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  • Question 1 - A 14 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents approximately 90 minutes after taking an overdose. The patient tells you she was at her friend's house and they got into an argument which ended with her friend telling her she was ending their friendship. The patient grabbed a bottle of pills from the bathroom and swallowed all of them before leaving. She didn't tell her friend she had taken the pills and wanted her to feel guilty but now regrets her actions. The patient tells you she didn't read the name on the bottle and threw the bottle away as she walked home. The patient also tells you she didn't see how many pills were in the bottle but thinks there were 20-30 of them. Several attempts to contact the patient's friend to try and clarify the identity of the pills are unsuccessful. The patient advises you she feels nauseated and has ringing in her ears. You also note the patient is hyperventilating. A blood gas sample is taken and is shown below:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.49
      pO2 14.3 KPa
      pCO2 3.4 KPa
      HCO3- 25 mmol/L
      BE -1

      Which of the following best describes the acid base disturbance?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      An elevated pH (normal range 7.34-7.45) suggests alkalosis. A low pCO2 (normal range 4.4-6.0 Kpa) indicates that the respiratory system is causing the alkalosis. The metabolic system, on the other hand, is not contributing to either alkalosis or acidosis as both the bicarbonate and base excess levels are within the normal ranges.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with symptoms of fever...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with symptoms of fever and irritability. He also complains of lower abdominal pain and stinging during urination. A urine dipstick is performed on a clean catch urine, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. You diagnose him with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. His blood tests today show that his eGFR is 38 ml/minute. He has no history of other UTIs or infections requiring antibiotics in the past 12 months.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of young people under 16 years with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is important to obtain a urine sample before starting antibiotics. This sample can be tested using a dipstick or sent for culture and susceptibility testing. In cases where children under 5 present with fever along with lower UTI, it is recommended to follow the guidance outlined in the NICE guideline on fever in under 5s.

      Immediate antibiotic prescription should be offered to children and young people under 16 years with lower UTI. When making this prescription, it is important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. If a urine sample has been sent for culture and sensitivity testing, the choice of antibiotic should be reviewed once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, a narrow-spectrum antibiotic should be used whenever possible.

      For non-pregnant women aged 16 years and under, the following antibiotics can be considered:
      – Children under 3 months: It is recommended to refer to a pediatric specialist and treat with an intravenous antibiotic in line with the NICE guideline on fever in under 5s.
      – First-choice in children over 3 months: Nitrofurantoin (if eGFR >45 ml/minute) or Trimethoprim (if low risk of resistance*).
      – Second-choice in children over 3 months (when there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable): Nitrofurantoin (if eGFR >45 ml/minute and not used as first-choice), Amoxicillin (only if culture results are available and susceptible), or Cefalexin.

      Please refer to the BNF for children for dosing information. It is important to consider the risk of resistance when choosing antibiotics. A lower risk of resistance may be more likely if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, if previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (but was not used), and in younger people in areas where local epidemiology data suggest low resistance. On the other hand, a higher risk of resistance may be more likely with recent antibiotic use and in older people in residential facilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further questioning, you discover that he has taken an overdose of quetiapine. You discuss the case with your consultant, and she explains that the clinical features of this type of poisoning are due to central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade.

      Which of the following clinical effects occurs as a result of peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade?

      Your Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.

      The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old patient comes to the emergency department with a complaint of increasing...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient comes to the emergency department with a complaint of increasing hearing loss in the right ear over the past few months. During the examination, tuning fork tests are performed. Weber's test shows lateralization to the left side, and Rinne's testing is positive in both ears.

      Based on this assessment, which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Based on the assessment findings, the most likely diagnosis for the 45-year-old patient with increasing hearing loss in the right ear is an acoustic neuroma. This is suggested by the lateralization of Weber’s test to the left side, indicating that sound is being heard better in the left ear. Additionally, the positive Rinne’s test in both ears suggests that air conduction is better than bone conduction, which is consistent with an acoustic neuroma. Other possible diagnoses such as otosclerosis, otitis media, cerumen impaction, and tympanic membrane perforation are less likely based on the given information.

