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  • Question 1 - A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department after a...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department after a significant episode of haematemesis. The patient is transferred to the resuscitation bay upon arrival, and large bore intravenous access is established while blood samples are sent for analysis and cross matching. You observe that the patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis and suspect a bleed from oesophageal varices.

      Which of the following medications should be prioritized for administration, as it has been proven to enhance survival in patients with gastro-oesophageal variceal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Terlipressin, a vasopressin analogue, has been found to significantly enhance survival rates in cases of acute upper gastrointestinal variceal haemorrhage when compared to a placebo. Alternatively, somatostatin and its analogue octreotide have also demonstrated similar benefits and can be used as alternatives. It is not recommended to administer proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) before endoscopy in cases of acute upper GI bleeds, but they are advised after endoscopy for non-variceal upper GI bleeds. There is no consensus on whether PPIs improve outcomes in variceal bleeding. Recombinant factor Vlla should only be considered if other blood products have failed to correct coagulopathy. Studies indicate that tranexamic acid does not reduce mortality from upper GI bleeding and may actually increase the risk of thromboembolic events.

      Further Reading:

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.

      The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.

      Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.

      Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.

      Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.

      For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department with burns...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department with burns to the face and neck. It is decided to insert a central line into the femoral vein.

      What is the positioning of the femoral vein in relation to the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: The femoral vein lies immediately medial to the femoral artery

      Explanation:

      A central venous catheter (CVC) is a type of catheter that is inserted into a large vein in the body, typically in the neck, chest, or groin. It has several important uses, including CVP monitoring, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, repeated blood sampling, IV access for large volumes of fluids or drugs, TPN administration, dialysis, pacing, and other procedures such as placement of IVC filters or venous stents.

      When inserting a central line, it is ideal to use ultrasound guidance to ensure accurate placement. However, there are certain contraindications to central line insertion, including infection or injury to the planned access site, coagulopathy, thrombosis or stenosis of the intended vein, a combative patient, or raised intracranial pressure for jugular venous lines.

      The most common approaches for central line insertion are the internal jugular, subclavian, femoral, and PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) veins. The internal jugular vein is often chosen due to its proximity to the carotid artery, but variations in anatomy can occur. Ultrasound can be used to identify the vessels and guide catheter placement, with the IJV typically lying superficial and lateral to the carotid artery. Compression and Valsalva maneuvers can help distinguish between arterial and venous structures, and doppler color flow can highlight the direction of flow.

      In terms of choosing a side for central line insertion, the right side is usually preferred to avoid the risk of injury to the thoracic duct and potential chylothorax. However, the left side can also be used depending on the clinical situation.

      Femoral central lines are another option for central venous access, with the catheter being inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. Local anesthesia is typically used to establish a field block, with lidocaine being the most commonly used agent. Lidocaine works by blocking sodium channels and preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      In summary, central venous catheters have various important uses and should ideally be inserted using ultrasound guidance. There are contraindications to their insertion, and different approaches can be used depending on the clinical situation. Local anesthesia is commonly used for central line insertion, with lidocaine being the preferred agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing at home. The patient is observed to be hypotensive and drowsy upon arrival and is promptly transferred to the resuscitation bay. The patient's spouse informs you that the patient has been feeling sick with nausea and vomiting for the past 48 hours. It is important to note that the patient has a medical history of Addison's disease. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: 100mg IM hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for Addisonian (adrenal) crisis is hydrocortisone. This patient displays symptoms that indicate an Addisonian crisis, and the main components of their management involve administering hydrocortisone and providing intravenous fluids for resuscitation.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right eye. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe a sheet of sensory retina bulging towards the center of the eye.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.

      The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.

      Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.

      It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old patient presents to the emergency department complaining of offensive smelling diarrhea...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient presents to the emergency department complaining of offensive smelling diarrhea and discomfort in the lower abdomen for the past 5 days. The patient had a previous episode of clostridium difficile diarrhea 4 months ago and recently completed a course of amoxicillin for a respiratory infection 12 days ago. The patient's primary care physician sent a stool sample for testing 3 days ago, which came back positive for clostridium difficile. Based on the diagnosis of a moderate clostridium difficile infection, what is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe metronidazole 400 mg orally TDS for 5-7 days

      Correct Answer: Prescribe vancomycin 125 mg orally QDS for 10 days

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for C.diff infection is typically oral vancomycin. When managing moderate cases, it is important to stop the antibiotics that caused the infection, ensure proper hydration, and provide guidance on hygiene measures. The recommended treatment is to prescribe oral vancomycin 125 mg four times a day for 10 days. Alternatively, fidaxomicin 200 mg twice a day for 10 days can be used as a second-line treatment. In severe cases, oral vancomycin may be combined with intravenous metronidazole, but it is advisable to consult with a local microbiologist or infectious disease specialist before proceeding.

