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  • Question 1 - A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her mother is becoming increasingly apathetic, some days not getting out of bed and wearing the same clothes for a number of days in a row. She appears to be having difficulty with word finding. You understand that her husband died three months earlier. Apart from hypertension, she is otherwise physically well.
      Physical examination is unremarkable. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Her heart rate is 72 bpm and regular.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of dementia and depression

      When assessing a patient with cognitive decline, it is important to consider the various possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient who recently lost their spouse and is experiencing symptoms such as apathy and sleep disturbance, depression is the most likely diagnosis. Cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended intervention in this situation.

      Multi-infarct dementia, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with vascular risk factors such as diabetes and atrial fibrillation. This type of dementia is characterized by a stepwise decline in functioning, with personality traits remaining relatively intact until late in the disease.

      Alcohol abuse can also lead to cognitive decline, with weight loss and signs of chronic liver disease being common physical manifestations.

      Alzheimer’s dementia is associated with progressive short-term memory loss, difficulties with language and decision-making, and problems with planning. While patients may present with dementia after the death of a partner, the symptoms described here are more consistent with depression.

      Finally, frontal lobe dementia is characterized by early symptoms of inappropriate social behaviour, disinhibition, and loss of empathy and sympathy. Memory loss is a late feature of this disease. By carefully considering the patient’s symptoms and medical history, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In a typical UK pediatric population, which childhood cancer type is most frequently...

    Correct

    • In a typical UK pediatric population, which childhood cancer type is most frequently observed?

      Your Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Childhood Cancer Statistics

      Brain and central nervous system tumours account for 21% of all childhood cancers, followed by lymphoma at 10%, neuroblastoma at 7%, and Wilms’ tumours at 5%. Leukaemia is the most common childhood cancer, making up 31% of all cases. These statistics highlight the need for continued research and funding to improve treatment options and outcomes for children with cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been advised to begin taking methotrexate...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been advised to begin taking methotrexate by her Rheumatologist. She is anxious about potential side effects and wants to discuss the safe administration of the medication. This is her first experience with methotrexate, and she has undergone recent blood tests that indicate normal liver and renal function.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Issue a prescription for daily methotrexate and daily folic acid

      Correct Answer: Arrange a chest X-ray (CXR) and issue the methotrexate script if this is normal

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Prescribing Methotrexate in Rheumatoid Arthritis Patients

      Methotrexate is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with rheumatoid arthritis. However, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when prescribing methotrexate:

      Baseline Investigations: Before starting treatment, patients should undergo a chest X-ray, full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests. A normal CXR is necessary as methotrexate can cause pulmonary toxicity. Repeat baseline blood tests in 4-6 weeks before commencing methotrexate.

      Concurrent Folic Acid: Methotrexate is a folate antagonist, so patients must take folic acid alongside it. Folic acid should be taken daily on the days when methotrexate is not taken.

      Regular Monitoring: Patients should have a full blood count every 1-2 weeks until treatment is stabilised, as well as renal and liver function tests. Once treatment is stabilised, monitoring can become less frequent, but should still occur every 2-3 months.

      No Loading Dose: There is no need for a loading dose of folic acid to be given before starting methotrexate, as long as baseline investigations are normal.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure the safe and effective use of methotrexate in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      118.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During a routine cranial nerve examination of a different patient, the following results...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine cranial nerve examination of a different patient, the following results were obtained:

      Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears
      Weber's test: Localises to the left side

      What do these test results indicate?

      Your Answer: Right sensorineural deafness

      Correct Answer: Left sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      If there is a sensorineural issue during Weber’s test, the sound will be perceived on the healthy side (right), suggesting a problem on the opposite side (left).