      Further Reading:

      Hearing loss is a common complaint that can be caused by various conditions affecting different parts of the ear and nervous system. The outer ear is the part of the ear outside the eardrum, while the middle ear is located between the eardrum and the cochlea. The inner ear is within the bony labyrinth and consists of the vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea. The vestibulocochlear nerve connects the inner ear to the brain.

      Hearing loss can be classified based on severity, onset, and type. Severity is determined by the quietest sound that can be heard, measured in decibels. It can range from mild to profound deafness. Onset can be sudden, rapidly progressive, slowly progressive, or fluctuating. Type of hearing loss can be either conductive or sensorineural. Conductive hearing loss is caused by issues in the external ear, eardrum, or middle ear that disrupt sound transmission. Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by problems in the cochlea, auditory nerve, or higher auditory processing pathways.

      To diagnose sensorineural and conductive deafness, a 512 Hz tuning fork is used to perform Rinne and Weber’s tests. These tests help determine the type of hearing loss based on the results. In Rinne’s test, air conduction (AC) and bone conduction (BC) are compared, while Weber’s test checks for sound lateralization.

      Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by the abnormal accumulation of skin cells in the middle ear or mastoid air cell spaces. It is believed to develop from a retraction pocket that traps squamous cells. Cholesteatoma can cause the accumulation of keratin and the destruction of adjacent bones and tissues due to the production of destructive enzymes. It can lead to mixed sensorineural and conductive deafness as it affects both the middle and inner ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought into the emergency room by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the child may have signs of airway obstruction.
      Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burned patients is correct?

      Your Answer: An endotracheal tube of at least size 3.5 mm internal diameter should be used for intubation in children

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after stepping...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after stepping on a sharp object while playing barefoot in the backyard. The wound needs to be stitched under anesthesia. While obtaining parental consent from the accompanying adult, you notice that the adult has a different last name than the child. When asking about their relationship to the child, the adult states that they are the child's like a mother and is the partner of the girl's father. What is the term used to describe a parent or guardian who can provide consent on behalf of a child?

      Your Answer: Parental authority

      Correct Answer: Parental responsibility

      Explanation:

      Parental responsibility encompasses the legal rights, duties, powers, responsibilities, and authority that a parent holds for their child. This includes the ability to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of the child. Any individual with parental responsibility has the authority to give consent for their child. If a father meets any of the aforementioned criteria, he is considered to have parental responsibility. On the other hand, a mother is automatically granted parental responsibility for her child from the moment of birth.

      Further Reading:

      Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.

      In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.

      Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.

      In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.

      The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.

      Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.

      In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old patient presents with frequent bruising and recurrent nosebleeds. She informs you...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with frequent bruising and recurrent nosebleeds. She informs you that she has a rare platelet disorder and provides you with her outpatient letter from the hematology department, which includes details about the condition. According to the letter, her disorder is attributed to decreased levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia

      Explanation:

      Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia is an uncommon condition affecting platelets, where they have a deficiency or abnormality in glycoprotein IIb/IIIa. This disorder leads to platelet dysfunction and can result in various complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A middle-aged man is brought in by ambulance, having collapsed. There is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man is brought in by ambulance, having collapsed. There is currently a summer heatwave, and he has a suspected diagnosis of heat stroke.

      Which of the following statements regarding heat stroke is true?

      Your Answer: In patients taking serotonergic medications, malignant hyperthermia should be considered

      Correct Answer: Diazepam can be helpful in patients with agitation and/or shivering

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a systemic inflammatory response, where the core body temperature exceeds 40.6°C. It is accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. Heat stroke occurs when the body’s ability to regulate temperature is overwhelmed by a combination of excessive environmental heat, excessive heat production from metabolic processes (usually due to exertion), and inadequate heat loss.

      It is important to consider other clinical conditions that can cause an increased core temperature. Sepsis can present similarly and should be ruled out. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome should be excluded in patients taking phenothiazines or other antipsychotics. Serotonin syndrome should be excluded in patients taking serotonergic medications such as SSRIs. Malignant hyperthermia should be considered in patients with a recent history of general anesthesia. Screening for recreational drug use, particularly cocaine, amphetamines, and ecstasy, is also recommended.