      Further Reading:

      Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.

      Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.

      Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.

      Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sexual intercourse 3 days ago. On direct questioning...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sexual intercourse 3 days ago. On direct questioning it was approximately 80 hours ago. She is hesitant to have a coil inserted due to a negative past experience and is curious about alternative options that may be available to her.
      What is the MOST appropriate choice for her?

      Your Answer: Ulipristal acetate

      Explanation:

      Women have three options when requesting emergency contraception. The first option is Levonelle 1.5 mg, which contains levonorgestrel and can be used up to 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking the tablet, another one should be given. Levonelle mainly works by preventing ovulation.

      The second option is ulipristal acetate, the newest treatment available. It can be used up to 120 hours after UPSI. If vomiting occurs within 3 hours of ingestion, another tablet should be given. Ulipristal acetate also works by inhibiting ovulation. However, it should be avoided in patients taking enzyme-inducing drugs, those with severe hepatic impairment, or those with severe asthma requiring oral steroids.

      The third option is the copper IUD, which can be fitted up to 5 days after UPSI or ovulation, whichever is longer. The failure rate of the copper IUD is less than 1 in 1000, making it 10-20 times more effective than oral emergency contraceptive options. It is important to note that Levonelle and ulipristal may be less effective in women with higher BMIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and continuous lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her usual period. A CTG is conducted, revealing reduced variability in the fetal heart rate and late decelerations. During the examination, the uterus feels tender and firm.

      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption, also known as abruptio placentae, occurs when the placental lining separates from the wall of the uterus before delivery and after 20 weeks of gestation.

      In the early stages, there may be no symptoms, but typically abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding develop. Approximately 20% of patients experience a concealed placental abruption, where the haemorrhage is confined within the uterine cavity and the amount of blood loss can be significantly underestimated.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include sudden onset abdominal pain (which can be severe), variable vaginal bleeding, severe or continuous contractions, abdominal tenderness, and an enlarged, tense uterus. The foetus often shows signs of distress, such as reduced movements, increased or decreased fetal heart rate, decreased variability of fetal heart rate, and late decelerations.

      In contrast, placenta praevia is painless and the foetal heart is generally normal. The degree of obstetric shock is usually proportional to the amount of vaginal blood loss. Another clue that the cause of bleeding is placenta praevia rather than placental abruption is that the foetus may have an abnormal presentation or lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with occasional episodes of excessive sweating, rapid heartbeat, and a sense of panic and anxiety. He measured his blood pressure at home during one of these episodes and found it to be 190/110 mmHg. You measure it today and find it to be normal at 118/72 mmHg. He mentions that his brother has a similar condition, but he can't recall the name of it.

      What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Radioimmunoassay for urinary/plasma metanephrines

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that originates from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. There are also less common tumors called extra-adrenal paragangliomas, which develop in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system. Both types of tumors secrete catecholamines, leading to symptoms and signs associated with hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.

      The most common initial symptom is hypertension, which can be either sustained or paroxysmal. Other symptoms tend to be intermittent and can occur frequently or infrequently. As the disease progresses, these symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.

      In addition to hypertension, patients with phaeochromocytoma may experience the following clinical features: headache, profuse sweating, palpitations or rapid heartbeat, tremors, fever, nausea and vomiting, anxiety and panic attacks, a sense of impending doom, epigastric or flank pain, constipation, hypertensive retinopathy, postural hypotension due to volume contraction, cardiomyopathy, and café au lait spots.

      To confirm a suspected diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma, elevated levels of metanephrines (catecholamine metabolites) can be measured in the blood or urine. This can be done through methods such as a 24-hour urine collection for free catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrines, high-performance liquid chromatography for catecholamines in plasma and/or urine, or radioimmunoassay (RIA) for urinary/plasma metanephrines.