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      78.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Laboratory tests for liver and thyroid functions are normal. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability, but no psychotic symptoms.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Antisocial personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Hypomania

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypomania and Antisocial Personality Disorder

      Hypomania is a mood disorder characterized by an elevated and euphoric mood, increased activity, decreased need for sleep, and impaired judgement. It is a feature of bipolar disorder 2 and cyclothymia, and can also occur in drug-induced mood disorders. Antisocial personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a disregard for and violation of others’ rights since age 15, and typically presents in adulthood. It is important to distinguish between these two disorders, as they have different diagnostic criteria and treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      140.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has recently started taking clozapine after struggling to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has recently started taking clozapine after struggling to find an effective Antipsychotic treatment. His full blood count results are as follows:
      Hb 152 g/l
      MCV 87 fL
      WBC 2.0 x 109/L
      Neutrophils 0.9 x 109/L
      Lymphocytes 1.0 x 109/L
      Platelets 322 x 109/L
      What is the most suitable action to take in this case?

      Your Answer: Stop Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis and Neutropenia in Clozapine Treatment

      Clozapine is a medication used to treat schizophrenia. However, it carries a risk of agranulocytosis and neutropenia, which are conditions that affect the white blood cells. Agranulocytosis occurs in approximately 1% of patients taking clozapine, while neutropenia occurs in about 3%. The highest risk of developing these conditions is between 6 and 18 weeks after starting clozapine treatment.

      Before starting clozapine treatment, blood counts must be normal. During the first 18 weeks of treatment, a full blood count is required weekly. Afterward, the frequency can be reduced to every 2 or 4 weeks after 12 months. If the leucocyte count falls below 3000/mm or the absolute neutrophil count falls below 1500/mm, the medication should be stopped, and the patient should be referred to a haematologist.

      Patients taking clozapine should report any symptoms of infection immediately. However, an exception is made for patients with benign ethnic neutropenia. If a haematologist approves, they may be started on the medication. It is essential to monitor blood counts regularly to prevent the development of agranulocytosis and neutropenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      117.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been...

    Correct

    • You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been trying to conceive with his wife for the last 12 months without success.

      The results are as follows:

      Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
      pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
      Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
      Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
      Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
      Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
      Normal forms 5% (4% or more)

      His partner is also currently undergoing investigations. You plan on referring him to fertility services.

      What is the appropriate course of action based on these semen analysis results?

      Your Answer: Repeat test in 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a semen sample shows abnormalities, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. In cases where there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa (azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml), an immediate recheck may be necessary. Based on World Health Organisation criteria, this man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia with a sperm concentration of 10 to 15 million per ml, thus requiring a confirmatory test after 3 months.

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      112.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient is dissatisfied with the care he received from you and the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is dissatisfied with the care he received from you and the hospital consultant to whom you referred, and wants to file a complaint. He asks for a copy of his medical records.
      For a straightforward subject access request under the GDPR (and DPA 2018), how quickly must you provide them?

      Your Answer: Within 14 days

      Correct Answer: Within a reasonable time period, according to the size of the record and your workload

      Explanation:

      Access to Medical Records: Understanding Subject Access Requests

      Access to medical records is a common occurrence in general practice, but Trainee GPs may not have much exposure to such requests. It is important to be familiar with the requirements, as you may encounter questions about it in the exam.

      A request for access to medical records by a patient or a third party authorized by the patient is called a subject access request (SAR). Under the GDPR and DPA 2018, once the request has been received and verified, the individual must be provided with a copy of their data without undue delay, and at the latest within 28 days from the date of the request. If additional information is needed before copies can be supplied, the 28-day time limit will begin as soon as the additional information has been received.

      The 28-day time limit can be extended for two months for complex or numerous requests where the data controller needs more time to collate and supply the data. Individuals should be informed about this within 28 days and provided with an explanation of why the extension is necessary. However, health professionals can informally show patients or proxies their records as long as no other provisions of the GDPR or DPA are breached.

      In summary, understanding subject access requests is crucial for Trainee GPs, as it is a common occurrence in general practice. The GDPR and DPA 2018 replace the Data Protection Act 1998, and it is important to be familiar with the requirements to ensure compliance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?

      Your Answer: Coronary angiography

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy

      Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.