      In patients with agitation and/or shivering, benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam) can be beneficial. They help reduce excessive heat production and agitation. In severe cases of agitation, paralysis may be necessary. Dantrolene is commonly used, although there is currently limited high-level evidence supporting its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to potential adverse effects.

      Various cooling techniques are recommended, but there is currently insufficient evidence to determine the best approach. Simple measures like cold drinks, fanning, ice water packs, and spraying tepid water can be effective. Cold water immersion therapy may be helpful, but it requires patient stability and cooperation and may not be practical for critically ill patients. Advanced cooling techniques, such as cold IV fluids, surface cooling devices (SCD), intravascular cooling devices (ICD), and extracorporeal circuits, may be used for sicker patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved in a car accident. A trauma alert is activated, and you are tasked with obtaining intravenous access and administering a fluid bolus. However, you are unable to successfully establish intravenous access and decide to prepare for intraosseous access instead.

      Which of the following anatomical sites would be the most appropriate for insertion?

      Your Answer: Proximal humerus

      Explanation:

      Intraosseous access is recommended in trauma, burns, or resuscitation situations when other attempts at venous access fail or would take longer than one minute. It is particularly recommended for circulatory access in pediatric cardiac arrest cases. This technique can also be used when urgent blood sampling or intravenous access is needed and traditional cannulation is difficult and time-consuming. It serves as a temporary measure to stabilize the patient and facilitate long-term intravenous access.

      Potential complications of intraosseous access include compartment syndrome, infection, and fracture. Therefore, it is contraindicated to use this method on the side of definitively fractured bones or limbs with possible proximal fractures. It should also not be used at sites of previous attempts or in patients with conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteopetrosis.

      There are several possible sites for intraosseous access insertion. These include the proximal humerus, approximately 1 cm above the surgical neck; the proximal tibia, on the anterior surface, 2-3 cm below the tibial tuberosity; the distal tibia, 3 cm proximal to the most prominent aspect of the medial malleolus; the femoral region, on the anterolateral surface, 3 cm above the lateral condyle; the iliac crest; and the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. He is started on regular maintenance treatment with potent opioids for his pain.
      According to NICE, what is the recommended initial rescue medication for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral immediate-release morphine

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of central abdominal pain which has now moved to the right-hand side. His appetite is poor, and he is complaining of nausea. He has a history of chronic constipation and recently had an episode of sudden, unexplained rectal bleeding for which he has been referred to the general surgical outpatient clinic by his GP. His observations are as follows: temperature 38.4°C, HR 112, BP 134/78, RR 18. On examination, he is tender in the right iliac fossa, and his PR examination revealed rectal tenderness.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Acute diverticulitis occurs when a diverticulum becomes inflamed or perforated. This inflammation can either stay localized, forming a pericolic abscess, or spread and cause peritonitis. The typical symptoms of acute diverticulitis include abdominal pain (most commonly felt in the lower left quadrant), fever/sepsis, tenderness in the left iliac fossa, the presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa, and rectal bleeding. About 90% of cases involve the sigmoid colon, which is why left iliac fossa pain and tenderness are commonly seen.

      To diagnose acute diverticulitis, various investigations should be conducted. These include blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, C-reactive protein, and blood cultures. Imaging studies like abdominal X-ray, erect chest X-ray, and possibly an abdominal CT scan may also be necessary.

      Complications that can arise from acute diverticulitis include perforation leading to abscess formation or peritonitis, intestinal obstruction, massive rectal bleeding, fistulae, and strictures.

      In the emergency department, the treatment for diverticulitis should involve providing suitable pain relief, administering intravenous fluids, prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics (such as intravenous co-amoxiclav), and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking. It is also important to refer the patient to the on-call surgical team for further management.

      For more information on diverticular disease, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. Despite taking the maximum dosage of paracetamol, codeine phosphate, and ibuprofen regularly, his symptoms are no longer being adequately managed. You determine that it is necessary to discontinue the use of codeine phosphate and initiate stronger opioids.
      What would be the most suitable initial dosage regimen in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20-30 mg oral morphine daily in divided doses

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The emergency department is contacted to inform them that four workers at a...

