequence induction, and your consultant requests you to prepare the medication. What is a frequently observed side effect of ketamine?
Your Answer: Nystagmus
Explanation:Ketamine administration can lead to various side effects, including nystagmus and diplopia. Other potential side effects include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations or emergence phenomena, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, and abnormal tonic-clonic movements.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her nose an hour ago. You assessed her when she arrived 30 minutes ago and recommended that she try to stop the bleeding by pinching the soft, cartilaginous part of her nose. She has been doing this since then, but her nose is still bleeding. During the examination, you can see bleeding points in both nostrils. What is the most suitable next step to take?
Your Answer: Pack the nose with ribbon gauze soaked in bismuth iodoform paraffin paste
Correct Answer: Pack the nose with nasal tampons, e.g. Rapid Rhinos
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.
Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 20
Correct
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You assess a patient who has been brought into the resuscitation room in an obtunded state. The patient is wearing a MedicAlert bracelet, indicating a diagnosis of Addison's disease.
Which ONE statement accurately describes this condition?Your Answer: ACTH levels are usually elevated
Explanation:Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones. This includes glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The most common cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for about 70-80% of cases. It is more prevalent in women and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.
The clinical symptoms of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, low blood pressure (especially when standing up), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced hair in the armpits and pubic area, depression, and hyperpigmentation (darkening of the skin in certain areas like the palms, mouth, and exposed skin).
Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased levels of ACTH (a hormone that tries to stimulate the adrenal glands), low sodium levels, high potassium levels, high calcium levels, low blood sugar, and metabolic acidosis.
People with Addison’s disease have a higher risk of developing type 1 diabetes, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, Grave’s disease, premature ovarian failure, pernicious anemia, vitiligo, and alopecia.
Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment typically involves taking hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet in case of an Addisonian crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 25-year-old college student comes to the emergency department complaining of a worsening sore throat, fever, and feeling unwell. The patient reports that the symptoms began 10 days ago. During the examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.0ºC, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, white patches on both tonsils, and tenderness in the right upper abdomen. Glandular fever is suspected.
What would be the most suitable approach to confirm the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: FBC and monospot test
Explanation:For adults and children over the age of 12 who are suspected to have glandular fever and have a normal immune system, it is recommended to conduct a Full Blood Count (FBC) and a monospot test during the second week of the illness. The timing and choice of investigations for glandular fever vary depending on the patient’s age, immune system status, and duration of symptoms. For children under the age of 12 and individuals with compromised immune systems, it is advised to perform a blood test for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) viral serology after at least 7 days of illness. However, for immunocompetent adults and children older than 12, a FBC with differential white cell count and a monospot test (heterophile antibodies) should be conducted during the second week of the illness.
Further Reading:
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with asthma has been experiencing persistent diarrhea for the past week. A stool sample has been sent for analysis, which has cultured Salmonella enteritidis. He currently takes a daily maintenance dose of prednisolone for control of his asthma.
Which of the following antibacterial agents would be most suitable to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The current recommendations by NICE and the BNF for non-typhoid salmonella enteritis suggest that ciprofloxacin should be used as the first-line treatment if necessary. Alternatively, cefotaxime can be considered as a suitable alternative. It is important to note that cases of salmonella enteritis often resolve on their own without treatment and are frequently self-limiting. Therefore, the BNF advises against treatment unless there is a risk of developing invasive infection. This includes individuals who are immunocompromised, have haemoglobinopathy, or are children under 6 months old. However, in the case of an elderly patient who is regularly taking corticosteroids, treatment would be recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a growing area of redness that has been spreading from a mosquito bite for the past two days. Upon examination, you observe slightly tender redness on the right lower limb, which feels warm and mildly painful to touch. The patient does not have a fever, and vital signs are within normal range.
You determine that the patient has mild cellulitis. What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Discharge with oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:Flucloxacillin is recommended as the initial treatment for mild cellulitis, according to NICE guidelines. The recommended dosage for flucloxacillin is 500-1000 mg taken four times a day for a period of 5-7 days. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin or if flucloxacillin is not suitable for them, alternative medications such as clarithromycin, doxycycline, or erythromycin can be used as second-line options. It is important to note that for cellulitis near the eyes, co-amoxiclav is advised as the first-line treatment, while for cellulitis in patients with lymphedema who do not require hospital admission, amoxicillin is recommended as the first-line treatment.
Further Reading:
Cellulitis is an inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by an infection, usually by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is characterized by symptoms such as erythema, pain, swelling, and heat. In some cases, there may also be systemic symptoms like fever and malaise.
The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification to determine the appropriate management of cellulitis. Class I cellulitis refers to cases without signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities. Class II cellulitis involves either systemic illness or the presence of a co-morbidity that may complicate or delay the resolution of the infection. Class III cellulitis is characterized by significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromise. Class IV cellulitis involves sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection like necrotizing fasciitis.