      While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.

      To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.

      In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following statements regarding inguinal hernias is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding inguinal hernias is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Are the most common cause of abdominal wall hernias

      Correct Answer: Patients should be referred promptly due to the risk of strangulation

      Explanation:

      Strangulation of inguinal hernias is a rare occurrence.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent cough that has lasted for the last four weeks, with breathlessness at rest. He sometimes does casual work as a labourer, but he is finding that he is unable to keep up with this work due to his breathlessness and generally feels fatigued and 'not well'.
      On further questioning, he reports night sweats and weight loss over the past 4-6 weeks. He is a non-smoker and is not on regular medication. He requests a course of antibiotics to make his cough better so he can get back to work.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Differential Diagnosis of a Persistent Cough

      A persistent cough can be a symptom of various respiratory conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. In the case of a homeless patient from Romania, the most likely diagnosis is pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), given the patient’s risk factors and symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, malaise, and breathlessness. To investigate this, three sputum samples and a chest X-ray should be arranged.

      While lung cancer can also present with similar symptoms, the patient’s young age and non-smoking status make this less likely. Asthma is unlikely given the absence of environmental triggers and the presence of additional symptoms. Bronchiectasis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is characterized by copious mucopurulent sputum production, which is not described in this case. Pulmonary fibrosis is rare in patients under 50 years old and doesn’t typically present with night sweats.

      In summary, a persistent cough can be indicative of various respiratory conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are evaluating a 65-year-old new patient to the clinic who has a...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 65-year-old new patient to the clinic who has a history of established cardiovascular disease (CVD), having suffered a myocardial infarction 12 months ago.

      Previously, he declined taking a statin due to concerns about potential side effects, but he has since researched the topic and is now open to the idea.

      He currently takes aspirin 75 mg daily, ramipril 5 mg once daily, and bisoprolol 2.5 mg once daily. He has no other significant medical history. Recent blood tests indicate normal renal, liver, and thyroid function.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management at this stage?

      Your Answer: Use QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess his cardiovascular risk

      Correct Answer: Offer ezetimibe 10 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Statin Therapy for Those with Pre-existing CVD

      All individuals with a history of established cardiovascular disease (CVD) should be offered statin therapy, according to NICE guidelines. While diet and lifestyle modifications are important, they should not delay or withhold statin therapy.

      For those with pre-existing CVD (excluding chronic kidney disease), atorvastatin 80 mg daily is recommended. However, for individuals with chronic kidney disease and an eGFR of less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, a lower dose of atorvastatin 20 mg daily is advised. Lower doses may also be considered for those at higher risk of side effects or due to individual preference.

      It is not necessary to use the QRISK2 risk assessment tool for those with pre-existing CVD, as they are automatically considered at high risk of CVD and should be treated accordingly. Overall, statin therapy is an important component of managing CVD and should be considered for all individuals with a history of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      84.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis screening. He reports no prior medical history and has never received a BCG vaccination. Although his chest x-ray appears normal, his Mantoux test and interferon gamma test are both positive. An HIV test is negative, leading to a suspected diagnosis of latent tuberculosis. What treatment option is most likely to be offered to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.

      Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 14 - When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor,...

    Incorrect

    • When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor, the association is said to be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      Association and Causation: Understanding the Difference

      Association refers to the relationship between two variables where one is more commonly found in the presence of the other. However, not all associations are causal. There are three types of association: spurious, indirect, and direct. Spurious associations are those that arise by chance and are not real, while indirect associations are due to the presence of another factor, also known as a confounding variable. Direct associations, on the other hand, are true associations not linked by a third variable.

      To establish causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The strength of the association is an important factor in determining causation, as a stronger association is more likely to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome, while specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome or disease. Coherence considers whether the association fits with other biological knowledge, and consistency looks at whether the same association is found in many studies.