      Once the diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma is biochemically confirmed, imaging methods can be used to locate the tumor. The first imaging modality to be used is a CT scan, which has an overall sensitivity of 89%. An MRI scan is the most sensitive modality for identifying the tumor, especially in cases of extra-adrenal tumors or metastatic disease, with an overall sensitivity of 98%. In cases where CT or MRI does not show a tumor, a nuclear medicine scan such as MIBG scintigraphy can be useful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65 year old is brought to the emergency department due to confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old is brought to the emergency department due to confusion and mild fever. It is suspected that the patient has a urinary tract infection. The patient's family member informs you that the patient takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation but is unsure if they have taken it correctly due to confusion. An INR test is conducted and the result comes back as 8.2.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Give intravenous vitamin K 1 mg

      Correct Answer: Give vitamin K 1 mg by mouth

      Explanation:

      When the INR (International Normalized Ratio) is above 8 but there is no sign of bleeding, the usual approach is to stop administering warfarin and instead provide oral vitamin K. If the INR is below 8 and there is no evidence of bleeding, it is appropriate to discontinue warfarin. However, if there is evidence of bleeding or the INR exceeds 8, reversal agents are administered. In cases where the INR is greater than 8 without any bleeding, oral vitamin K is typically prescribed at a dosage of 1-5 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Management of High INR with Warfarin

      Major Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 5 mg.
      – Administer 25-50 u/kg four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate.
      – If prothrombin complex concentrate is not available, consider using fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
      – Seek medical attention promptly.

      INR > 8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
      – Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.

      INR > 8.0 without Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer oral vitamin K 1-5 mg using the intravenous preparation orally.
      – Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if any symptoms or concerns arise.

      INR 5.0-8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.

      INR 5.0-8.0 without Bleeding:
      – Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin.
      – Reduce subsequent maintenance dose.
      – Monitor INR closely and seek medical advice if any concerns arise.

      Note: In cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered as it is faster acting than fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes ago. She is currently using tissues to catch the drips and you have been asked to see her urgently by the triage nurse. Her vital signs are stable, and she has no signs of low blood pressure. You assess the patient and recommend applying firm pressure to the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose for at least 10 minutes.
      What is the most effective measure to help stop the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Lying the patient flat

      Correct Answer: Sucking an ice cube

      Explanation:

      When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.

      Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.

      First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
      1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
      2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
      3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
      4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
      5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.

      If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 12-year-old boy comes in with complaints of double vision. He is holding...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy comes in with complaints of double vision. He is holding his head tilted to the left-hand side. During the examination of his eye movements, it is observed that both eyes can look normally to the right, but on looking to the left, his left eye cannot turn outwards past the midline. The right eye is unaffected when looking to the left.
      Which muscle is the MOST likely to be involved in this case?

      Your Answer: Lateral rectus

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a condition called right-sided abducens nerve palsy, which means that their sixth cranial nerve is paralyzed. As a result, the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for moving the eye outward, is also paralyzed. This means that the patient’s right eye is unable to turn outward. This can lead to a condition called convergent strabismus, where the eyes are not aligned properly, and diplopia, which is double vision. To compensate for the double vision, patients often tilt their head towards the side of the paralyzed muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      49.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with overall fatigue and increased skin pigmentation. She has a history of bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's syndrome 10 years ago. During the examination of her visual fields, a bitemporal hemianopia is discovered.

      What is the MOST LIKELY single biochemical finding in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Raised free T4 levels

      Correct Answer: Elevated ACTH levels

      Explanation:

      Nelson’s syndrome is a rare condition that occurs many years after a bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome. It is believed to develop due to the loss of the normal negative feedback control that suppresses high cortisol levels. As a result, the hypothalamus starts producing CRH again, which stimulates the growth of a pituitary adenoma that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

      Only 15-20% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalectomy will develop this condition, and it is now rarely seen as the procedure is no longer commonly performed.

      The symptoms and signs of Nelson’s syndrome are related to the growth of the pituitary adenoma and the increased production of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) from the adenoma. These may include headaches, visual field defects (up to 50% of cases), increased skin pigmentation, and the possibility of hypopituitarism.

      ACTH levels will be significantly elevated (usually >500 ng/L). Thyroxine, TSH, gonadotrophin, and sex hormone levels may be low. Prolactin levels may be high, but not as high as with a prolactin-producing tumor. MRI or CT scanning can be helpful in identifying the presence of an expanding pituitary mass.