    Incorrect

    • The emergency department is contacted to inform them that four workers at a nearby chemical plant will be brought in for evaluation after a fire occurred on site. Your consultant expresses some concerns regarding the handling of secondary contamination. What is the most accurate description of secondary contamination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contaminated people leaving the scene of the incident and depositing contamination in other locations.

      Explanation:

      Secondary contamination occurs when contaminated individuals leave the initial incident scene and spread harmful substances to other locations, such as the emergency department. To minimize secondary contamination, steps like removing contaminated clothing, implementing decontamination procedures, and restricting movement can be taken. On the other hand, tertiary contamination refers to the entry of contaminants into the local environment, where they can become airborne or waterborne.

      Further Reading:

      Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.

      When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.

      To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.

      Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.

      Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.

      After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department feeling extremely ill. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department feeling extremely ill. He was recently prescribed a course of trimethoprim for a suspected urinary tract infection by his primary care physician. Initially, he felt slightly better, but unfortunately, in the past 24 hours, he has developed severe pain in his lower back, chills, and has vomited up this morning's antibiotic. He denies any possibility of being pregnant. Upon examination, he has an elevated heart rate of 106 beats per minute and tenderness in his left flank.

      What is the MOST appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for admission for intravenous antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This patient is clearly experiencing pyelonephritis with systemic involvement, which may indicate sepsis. According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to admit individuals to the hospital if they exhibit any symptoms or signs that suggest a more serious illness or condition, such as sepsis. In cases of acute pyelonephritis, it is advisable to consider referring or seeking specialist advice for individuals who are significantly dehydrated or unable to consume oral fluids and medications, pregnant women, those at a higher risk of developing complications (e.g., individuals with known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression), and individuals who have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (e.g., two or more episodes within a 6-month period). Additionally, it is recommended to consider referral for men who have experienced a single episode without an obvious cause and women with recurrent pyelonephritis. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of acute pyelonephritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman currently nursing her baby has developed a painful, red lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman currently nursing her baby has developed a painful, red lump in her left breast. She feels chilled and generally not well and has a temperature of 38.6°C. During examination, she has a significant red area on the outer side of the nipple on her left breast. The entire breast seems swollen and inflamed.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast abscess

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a breast abscess that has developed as a result of lactational mastitis. When milk is not properly drained, it can lead to an overgrowth of bacteria and subsequently cause an infection in the breast. If left untreated, this infection can lead to the accumulation of pus in a specific area of the breast. It is estimated that around 5-10% of women with infectious mastitis will develop a breast abscess. The recommended treatment involves a combination of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin or co-amoxiclav, along with either aspiration or incision and drainage of the abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG, it is found that she has newly developed QT prolongation. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication and wonders if that could be the reason.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to cause QT interval prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.

      Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.

      The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.

      If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.

      A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.

      Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:

      Antimicrobials:
      – Erythromycin
      – Clarithromycin
      – Moxifloxacin
      – Fluconazole
      – Ketoconazole

      Antiarrhythmics:
      – Dronedarone
      – Sotalol
      – Quinidine
      – Amiodarone
      – Flecainide

      Antipsychotics:
      – Risperidone
      – Fluphenazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Pimozide
      – Chlorpromazine
      – Quetiapine
      – Clozapine

      Antidepressants:
      – Citalopram/escitalopram
      – Amitriptyline
      – Clomipramine
      – Dosulepin
      – Doxepin
      – Imipramine
      – Lofepramine

      Antiemetics:
      – Domperidone
      – Droperidol
      – Ondansetron/Granisetron

      Others:
      – Methadone
      – Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 17 - What is the threshold MASCC Risk Index Score for identifying patients as low...