      Understanding the difference between association and causation is important in research and decision-making. While an association may suggest a relationship between two variables, it doesn’t necessarily mean that one causes the other. By using the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria, researchers can determine whether an association is truly causal and make informed decisions based on their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old female who is being investigated for secondary amenorrhoea comes in with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female who is being investigated for secondary amenorrhoea comes in with yellowing of the eyes. During the examination, spider naevi are observed, and the liver is tender and enlarged. The following blood tests are conducted:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 11.6 g/dl
      - Platelets (Plt): 145 * 109/l
      - White blood cell count (WCC): 6.4 * 109/l
      - Albumin: 33 g/l
      - Bilirubin: 78 µmol/l
      - Alanine transaminase (ALT): 245 iu/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis

      Explanation:

      When a young female experiences both abnormal liver function tests and a lack of menstrual periods, it is highly indicative of autoimmune hepatitis.

      Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition that affects young females and has an unknown cause. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, hypergammaglobulinaemia, and HLA B8, DR3. There are three types of autoimmune hepatitis, which are classified based on the types of circulating antibodies present. Type I affects both adults and children and is characterized by the presence of Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA). Type II affects children only and is characterized by the presence of anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1). Type III affects adults in middle-age and is characterized by the presence of soluble liver-kidney antigen.

      The symptoms of autoimmune hepatitis may include signs of chronic liver disease, acute hepatitis (which only 25% of patients present with), amenorrhoea (which is common), the presence of ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels, and liver biopsy showing inflammation extending beyond the limiting plate ‘piecemeal necrosis’ and bridging necrosis. The management of autoimmune hepatitis involves the use of steroids and other immunosuppressants such as azathioprine. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman has a significantly reduced ability to understand new or complex...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has a significantly reduced ability to understand new or complex information, and a reduced ability to cope independently. There is evidence that she has had such problems since an early age.
      Which term is currently used in the UK to describe this patient’s impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Learning disability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Terms for Cognitive Impairments

      There are various terms used to describe cognitive impairments, but it is important to use the correct terminology to avoid confusion and stigma.

      A learning disability refers to a long-term reduced ability to cope independently or process new or complex information. It is important to seek specialist input for assessment and support if a learning disability is suspected.

      An intellectual disability is a general impairment that affects a person’s overall functioning. However, the correct term to use is still learning disability.

      A learning difficulty, such as dyslexia, doesn’t impair a person’s general functioning.

      The terms mental handicap and mental sub normality are outdated and no longer used in clinical practice. It is important to use respectful and accurate language when discussing cognitive impairments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      0
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  • Question 17 - You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital after being admitted for acute coronary syndrome. He has a medical history of myasthenia gravis and has been taking prednisolone for a long time. However, since his admission, his myasthenia symptoms have significantly worsened, and you observe bilateral ptosis and slurred speech. Which of the newly prescribed medications is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Myasthenic crises are often triggered by beta-blockers like bisoprolol.

      Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for review, as she is concerned about her frequent ear and chest infections. She was born full term with no complications. Her mother reports that she tried to breastfeed but ended up converting to formula as she was failing to thrive, and she still often brings food up through her nose.
      On examination, she has low-set ears, hypertelorism (wide-set eyes) and hooded eyelids. She makes some babbling noises but doesn't say any words yet. A set of blood tests reveal low calcium. There is no family history of recurrent infections.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between immunodeficiency disorders in a pediatric patient

      This patient presents with symptoms of immunodeficiency, including hypocalcaemia, developmental delay, facial dysmorphism, and feeding difficulties. The differential diagnosis includes DiGeorge syndrome, selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency, Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia, common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), and physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy.

      DiGeorge syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a genetic syndrome that commonly presents with mild immunodeficiency due to reduced thymus function or absence of a thymus. Facial dysmorphism, such as low-set ears, hypertelorism, and hooded eyelids, is also common.

      Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary antibody deficiency and may be associated with autoimmune disease or allergies. It is not associated with characteristic facies or low calcium.

      Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia is an X-linked immunodeficiency that presents with severe respiratory tract infections in male infants. It is unlikely in this case as the patient is female with a different clinical picture.