According to the guidelines, patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. This also applies to patients with severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail individuals, immunocompromised patients, those with significant lymphedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild). Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the necessary facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The recommended first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin. For patients allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin or clindamycin is recommended. In cases where patients have failed to respond to flucloxacillin, local protocols may suggest the use of oral clindamycin. Severe cellulitis should be treated with intravenous benzylpenicillin and flucloxacillin.
Overall, the management of cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the presence of any systemic symptoms or complications. Prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications and promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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You are overseeing a patient who has been administered ketamine. You have concerns about restlessness and emergence phenomena during the recovery process. Which class of medication is commonly employed to manage emergence phenomena?
Your Answer: Benzodiazepines
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are medications that are utilized to address emergence phenomena, which are characterized by restlessness and distressing hallucinations experienced upon awakening from ketamine sedation or induction. These phenomena are more frequently observed in older children and adults, affecting approximately one out of every three adults. To manage emergence phenomena, benzodiazepines may be administered. It is important to note that the RCEM does not recommend preventive treatment and suggests addressing emergence phenomena as they arise.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. You have been asked to administer a loading dose of aminophylline. He weighs 70 kg.
What is the appropriate loading dose for him?Your Answer: 300 mg over 15 minutes
Explanation:The recommended daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, which should be taken in 2-3 divided doses. For severe asthma or COPD, the initial intravenous dose is 5 mg/kg and should be administered over 10-20 minutes. This can be followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. In the case of a patient weighing 60 kg, the appropriate loading dose would be 300 mg. It is important to note that the therapeutic range for aminophylline is narrow, ranging from 10-20 microgram/ml. Therefore, it is beneficial to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with right eye pain and sensitivity to light. She reports that the eye pain worsens when she reads or uses her computer. Her eye is excessively watery. During the examination, her right pupil is constricted, and there is noticeable redness around the iris. Her visual acuity is measured and found to be 6/6. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis and takes a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Scleritis
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the middle layer of the eye, which includes the iris and the ciliary body. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent damage and vision loss due to the development of conditions like glaucoma, cataract, or retinal edema.
There are various causes of anterior uveitis, including eye trauma from being hit or having a foreign object in the eye. It can also be associated with inflammatory disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis.
The clinical features of anterior uveitis are characterized by a red and sore eye, accompanied by pain that worsens when the ciliary muscles contract. Other symptoms include watering of the eye, blurred vision, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and a constricted or distorted pupil. The visual acuity may be normal or reduced.
Overall, anterior uveitis is a condition that requires prompt attention and treatment to prevent further complications and preserve vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife. He has been experiencing excessive watery diarrhea for the past nine days and feels extremely weak.
What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate in a patient with severe and prolonged diarrhea?Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation:The following provides a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders.
Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), life-threatening asthma, pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.
Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction), ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess), renal failure, or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).
Lastly, metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be a result of conditions like diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl presents with a temperature of 39 degrees. She appears fussy, and a non-blanching rash is observed on her abdomen. Tragically, she passes away later that day from Meningococcal septicaemia.
To whom should a report be submitted?Your Answer: Consultant in Communicable Disease Control
Explanation:Registered medical practitioners in England and Wales are legally obligated to inform a designated official from the Local Authority if they suspect a patient has contracted specific infectious diseases. For more information on which diseases and their causative organisms require reporting, please refer to the following resource: Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 7-year-old girl with a rash covered in honey-colored crust on her face and diagnose her with impetigo. You prescribe a topical fusidic acid treatment. The parents of the child would like to know the duration she should be kept away from school.
What is the recommended period for keeping her away from school due to this infection?Your Answer: 24 hours after starting antibiotic therapy
Correct Answer: 48 hours after starting antibiotic therapy
Explanation:Public Health England advises that children with impetigo should not attend school, nursery, or be under the care of childminders until the sores have formed a crust or until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment. Antibiotics help accelerate the healing process and decrease the period of contagiousness.
For more information, please refer to the Guidance on Infection Control in Schools and other Childcare Settings.
https://www.publichealth.hscni.net/sites/default/files/Guidance_on_infection_control_in%20schools_poster.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 2 year old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. The child developed a high fever and a sore throat yesterday but today her condition has worsened. You observe that the patient is from a nomadic community and has not received any immunizations. During the examination, you notice that the patient is sitting upright, drooling, and has audible stridor with visible moderate chest retractions. What is the most suitable initial approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Call and await senior ENT and anaesthetic support
Explanation:The top priority when dealing with suspected epiglottitis is to assess and secure the airway. This is especially important in patients who have not been vaccinated against Haemophilus influenzae type b (HiB), as they are at risk for complications from this infection. Classic signs of epiglottitis include tripod positioning, drooling, stridor, and a muffled voice. It is crucial to avoid agitating patients, particularly children, during examination or procedures, as this can trigger laryngospasm and potentially lead to airway obstruction. In such cases, it is recommended to call in senior ENT and anaesthetic support to perform laryngoscopy and be prepared for intubation or tracheostomy if necessary to address any airway compromise. If the patient is in a critical condition, securing the airway through intubation becomes the top priority.
Further Reading:
Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.
The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.
Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.
Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.
Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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