    Incorrect

    • What is the threshold MASCC Risk Index Score for identifying patients as low risk for outpatient treatment with early antibiotics in cases of neutropenic sepsis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 21

      Explanation:

      The MASCC Risk Index Score, developed by the Multinational Association of Supportive Care in Cancer, is a globally recognized scoring system that helps identify patients with neutropenic sepsis who have a low risk of complications and can potentially be treated as outpatients with early administration of antibiotics. This scoring system takes into account various characteristics to determine the risk level of the patient. These characteristics include the burden of febrile neutropenia with no or mild symptoms, absence of hypotension, no history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, presence of a solid tumor or hematological malignancy without previous fungal infection, absence of dehydration requiring parenteral fluids, burden of febrile neutropenia with moderate symptoms, being in an outpatient setting at the onset of fever, and age below 60 years. Each characteristic is assigned a certain number of points, and a total score of 21 or higher indicates a low risk, while a score below 21 indicates a high risk. The MASCC Risk Index Score has been validated internationally and has shown a positive predictive value of 91%, specificity of 68%, and sensitivity of 71%. For more detailed information, you can refer to the article titled Identifying Patients at Low Risk for FN Complications: Development and Validation of the MASCC Risk Index Score.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in the morning) and difficulty falling asleep, mood changes throughout the day, fatigue, and absence of menstrual periods.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, there are similarities between hypothyroidism and perimenopause in terms of their features. However, the most frequent cause of experiencing these symptoms together is depression. Therefore, it is necessary to delve deeper into this woman’s mood to rule out depression and provide appropriate management.

      To exclude hypothyroidism as a potential cause, a TSH blood test should be conducted. Additionally, it is important to inquire about other symptoms that may align with early menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman who has been involved in a car accident is estimated...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who has been involved in a car accident is estimated to have suffered a class I haemorrhage according to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) haemorrhagic shock classification. The patient weighs approximately 60 kg.
      Which of the following physiological parameters is consistent with a diagnosis of class I haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.

      The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse, and thick vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative. She has no fever and her vital signs are normal. During the exam, her abdomen feels soft, but she experiences cervical motion tenderness during a pelvic examination.

      What is the MOST suitable treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone plus oral doxycycline and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea. In the UK, genital Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common cause of PID seen in genitourinary medicine clinics.

      PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms are present, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It is important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be similar to those of PID, so a pregnancy test should be conducted for all patients with suspicious symptoms.

      To investigate a possible case of PID, endocervical swabs should be taken to test for C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae using nucleic acid amplification tests if available. Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings, while patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.

      Empirical antibiotic treatment should be initiated as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made clinically, without waiting for swab results. The current recommended outpatient treatment for PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.

      For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment includes intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. This is then followed by a switch to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day treatment course. If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - You evaluate a 35-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy. She...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy. She has been initiated on an anti-epileptic drug but has subsequently developed a tremor when assuming a certain posture.
      Which INDIVIDUAL anti-epileptic medication is most likely to be accountable for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Postural tremor is frequently seen as a neurological side effect in individuals taking sodium valproate. Additionally, a resting tremor may also manifest. It has been observed that around 25% of patients who begin sodium valproate therapy develop a tremor within the first year. Other potential side effects of sodium valproate include gastric irritation, nausea and vomiting, involuntary movements, temporary hair loss, weight gain in females, and impaired liver function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 22 - A 45 year old woman is brought into the emergency department after intentionally...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old woman is brought into the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on a significant amount of amitriptyline following the end of a relationship. You order an ECG. What ECG changes are commonly seen in cases of amitriptyline overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolongation of QRS

      Explanation:

      TCA toxicity can be identified through specific changes seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Sinus tachycardia, which is a faster than normal heart rate, and widening of the QRS complex are key features of TCA toxicity. These ECG changes occur due to the blocking of sodium channels and muscarinic receptors (M1) by the medication. In the case of an amitriptyline overdose, additional ECG changes may include prolongation of the QT interval, an R/S ratio greater than 0.7 in lead aVR, and the presence of ventricular arrhythmias such as torsades de pointes. The severity of the QRS prolongation on the ECG is associated with the likelihood of adverse events. A QRS duration greater than 100 ms is predictive of seizures, while a QRS duration greater than 160 ms is predictive of ventricular arrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia or torsades de pointes.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization. Amiodarone should