      CVID is the most common primary immunodeficiency in adults and presents with recurrent bacterial infections. It is not associated with the characteristic facies described here or developmental delay, feeding difficulties, or hypocalcaemia.

      Physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy is a common phenomenon where babies gradually lose their mother’s immunoglobulin G and replace it with their own. It is not associated with any additional facial features, blood abnormalities, or developmental or feeding delay.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation and testing are necessary to differentiate between these immunodeficiency disorders in this pediatric patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 43-year-old woman comes in with a 2-month history of significant fatigue. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes in with a 2-month history of significant fatigue. She had initial blood tests for 'always feeling tired' 3 weeks ago, which showed no abnormalities. Additionally, she reports experiencing tingling sensations in both legs for the past 10 days.

      However, what brought her in today was an exacerbation of right-sided eye pain when moving her eye and some loss of color vision.

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Lethargy is a common early symptom of multiple sclerosis, an autoimmune condition that affects the myelin in the brain and spinal cord. The patient’s description of symptoms of optic neuritis is also typical of multiple sclerosis. Lyme disease can sometimes mimic multiple sclerosis, but there is no history of a tick bite. Myasthenia gravis, which causes weakness and fatigue, is not likely to cause paresthesia or optic neuritis. Sarcoidosis, a systemic inflammatory disease that often presents with fatigue, is a potential option, but multiple sclerosis is more likely to cause optic neuritis.

      Features of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.

      It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 20 - You see a 45-year-old gentleman that presents with a 3-week history of neck...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 45-year-old gentleman that presents with a 3-week history of neck pain. He reports occasional shooting pains in his right arm. The symptoms have been improving since they first started. He reports no weight loss, gait disturbance, clumsiness, loss of sexual, bladder or bowel function. On examination, no neurological signs are noted.

      According to NICE, what would be the next appropriate step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance, encourage activity, analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Cervical Radiculopathy

      Cervical radiculopathy is a condition that affects the nerves in the neck, causing pain, weakness, and numbness in the arms. For patients with this condition that has been present for less than 4-6 weeks and no objective neurological signs present, NICE advises conservative management. This includes reassurance, encouragement of activity, and analgesia. The long-term prognosis for patients with radiculopathy is good, and most cases improve without surgery.

      However, clinicians should be aware of red flags that warrant an urgent referral. These include patients who are younger than 20 years or older than 55 years, severe or increasing pain, weakness involving more than one myotome, signs and symptoms suggestive of compression of the spinal cord, signs and symptoms suggestive of cancer, infection or inflammation, and signs and symptoms suggestive of severe trauma or skeletal injury. It is important to identify these red flags to ensure prompt and appropriate management of cervical radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old woman is taking fluoxetine 20 mg daily for moderately severe depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is taking fluoxetine 20 mg daily for moderately severe depression. She has taken the drug for 2 months and is feeling much better. She now wishes to stop the drug.
      Select from the list the single most correct management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise continuing fluoxetine 20 mg daily for a further 6 months

      Explanation:

      Preventing Relapse of Depression: The Importance of Continued Treatment

      Depression is a serious mental health condition that can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. While antidepressant treatment can be effective in managing symptoms, it’s important to continue treatment even after recovery to prevent relapse.

      Research has shown that a single episode of depression should be treated for at least 6 months after recovery to reduce the risk of relapse. In fact, if antidepressant treatment is stopped immediately on recovery, 50% of patients will experience a relapse of their depressive symptoms.

      To prevent relapse, adults should receive the same dose of medication is used for acute treatment. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dosage and duration of treatment. Once the patient has recovered, the medication should be tapered off over a few weeks to avoid any potential withdrawal symptoms.