      The treatment of choice for Nelson’s syndrome is trans-sphenoidal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old woman originally from South Sudan has developed a chronic skin condition....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman originally from South Sudan has developed a chronic skin condition. She has widespread areas of both hyper- and hypopigmented skin along with areas of skin atrophy and lichenification. The hypopigmented areas are mostly confined to her forearms. Over the past few years, her vision has gradually deteriorated, and she has now been registered blind.
      What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Trichuris trichiura

      Correct Answer: Onchocerca volvulus

      Explanation:

      Onchocerciasis is a parasitic disease caused by the filarial nematode Onchocerca volvulus. It is transmitted through the bites of infected blackflies of Simulium species, which carry immature larval forms of the parasite from human to human.

      In the human body, the larvae form nodules in the subcutaneous tissue, where they mature to adult worms. After mating, the female adult worm can release up to 1000 microfilariae a day.

      Onchocerciasis is currently endemic in 30 African countries, Yemen, and a few isolated regions of South America. Approximately 37 million people worldwide are currently infected.

      Symptoms start to occur around a year after the patient is infected. The earliest symptom is usually an intensely itchy rash. Various skin manifestations occur, including scattered, red, pruritic papules (acute papular onchodermatitis), larger, chronic, hyperpigmented papules (chronic papular onchodermatitis), lichenified, oedematous, hyperpigmented papules and plaques (lichenified onchodermatitis), areas of skin atrophy with loss of elasticity (‘Lizard skin’), and depigmented areas with a ‘leopard skin appearance, usually on shins.

      Ocular involvement provides the common name associated with onchocerciasis, river blindness, and it can involve any part of the eye. Almost a million people worldwide have at least a partial degree of vision loss caused by onchocerciasis. Initially, there may be intense watering, foreign body sensation, and photophobia. This can progress to conjunctivitis, iridocyclitis, and chorioretinitis. Secondary glaucoma and optic atrophy may also occur.

      In a number of countries, onchocerciasis has been controlled through spraying of blackfly breeding sites with insecticide. The drug ivermectin is the preferred treatment for onchocerciasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her husband due to issues with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her husband due to issues with her memory. She was fine until a few hours ago but started experiencing symptoms right after engaging in sexual activity. She is currently restless and disoriented, frequently asking the same questions repeatedly. Her neurological exam is normal, and there are no indications of drug use or intoxication.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Intracranial haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a neurological condition where individuals experience a temporary loss of short-term memory. This disorder is commonly observed in individuals over the age of 50 and is often associated with migraines.

      The onset of TGA is typically sudden and can occur after engaging in strenuous exercise, sexual activity, or exposure to cold temperatures. These episodes usually last for a few hours and almost always resolve within 24 hours. One distinctive characteristic of TGA is perseveration, where patients repetitively ask the same question. Interestingly, once the episode has passed, individuals are unable to recall it.

      Unlike a transient ischemic attack, TGA does not result in any focal neurological deficits, and the patient’s physical examination will appear normal.

      On the other hand, a fugue state also involves temporary memory loss but presents differently. It is characterized by a loss of personal identity, past memories, and personality traits. Individuals experiencing a fugue state may even adopt entirely new identities and often engage in unplanned travel away from familiar surroundings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp chest pain over the past 24 hours. The patient reports that the pain worsens with deep inspiration and feels more comfortable when sitting leaning forward. When asked about pain radiation, the patient confirms that the pain extends to the left side of the neck and points to the ridge of the trapezius. Physical examination reveals clear lung fields, regular rhythm with quiet heart sounds, and no murmurs. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 94 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Correct Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Radiation to the trapezius ridge is a distinct symptom of acute pericarditis. The patient in question exhibits characteristics that align with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Pericarditis is a common condition affecting the pericardium, and it is often considered as a potential cause for chest pain. It is worth noting that the specific radiation of pain to the trapezius ridge is highly indicative of pericarditis, as it occurs when the phrenic nerve, which also innervates the trapezius muscle, becomes irritated while passing through the pericardium.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You admit a 65-year-old woman to the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a...

    Incorrect

    • You admit a 65-year-old woman to the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a fall at her assisted living facility. You can see from her notes that she has mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease. While writing up her drug chart, you note that there are some medications you are not familiar with.
      Which ONE of the following drugs is NOT recommended by NICE to improve cognition in patients suffering from Alzheimer’s disease?

      Your Answer: Aricept

      Correct Answer: Moclobemide

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, one of the recommended treatments for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease is the use of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. These inhibitors include Donepezil (Aricept), Galantamine, and Rivastigmine. They work by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function.

      On the other hand, Memantine is a different type of medication that acts by blocking NMDA-type glutamate receptors. It is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s disease who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to AChE inhibitors, or for those with severe Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 21 year old patient is brought into the emergency department with burns...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old patient is brought into the emergency department with burns to the left arm. The patient informs you that one of their friends had accidentally set their sleeve on fire with a lighter, causing the material to quickly burn and stick to their skin. The patient's entire left arm is burned, with the front part experiencing superficial partial thickness burns and the back part having areas of deep partial thickness and full thickness burns. What is the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient?

      Your Answer: 4.5%

      Correct Answer: 9%

      Explanation:

      To estimate the total body surface area of burn, we need to consider the rule of nines. This rule divides the body into different regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to the rule of nines, the left arm accounts for 9% of the total body surface area. Therefore, the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient is 9%.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are present at a trauma call for an elderly pedestrian who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are present at a trauma call for an elderly pedestrian who has been hit by a vehicle. She exhibits bruising on the right side of her chest. The primary survey has been conducted, and you have been tasked with conducting a secondary survey.
      As per the ATLS guidelines, which of the following would be considered a potentially life-threatening chest injury that should be identified and addressed during the SECONDARY survey?

      Your Answer: Massive haemothorax

      Correct Answer: Traumatic aortic disruption

      Explanation:

      The ATLS guidelines categorize chest injuries in trauma into two groups: life-threatening injuries that require immediate identification and treatment in the primary survey, and potentially life-threatening injuries that should be identified and treated in the secondary survey.

      During the primary survey, the focus is on identifying and treating life-threatening thoracic injuries. These include airway obstruction, tracheobronchial tree injury, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive haemothorax, and cardiac tamponade. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in order to prevent further deterioration and potential fatality.

      In the secondary survey, attention is given to potentially life-threatening injuries that may not be immediately apparent. These include simple pneumothorax, haemothorax, flail chest, pulmonary contusion, blunt cardiac injury, traumatic aortic disruption, traumatic diaphragmatic injury, and blunt oesophageal rupture. These injuries may not pose an immediate threat to life, but they still require identification and appropriate management to prevent complications and ensure optimal patient outcomes.

      By dividing chest injuries into these two categories and addressing them in a systematic manner, healthcare providers can effectively prioritize and manage trauma patients, ultimately improving their chances of survival and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her hiking guide following...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her hiking guide following a mountain hike. The guide informs you that the patient had been resting for a few minutes when the left side of her face drooped and her speech became incomprehensible. On examination, you observe dysphasia, a left-sided facial droop, and weakness of the left arm. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Pulse: 92 bpm
      Blood pressure: 128/80 mmHg
      Respiratory rate: 18 bpm
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on air
      Temperature: 36.9°C

      What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral for bubble contrast echocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber

      Explanation:

      Henry’s law describes the correlation between the quantity of dissolved gas in a liquid and its partial pressure above the liquid. According to Henry’s law, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid. In the case of nitrogen narcosis, as the patient descends deeper into the water, the pressure increases, causing more nitrogen to dissolve in the bloodstream. As the patient ascends, the pressure decreases, leading to a decrease in the amount of dissolved nitrogen and improvement in symptoms.

      Further Reading:

      Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.

      Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.

      Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.

      Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.

      Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.

      Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly consuming peanuts in a dish at a Thai eatery. She has a history of hypertension, but her blood pressure is effectively managed with a daily dose of atenolol 50 mg and amlodipine 5 mg. You have given her two injections of IM adrenaline, but her condition continues to worsen.
      Which of the following interventions is most likely to quickly improve her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM glucagon

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on beta-blockers may not respond effectively to adrenaline during anaphylaxis. Research conducted on animals and reported cases have indicated that glucagon can be utilized to counteract the effects of beta-blockade if initial adrenaline doses prove ineffective.

      Although prednisolone and hydrocortisone can be beneficial later on, it typically takes 6-8 hours for them to take full effect. Therefore, they are unlikely to have any impact on the patient during the brief period it will take for the ambulance to arrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Resus (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (1/2) 50%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Allergy (1/1) 100%
Passmed