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 23 - A 6 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by his father. The boy tugged on the tablecloth and a hot bowl of soup spilled onto his right leg, causing a scald. The boy is in tears and holding onto his right leg. The patient's father mentions that he gave the boy acetaminophen before coming to the emergency department. What is the most suitable additional pain relief to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectal diclofenac 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      For children experiencing moderate pain, diclofenac (taken orally or rectally), oral codeine, or oral morphine are suitable options for providing relief. The patient has already been given the appropriate initial analgesia for mild pain. Therefore, it is now appropriate to administer analgesia for moderate pain, following the next step on the analgesic ladder. Considering diclofenac, codeine, or oral morphine would be appropriate in this case.

      Further Reading:

      Assessment and alleviation of pain should be a priority when treating ill and injured children, according to the RCEM QEC standards. These standards state that all children attending the Emergency Department should receive analgesia for moderate and severe pain within 20 minutes of arrival. The effectiveness of the analgesia should be re-evaluated within 60 minutes of receiving the first dose. Additionally, patients in moderate pain should be offered oral analgesia at triage or assessment.

      Pain assessment in children should take into account their age. Visual analogue pain scales are commonly used, and the RCEM has developed its own version of this. Other indicators of pain, such as crying, limping, and holding or not-moving limbs, should also be observed and utilized in the pain assessment.

      Managing pain in children involves a combination of psychological strategies, non-pharmacological adjuncts, and pharmacological methods. Psychological strategies include involving parents, providing cuddles, and utilizing child-friendly environments with toys. Explanation and reassurance are also important in building trust. Distraction with stories, toys, and activities can help divert the child’s attention from the pain.

      Non-pharmacological adjuncts for pain relief in children include limb immobilization with slings, plasters, or splints, as well as dressings and other treatments such as reduction of dislocation or trephine subungual hematoma.

      Pharmacological methods for pain relief in children include the use of anesthetics, analgesics, and sedation. Topical anesthetics, such as lidocaine with prilocaine cream, tetracaine gel, or ethyl chloride spray, should be considered for children who are likely to require venesection or placement of an intravenous cannula.

      Procedural sedation in children often utilizes either ketamine or midazolam. When administering analgesia, the analgesic ladder should be followed as recommended by the RCEM.

      Overall, effective pain management in children requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and psychological aspects of pain. By prioritizing pain assessment and providing appropriate pain relief, healthcare professionals can help alleviate the suffering of ill and injured children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 24 - A 14-year-old girl presents with a sudden onset of a painful throat that...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with a sudden onset of a painful throat that has been bothering her for the past day. She has no history of a cough and no symptoms of a cold. During the examination, her temperature is measured at 38.5°C, and there is clear evidence of pus on her right tonsil, which also appears to be swollen and red. No swollen lymph nodes are felt in the front of her neck.
      Based on the FeverPAIN Score used to evaluate her sore throat, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat immediately with empiric antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Two scoring systems are suggested by NICE to aid in the evaluation of sore throat: The Centor Clinical Prediction Score and The FeverPAIN Score.

      The FeverPAIN score was developed from a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and above. The score was tested in a trial that compared three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, or a combination of the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. Utilizing the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in the prescription of antibiotics (both reduced by one third). The inclusion of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      The score comprises of five factors, each of which is assigned one point: Fever (Temp >38°C) in the last 24 hours, Purulence, Attended rapidly in under three days, Inflamed tonsils, and No cough or coryza.

      Based on the score, the recommendations are as follows:
      – Score 0-1 = 13-18% likelihood of streptococcus infection, antibiotics are not recommended.
      – Score 2-3 = 34-40% likelihood of streptococcus infection, consider delayed prescribing of antibiotics (3-5 day ‘backup prescription’).
      – Score 4-5 = 62-65% likelihood of streptococcus infection, use immediate antibiotics if severe, or a 48-hour short ‘backup prescription.’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 25 - A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6 cm laceration to the right thigh. The wound requires suturing. Your consultant suggests you suture the child under ketamine sedation as the child is upset by the wound. You are confident there are no contraindications and proceed to obtain parental consent. Which of the following risks should be specifically listed on the consent form and discussed with the parent giving consent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rash

      Explanation:

      Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.

      Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.

      During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.

      Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.

      Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.

      Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 26 - A 28 year old male is brought into the emergency department in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old male is brought into the emergency department in a comatose state with suspected poisoning. An arterial blood gas sample is taken. The results are shown below:

      pH 7.22
      pO2 12.5 kpa
      pCO2 5.9 kpa
      Bicarbonate 14 mmol/l
      Chloride 98 mmol/l
      Potassium 6.1 mmol/l
      Sodium 136 mmol/l

      Overdose or poisoning with which of the following typically leads to this type of acid base disturbance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning often leads to a metabolic acidosis characterized by a high anion gap. The patient in question is experiencing this type of acid-base disturbance. This particular acid-base imbalance is typically seen in cases of poisoning with substances such as glycols (ethylene and propylene), salicylates (aspirin), paracetamol, methanol, isoniazid, and paraldehyde.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that seems to be indicative of shingles.
      What is the most suitable method to confirm a shingles diagnosis in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History and examination alone

      Explanation:

      Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which primarily infects individuals during childhood as chickenpox. However, the initial infection can also be subclinical. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the sensory nervous system, specifically in the geniculate, trigeminal, or dorsal root ganglia.

      During the dormant phase, the virus is kept under control by the immune system for many years. However, it can later become active and cause a flare-up in a specific dermatomal segment. This reactivation occurs when the virus travels down the affected nerve over a period of 3 to 5 days, leading to inflammation within and around the nerve. The decline in cell-mediated immunity is believed to trigger the virus’s reactivation.

      Several factors can trigger the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, including advancing age (with most patients being older than 50), immunosuppressive illnesses, physical trauma, and psychological stress. In immunocompetent patients, the most common site of reactivation is the thoracic nerves, followed by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

      Diagnosing shingles can usually be done based on the patient’s history and clinical examination alone, as it has a distinct history and appearance. While various techniques can be used to detect the virus or antibodies, they are often unnecessary. Microscopy and culture tests using scrapings and smears typically yield negative results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
      Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It increases the duration of the action potential

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.

      In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.

      Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.

      Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.

      It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)....

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She had initially improved after receiving fluids, but her condition has worsened in the past hour. She is now expressing discomfort due to a headache and is displaying irritability. She has started vomiting again, and the nursing staff has observed an increase in her blood pressure and a decrease in her heart rate.
      What complication has developed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral oedema

      Explanation:

      Cerebral edema is the most significant complication of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), leading to death in many cases. It occurs in approximately 0.2-1% of DKA cases. The high blood glucose levels cause an osmolar gradient, resulting in the movement of water from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) space and a decrease in cell volume. When insulin and intravenous fluids are administered to correct the condition, the effective osmolarity decreases rapidly, causing a reversal of the fluid shift and the development of cerebral edema.

      Cerebral edema is associated with a higher mortality rate and poor neurological outcomes. To prevent its occurrence, it is important to slowly normalize osmolarity over a period of 48 hours, paying attention to glucose and sodium levels, as well as ensuring proper hydration. Monitoring the child for symptoms such as headache, recurrent vomiting, irritability, changes in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), abnormal slowing of heart rate, and increasing blood pressure is crucial.

      If cerebral edema does occur, it should be treated with either a hypertonic (3%) saline solution at a dosage of 3 ml/kg or a mannitol infusion at a dosage of 250-500 mg/kg over a 20-minute period.

      In addition to cerebral edema, there are other complications associated with DKA in children, including cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, and acute renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - You are getting ready to administer local anesthesia to the skin of a...

    Incorrect

    • You are getting ready to administer local anesthesia to the skin of a patient's groin before inserting a femoral venous catheter. You opt for lidocaine as the choice of medication. What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. These channels are responsible for the propagation of action potentials in nerve fibers. By blocking these channels, lidocaine prevents the influx of sodium ions into the nerve cells, thereby inhibiting the generation and conduction of nerve impulses. This results in local anesthesia, as the transmission of pain signals from the skin to the brain is effectively blocked.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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