      In conclusion, continued treatment is crucial in preventing relapse of depression. By following the recommended guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother, who has concerns about his mobility. He is having progressive difficulty with standing from the floor. He was able to sit unaided at 12 months and walk at 22 months. He has not been able to run, tending to ‘waddle’ if he tries.
      On examination, he has wasting to the quadriceps and calves, and a positive Gowers sign.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)

      Explanation:

      The case involves a boy with DMD, a common childhood-onset muscular dystrophy with X-linked recessive inheritance. Symptoms include developmental delay, inability to run, waddling gait, and wasting of leg muscles. DDH, BMD, cerebral palsy, and T1DM are ruled out as possible causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old woman has had type 2 diabetes for six years.
    She is obese...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman has had type 2 diabetes for six years.
      She is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2. There is no family history of diabetes and she is otherwise well. She is highly motivated to gain control of her diabetes. She has managed to lose about 4 kg in weight over the last year with a combination of calorie restriction and exercise; she enjoys swimming and yoga.
      Her current medication is:
      Metformin 500 mg qds
      Gliclazide 80 mg daily
      Aspirin 75 mg OD
      She says she would prefer not to take any additional medication.
      Her BP is 135/90 mmHg. She has a good record of self-monitoring of blood glucose with an average fasting glucose of about 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). She attends for review and her current HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol (7.8%).
      What would be the best advice for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Management of Type 2 Diabetes in Adults

      According to NICE guidelines, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be based on the effectiveness, safety, and tolerability of drug treatment, as well as the individual’s clinical circumstances, preferences, and needs. In the case of a patient who has had success with lifestyle changes, adding anti-obesity treatment may not be the most appropriate option. Instead, strategies for maintaining the changes already made should be considered. Increasing the dosage of gliclazide may be a better option than increasing Metformin, which can often be difficult for patients to tolerate. However, careful monitoring is necessary as gliclazide can increase weight. Insulin is also an option, but only if the patient is not on maximum oral hypoglycaemic agents. Overall, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be tailored to the individual’s specific circumstances and needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 24 - You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the community nurses due to suspected pressure ulcer development. Upon inspection, you observe a 3 cm region of erythema on the left heel with a minor area of partial thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis in the middle. What grade would you assign to the pressure ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank haematuria. He underwent a flexible cystoscopy and biopsies, which revealed a small superficial bladder tumour. He is a non-smoker. What is the most suitable advice you can give this patient regarding his bladder tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The majority of tumours involve only the urothelium and are non-invasive

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer: Facts and Figures

      Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the pelvis that stores urine. Here are some important facts and figures about bladder cancer:

      – The majority of bladder tumours involve only the urothelium (the lining of the bladder) and are non-invasive.
      – Transitional-cell tumours account for 90% of bladder cancers in the UK. About 70% of patients have superficial disease at diagnosis.
      – The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer is typically less than 50%. However, patients with superficial tumours have a 5-year survival rate of 80-90%, while those with muscle-invasive tumours have a rate as low as 30-60%.
      – Although smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer, it is linked to only about 50% of cases, meaning that it is still common in non-smokers.
      – Most non-invasive bladder tumours are managed with transurethral resection of the bladder tumour (TURBT). Radical cystectomy (removal of the bladder) may be necessary for invasive tumours.
      – The most common symptom of bladder cancer is painless haematuria (blood in the urine). Voiding symptoms are more likely to occur in advanced disease.

      Bladder cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of bladder cancer, such as blood in the urine or changes in urination patterns, you should see a doctor right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with complaints of painful urination...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with complaints of painful urination and left knee pain. He had experienced a severe episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis, and this patient exhibits two of these classic symptoms.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.

      The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).

      To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed a swelling and some slight discomfort. The discomfort intensifies when he stands and subsides when he lies down. The left side scrotum hangs lower and feels like “a bag of worms”. Both testes are of the same size and feel normal. The swelling becomes more noticeable when he performs a Valsalva manoeuvre while standing.
      Select the accurate statement from the options given.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Controversy surrounds the need for treatment

      Explanation:

      Varicocele: To Treat or Not to Treat?

      Varicocele is a common condition found in 20% of all men in the general population and 40% of infertile men. While it may cause abnormal sperm count and infertility, controversy surrounds the need for treatment. A Cochrane review has cast doubt on the merits of varicocelectomy, but European guidelines cite several meta-analyses favoring treatment. Surgery is only indicated for persistent pain. In older men with newly symptomatic varicocele, an advanced renal tumor is possible and should be excluded. Overall, most varicoceles do not require treatment and are unlikely to cause long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 28 - A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She was born at 39/40 without any complications and is growing along the 50th centile. The mother is concerned as the baby frequently spits up small amounts of milk after being fed, which is accompanied by crying and discomfort. However, the baby settles down after a few minutes. The baby is having wet and full nappies, and the vomit is milk-colored. The baby is formula-fed approximately 4 ounces, 7 times a day.

      What is the recommended first-line advice or treatment for this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce his feeds to 150ml/kg per day (in total) and give them more frequently and review in 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for formula-fed infants with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is to reduce their daily milk intake to 150ml/kg and offer more frequent, smaller feeds. This should be tried for 2 weeks, and if the baby is still experiencing discomfort, milk thickeners can be offered for 1-2 weeks. If this is not successful, a trial of alginate therapy should be attempted for 1-2 weeks. If this also fails, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor or histamine-2 receptor antagonist can be prescribed. Breastfed infants should first try a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 29 - A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife...

    Incorrect

    • A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife who has been admitted to the hospital with the disease. He seeks advice on the most suitable prophylactic medication.
      What is the most appropriate drug for prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases

      Public Health England recommends ciprofloxacin as the preferred antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of meningococcal disease in all age groups, including pregnant women. Ciprofloxacin has advantages over rifampicin, such as being a single-dose medication, not interfering with oral contraceptives, and being more easily accessible in community pharmacies. However, it should not be used in patients with ciprofloxacin hypersensitivity. Although historically not recommended for children due to the risk of arthropathy, studies have shown that the risk is low and transient.

      Co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, as well as toxoplasmosis and nocardiasis. Vancomycin can be used orally to treat Clostridium difficile infection, with metronidazole as an alternative. Ceftriaxone can be used for prophylaxis of meningococcal and Haemophilus influenza type b disease, but its use is unlicensed and requires intramuscular administration. Benzylpenicillin is given intravenously or intramuscularly in the prehospital treatment of patients with suspected meningococcal disease.

      Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman with learning difficulty requests contraception. She works part-time in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with learning difficulty requests contraception. She works part-time in a supermarket as part of a supported employment programme and has started a relationship with a co-worker who is also on the programme. He is her first boyfriend. She reports they have been together for four months and that he has met her family who she says like him. She has already had intercourse with him using barrier contraception.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer the patient a choice of all methods

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Patients with Learning Disabilities

      When it comes to contraception, individuals with learning disabilities should be offered the same range of options as anyone else. It is important to provide information that is appropriate for their ability to understand and process it. The patient’s choice should be respected, and they should not be denied autonomy in their medical care due to their disability.

      Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP)
      The COCP may be a suitable option for patients with learning disabilities, but an individual assessment should be made regarding their ability to take it correctly. If the patient chooses the COCP, they may be capable of complying with administration, alone or with assistance if needed.

      Depot Progestogen
      Depot progestogen has been a common choice for people with learning disabilities. If the patient wishes to use it and has no contraindications, it may be an appropriate option. However, the patient must be allowed to make the choice themselves.

      Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD)
      The IUCD is an effective and convenient form of contraception. If the patient has been sexually active and is willing to tolerate insertion, it may be a suitable option. Again, the patient should be given the choice to decide if it is right for them.

      Sterilisation
      Sterilisation is a controversial option for patients with learning disabilities and should only be considered if specifically requested by the patient. Given the availability of reversible alternatives and the patient’s young age, it would require detailed discussion.

      Contraceptive Options for Patients with Learning Disabilities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (2/3) 67%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed