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Question 1
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of cold intolerance, constipation, weight gain, hair loss, and irregular periods. Her thyroid function tests reveal low levels of both serum T4 and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Despite administering thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), there is no expected increase in TSH. What is the most probable reason for the patient's hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism
Explanation:Causes and Indicators of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by low levels of thyroid hormones in the body. There are several causes and indicators of hypothyroidism, including secondary hypothyroidism, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, iodine deficiency, tertiary hypothyroidism, and T4 receptor insensitivity.
Secondary hypothyroidism occurs when there is a pituitary defect or a hypothalamic defect, resulting in decreased levels of both serum T4 and serum TSH. A pituitary defect can be indicated by the failure of TSH to increase after injection of TRH.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that leads to primary hypothyroidism, with low serum T4 and increased levels of serum TSH.
Iodine deficiency causes hypothyroidism due to inadequate iodine being available for thyroid hormone production. TSH plasma levels are increased as a result of loss of negative feedback, similar to primary hypothyroidism.
Tertiary hypothyroidism, or a hypothalamic defect, is indicated by a normal to prolonged increase in TSH after injection of TRH.
T4 receptor insensitivity also presents with signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism. The negative feedback effects of T4 would also be affected, leading to increased serum TSH and increased serum T4 levels.
Overall, understanding the causes and indicators of hypothyroidism is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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What is a true statement about bariatric surgery?
Your Answer: Reduces cardiovascular mortality
Explanation:Bariatric Surgery for Obesity: Benefits, Risks, and Complications
Bariatric surgery is the most effective and long-lasting intervention for obesity, providing significant weight loss and resolution of associated health problems. The Swedish Obesity Study found that bariatric surgery reduced cardiovascular events and mortality rates for up to 15 years compared to standard care. While adolescents face social, psychological, and developmental challenges, they are not excluded from surgery, and some hospitals offer specialized programs for younger patients. Candidates for surgery typically have a body mass index (BMI) of 40 or higher, or a BMI of 35 or higher with serious co-morbidities such as sleep apnea or type 2 diabetes.
Post-operative mortality rates range from 0.1-2%, and the risk of complications is similar to other major abdominal surgeries. However, if complications do occur, there is a higher likelihood of intervention. The specific complications depend on the type of procedure used. For laparoscopic adjustable gastric band surgery, complications may include band slippage, erosion, infection, pouch dilation, band/tubing leak, and megaoesophagus. For laparoscopic roux en y gastric bypass, complications may include stomal stenosis, internal hernia, and malnutrition. For laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy, complications may include reflux, staple line leak, sleeve dilation, and weight gain. It is important for patients to understand the potential risks and benefits of bariatric surgery before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman without prior medical history visits her primary care physician complaining of hand pain and overall bone pain that has persisted for four weeks. She also reports experiencing pain in her groin that spreads to her lower back approximately 20 minutes before urination. Additionally, she has been experiencing frequent thirst despite drinking fluids regularly. Laboratory tests reveal hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metastatic carcinoma
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with hypercalcaemia, polydipsia, and renal calculus formation. This condition is typically caused by a parathyroid adenoma that secretes excess parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to increased osteoclastic activity and bone resorption. PTH also increases calcium absorption from the intestines and renal activation of vitamin D, further contributing to hypercalcaemia. Hypophosphataemia is a common feature of hyperparathyroidism due to the promotion of renal phosphate excretion by PTH.
Metastatic carcinoma and multiple myeloma are unlikely diagnoses for this patient as there is no evidence of malignancy in the patient’s history, and phosphate levels are typically normal or increased in these conditions. Secondary hyperparathyroidism, on the other hand, occurs as a compensatory mechanism for hypocalcaemia, which is not present in this patient. Chronic kidney disease is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is associated with reduced activation of vitamin D and impaired calcium absorption.
Overall, primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for this patient based on their symptoms and laboratory results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for his annual review. Despite following a diet plan, his glycaemic control is not optimal and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46). You decide to initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg bd. As per NICE NG28 guidelines for diabetes management, what is the recommended interval for rechecking his HbA1c after each intensification of treatment?
Your Answer: One to two months
Correct Answer: Three to six months
Explanation:HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control
The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glucose levels in the blood over a period of time. It reflects the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose, and there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of this molecule and average plasma glucose concentrations. This makes it a widely used tool in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control. Studies have also shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.
The life span of a red blood cell is 120 days, and HbA1c reflects the average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to re-check HbA1c with each treatment intensification at 3/6 monthly intervals. HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial in managing diabetes and reducing the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old patient with a history of phaeochromocytoma develops a neck mass. Resection of the neck mass demonstrates a multifocal tumour with haemorrhage, necrosis and spread outside the thyroid capsule. The tumour is composed of polygonal cells in nests. Amyloid deposits are seen in the intervening fibrovascular stroma.
What is the most likely secretion of the polygonal cells?Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Correct Answer: Calcitonin
Explanation:Hormones and Tumors: Understanding the Link
Calcitonin, PTH, TSH, T4, and T3 are hormones that can be produced by various tumors. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which can occur sporadically or as part of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) types IIa and IIb, is known for its local production of amyloid and secretion of calcitonin. PTH can be produced by parathyroid tumors, while PTH-related protein can be a paraneoplastic product of various tumors, including lung cancer. TSH is produced by pituitary adenomas, while T4 and T3 are produced by thyroid tumors composed of follicular cells. Understanding the link between hormones and tumors can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old professional athlete is being evaluated at the Endocrinology Clinic for presenting symptoms of low mood, decreased energy, and difficulty in preserving muscle mass. The patient also reports dry skin and hair loss. As part of the diagnostic process, the doctor requests a glucagon stimulation test.
What is elevated after the glucagon stimulation test?Your Answer: Cortisol
Correct Answer: C-peptide, cortisol and growth hormone
Explanation:Glucagon and Hormone Production: Effects on C-peptide, Cortisol, Growth Hormone, and TSH
Glucagon, a hormone produced by the pancreas, has various effects on hormone production in the body. One of these effects is the stimulation of insulin and C-peptide production. C-peptide is cleaved from proinsulin during insulin production, and its levels can be used to measure insulin secretion. Glucagon also indirectly stimulates cortisol production by causing the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) via the hypothalamus. Additionally, glucagon can stimulate growth hormone production, making it an alternative test for measuring growth hormone levels. However, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion is not affected by glucagon injection. Understanding the effects of glucagon on hormone production can aid in the diagnosis and management of various endocrine disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Through which of the following molecules is the hypercalcaemia of malignancy most commonly mediated?
Your Answer: Interleukin-6
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone related protein
Explanation:The Role of Parathyroid Hormone-Related Protein in Hypercalcaemia
Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP) is a group of protein hormones that are produced by various tissues in the body. Its discovery was made when it was found to be secreted by certain tumors, causing hypercalcaemia in affected patients. Further studies revealed that the uncontrolled secretion of PTHrP by many tumor cells leads to hypercalcaemia by promoting the resorption of calcium from bones and inhibiting calcium loss in urine, similar to the effects of hyperparathyroidism.
Overall, PTHrP plays a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body, and its overproduction can lead to serious health complications. the mechanisms behind PTHrP secretion and its effects on the body can aid in the development of treatments for hypercalcaemia and related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his high blood pressure despite being on medication. His current treatment includes atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, but his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, grade II hypertensive retinopathy is observed. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. What possible diagnosis should be considered as the cause of his resistant hypertension?
Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
Explanation:Primary Hyperaldosteronism and Resistant Hypertension
This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should typically increase their potassium concentration. Additionally, their potassium levels are low, which is a strong indication of primary hyperaldosteronism.
Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (known as Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. To diagnose this condition, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be difficult to manage, but identifying it early can help prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman with Addison's disease is currently taking hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening, but she has been struggling with poor compliance. She believes that the hydrocortisone is causing stomach upset and is interested in switching to enteric coated prednisolone. What would be the appropriate daily dose of prednisolone for her?
Your Answer: 10 mg daily
Correct Answer: 5 mg daily
Explanation:Glucocorticoid Therapy: Hydrocortisone vs. Prednisolone
Glucocorticoid therapy is a common treatment for various inflammatory conditions. Hydrocortisone and prednisolone are two commonly used glucocorticoids, but they differ in their potency and mineralocorticoid activity. Hydrocortisone has a relatively high mineralocorticoid activity, which can cause fluid retention and make it unsuitable for long-term disease suppression. However, it can be used for adrenal replacement therapy and emergency management of some conditions. Its moderate anti-inflammatory potency also makes it useful as a topical corticosteroid for managing inflammatory skin conditions with fewer side effects.
On the other hand, prednisolone and prednisone have predominantly glucocorticoid activity, making them the preferred choice for long-term disease suppression. Prednisolone is the most commonly used corticosteroid taken orally for this purpose. It is important to note that the approximate equivalent glucocorticoid action of prednisolone to hydrocortisone is 4:1. Therefore, the equivalent dose for 20 mg of hydrocortisone is roughly 5 mg per day of prednisolone.
In summary, the choice of glucocorticoid therapy depends on the specific condition being treated and the desired duration of treatment. Hydrocortisone is useful for short-term and emergency management, while prednisolone is preferred for long-term disease suppression. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate glucocorticoid therapy and dosage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department following a fall in the local supermarket. He is in an acute confusional state and unaccompanied, so a history is not available. Upon examination, the doctor noted digital clubbing and signs of a right-sided pleural effusion. The patient was euvolaemic.
Investigations:
Serum:
Na+ 114 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l)
K+ 3.6 mmol/l (3.5–5 mmol/l)
Urea 2.35 mmol/l (2.5–6.7 mmol/l)
Osmolality 255 mOsmol/kg (282–295 mOsm/kg)
Urine:
Osmolality 510 mOsmol/kg (raised)
Na+ 50 mmol/l (25–250 mmol/l, depending on hydration state)
Which of the following could be the diagnosis?Your Answer: Small cell lung cancer
Explanation:Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a common electrolyte disturbance that can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this case, the patient’s acute confusional state is likely due to significant hyponatraemia. The low serum urea level and osmolality suggest dilutional hyponatraemia, but the raised urine osmolality indicates continued secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), known as syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH).
SIADH can be associated with malignancy (such as small cell lung cancer), central nervous system disorders, drugs, and major surgery. In this patient’s case, the unifying diagnosis is small cell lung cancer causing SIADH. Digital clubbing also points towards a diagnosis of lung cancer.
Other conditions that can cause hyponatraemia include nephrotic syndrome, Addison’s disease, cystic fibrosis, and excessive diuretic therapy. However, these conditions have different biochemical profiles and clinical features.
Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyponatraemia and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to a psychiatrist with complaints of recent mood swings and increased irritability towards his spouse. He reports experiencing diarrhea, a significant increase in appetite, weight gain, and difficulty standing up from a seated position. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heartbeat is noted.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cushing’s disease
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Hyperthyroidism, Phaeochromocytoma, Cushing’s Syndrome and Cushing’s Disease, and Schizoaffective Disorder
Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. Symptoms include weight loss, increased appetite, heat intolerance, palpitations, and irritability. Signs include a fast heart rate, tremors, and thin hair. Graves’ disease, a type of hyperthyroidism, may also cause eye problems. Diagnosis is made through blood tests that show elevated thyroid hormones and low thyroid-stimulating hormone levels. Treatment options include medications like beta-blockers and carbimazole, radioiodine therapy, or surgery.
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumor that causes excessive production of adrenaline and noradrenaline. Symptoms include high blood pressure, palpitations, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment involves surgical removal of the tumor.
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by high levels of cortisol in the body. Symptoms include weight gain, mood changes, fatigue, and easy bruising. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment options include surgery, radiation therapy, and medications.
Cushing’s disease is a type of Cushing’s syndrome caused by a pituitary tumor that produces too much adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Symptoms are similar to those of Cushing’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through blood and urine tests, as well as imaging studies. Treatment options include surgery, radiation therapy, and medications.
Schizoaffective disorder is a mental illness that combines symptoms of schizophrenia and mood disorders like depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and mood swings. Treatment involves a combination of medications and therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a neck nodule that she has observed for the past month. Upon examination, a non-painful 3.5 cm nodule is found on the right side of her neck, located deep to the lower half of the right sternocleidomastoid. The nodule moves upwards when she swallows, and no other masses are palpable in her neck. What is the nature of this mass?
Your Answer: Branchial cyst
Correct Answer: Thyroid nodule
Explanation:Thyroid Nodule and its Investigation
A thyroid nodule is suspected in this patient due to the movement observed during swallowing. The possible causes of a thyroid nodule include colloid cyst, adenoma, and carcinoma. To investigate this lesion, the most appropriate method would be fine needle aspiration. This procedure involves inserting a thin needle into the nodule to collect a sample of cells for examination under a microscope. Fine needle aspiration is a minimally invasive and safe procedure that can provide valuable information about the nature of the thyroid nodule. It can help determine whether the nodule is benign or malignant, and guide further management and treatment options. Therefore, if a thyroid nodule is suspected, fine needle aspiration should be considered as the first step in the diagnostic process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy was diagnosed with Reifenstein syndrome. He had hypospadias, micropenis and small testes in the scrotum.
What would be the next course of treatment?Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Testosterone replacement
Explanation:Management of Reifenstein Syndrome: Hormonal and Surgical Options
Reifenstein syndrome is a rare X-linked genetic disease that results in partial androgen insensitivity. In phenotypic males with this condition, testosterone replacement therapy is recommended to increase the chances of fertility. However, if the patient had been raised as a female and chose to continue this way, oestrogen replacement therapy would be appropriate. Surgical management may be necessary if the patient has undescended testes, but in this case, orchidectomy is not indicated as the patient has small testes in the scrotum. While psychological counselling is always necessary, it is not the first line of treatment. Overall, the management of Reifenstein syndrome involves a combination of hormonal and surgical options tailored to the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the past six months. She recently experienced moderate vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Additionally, she has gained around 14 pounds in weight during this time. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Secondary Amenorrhea and Miscarriage: A Possible Sign of Pregnancy
Secondary amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months in women who have previously had regular cycles, can be a sign of pregnancy. In cases where a patient with secondary amenorrhea experiences a miscarriage, it is important to consider the possibility of pregnancy. This information is highlighted in the book Williams Gynecology, 4th edition, authored by Barbara L. Hoffman, John O. Schorge, Lisa M. Halvorson, Cherine A. Hamid, Marlene M. Corton, and Joseph I. Schaffer.
The authors emphasize the importance of considering pregnancy as a possible cause of secondary amenorrhea, especially in cases where a miscarriage has occurred. This highlights the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in their assessment of patients with secondary amenorrhea and to consider pregnancy as a possible diagnosis. Early detection of pregnancy can help ensure appropriate prenatal care and management, which can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
In conclusion, secondary amenorrhea followed by a miscarriage should raise suspicion of pregnancy. Healthcare providers should be aware of this possibility and consider pregnancy as a potential diagnosis in patients with secondary amenorrhea. Early detection and appropriate management of pregnancy can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At her annual check-up, she reports that she is feeling well. Among the results of her blood tests are the following: serum calcium 2.90 mmol/l (2.1–2.8 mmol/l), serum phosphate 0.80 mmol/l (1.0–1.5 mmol/l) and alkaline phosphatase 215 iu/l (53–128 iu/l).
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of these results in this woman?Your Answer: Paget's disease of bone
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for hypercalcaemia with hypophosphataemia and normal alkaline phosphatase
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a common cause of hypercalcaemia, often detected incidentally on routine blood tests. In this condition, the parathyroid glands produce excessive amounts of parathyroid hormone, which increases calcium reabsorption from bones and kidneys and decreases phosphate reabsorption from kidneys. As a result, patients may have elevated serum calcium and low serum phosphate levels, but normal or slightly elevated alkaline phosphatase levels.
Other possible causes of hypercalcaemia with hypophosphataemia and normal alkaline phosphatase include occult malignancy, especially if it involves bone, but this would usually result in a higher alkaline phosphatase level. Paget’s disease of bone, a chronic disorder of bone remodeling, may also cause hypercalcaemia, but it typically presents with a much higher alkaline phosphatase level as a marker of bone destruction.
Thyrotoxicosis, a condition of excess thyroid hormone, can also lead to hypercalcaemia, but this patient has no symptoms suggestive of hyperthyroidism. Phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor of the adrenal gland that secretes catecholamines, may cause hypertension, but it is not typically associated with hypercalcaemia or hypophosphataemia.
Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which may be part of a multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 2 syndrome that also involves the thyroid gland and adrenal medulla. Further evaluation, including imaging studies and genetic testing, may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and guide management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents with galactorrhoea. She has a history of schizophrenia and depression and takes various medications. She also reports not having a menstrual period for the past four months. During examination, a small amount of galactorrhoea is expressed from both breasts, but no other abnormalities are found. The following investigations are conducted: Prolactin levels are at 820 mU/L (50-550), 17β-oestradiol levels are at 110 pmol/L (130-550), LH levels are at 2.8 mU/L (3-10), FSH levels are at 2.7 mU/L (3-15), T4 levels are at 14.1 pmol/L (10-22), and TSH levels are at 0.65 mU/L (0.4-5). What is the probable cause of her galactorrhoea?
Your Answer: Pregnancy
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Hyperprolactinaemia and Hypogonadism in a Female with Schizophrenia
This female patient is experiencing galactorrhoea and has an elevated prolactin concentration, along with a low oestradiol concentration and a low-normal luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Pregnancy can be ruled out due to the low oestradiol concentration. The cause of hyperprolactinaemia and subsequent hypogonadism is likely drug-induced, as the patient is a chronic schizophrenic and is likely taking antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or newer atypicals like olanzapine. These drugs act as dopamine antagonists and can cause hyperprolactinaemia.
It is important to note that hyperprolactinaemia can cause hypogonadism, and in this case, it is likely due to the patient’s medication. Other side effects of these drugs include extrapyramidal, Parkinson-like effects, and dystonias. It is crucial for healthcare providers to consider the potential side effects of medications when treating patients with chronic conditions such as schizophrenia. Proper monitoring and management of these side effects can improve the patient’s quality of life and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female with a BMI of 35 presents with heavy and irregular menstrual bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:PCOS Diagnosis with Oligomenorrhoea, Menorrhagia, and Obesity
When a woman experiences both oligomenorrhoea (infrequent periods) and menorrhagia (heavy periods) while also being obese, it is highly likely that she has polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). To confirm the diagnosis, at least two of three diagnostic criteria must be met. These criteria include the appearance of cysts on an ultrasound, oligomenorrhoea, and hyperandrogenism (excess male hormones). By meeting two of these criteria, a woman can be diagnosed with PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman, without past medical history, is referred by her General Practitioner to a Lipid Clinic. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 29 kg/m2. She has a background history of sleep apnoea and complains of weight gain, fatigue and constipation.
On examination, you notice that her skin is dry and she has scalp hair loss. Her laboratory results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Total cholesterol 8.2 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Low density-lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l < 3.5 mmol/l
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol 1.8 mmol/l > 1.0 mmol/l
Triglycerides 1.2 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Measure thyroid-stimulating hormone and free T4
Explanation:Management of Hypercholesterolemia in a Patient with Suspected Hypothyroidism
To manage hypercholesterolemia in a patient with suspected hypothyroidism, it is important to confirm the diagnosis of hypothyroidism first. Blood tests for thyroid function, specifically thyroid-stimulating hormone and free T4, should be conducted. If hypothyroidism is confirmed, it should be treated accordingly.
Statin therapy, such as atorvastatin, is the first-line pharmacological agent for managing hypercholesterolemia. However, in this case, potential hypothyroidism needs to be treated first before starting statin therapy. If high cholesterol levels persist after treating hypothyroidism, a statin therapy can be started, and fibrate therapy can be added if necessary.
While dietary and lifestyle advice is important, it is unlikely to address the underlying problems in this case. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm and treat hypothyroidism before managing hypercholesterolemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of excessive sweating, palpitations, and weight loss. She now complains of a headache. On examination, her blood pressure is 230/130 mmHg, with a postural drop to 180/110 mmHg. She has a bounding pulse of 115 bpm, a tremor, and appears pale. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which hormone is most likely responsible for her symptoms and signs?
Your Answer: Thyroxine
Correct Answer: Catecholamines
Explanation:Explanation of Hormones and their Role in Hypertension
The patient’s symptoms suggest a rare tumour called phaeochromocytoma, which secretes catecholamines and causes malignant hypertension. Excess cortisol production in Cushing’s syndrome can also cause hypertension, but it does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Renin abnormalities can lead to hypertension, but it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hyperaldosteronism can also cause hypertension, but it does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Although hyperthyroidism can explain most of the patient’s symptoms, it is less likely to cause severe hypertension or headaches. Therefore, the patient’s symptoms are most likely due to the secretion of catecholamines from the phaeochromocytoma tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Correct
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At a routine occupational health check, a 30-year-old man is found to have mild hypercalcaemia. He is anxious because the problem failed to resolve in his father, despite neck surgery. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are low.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH)
Explanation:Differentiating Hypercalcaemia Causes: A Comparison
Hypercalcaemia can be caused by various conditions, including familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia (FHH), primary hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcaemia of malignancy. To differentiate these causes, 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels are measured.
In FHH, urinary calcium excretion levels are low, while in primary hyperparathyroidism, they are elevated. Sarcoidosis can also cause hypercalcaemia, but with elevated urinary calcium excretion levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcaemia. Lastly, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is characterized by elevated urinary calcium excretion levels.
Therefore, measuring 24-hour urinary calcium excretion levels is crucial in determining the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled flinging movements of the right arm that ceased during sleep. What could be the probable cause?
Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Correct Answer: Contralateral subthalamic nucleus infarction
Explanation:Hemiballismus and its Causes
Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by involuntary flinging motions of the extremities, which can be violent and continuous. It usually affects only one side of the body and can involve proximal, distal, or facial muscles. The movements worsen with activity and decrease with relaxation. This condition is caused by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, which results in decreased suppression of involuntary movements.
Hemiballismus can be caused by a variety of factors, including strokes, traumatic brain activity, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, hyperglycemia, malignancy, vascular malformations, tuberculomas, and demyelinating plaques. In patients with diabetes, it is likely due to a vascular event in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus.
Treatment for hemiballismus should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause. If pharmacological treatment is necessary, an antidopaminergic such as haloperidol or chlorpromazine may be used. Other options include topiramate, intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin, and tetrabenazine. In cases where other treatments have failed, functional neurosurgery may be an option.
In summary, hemiballismus is a condition that causes involuntary flinging motions of the extremities and can be caused by various factors. Treatment should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause, and pharmacological and surgical options may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of sweating, tremors, and palpitations that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. The patient is currently 7 months pregnant and has no significant medical history. Upon examination, the patient has bulging eyes, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and a small goitre. The following laboratory results were obtained:
- Free T4: 42 pmol/l (normal range: 11-22 pmol/l)
- Free T3: 16 pmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5 pmol/l)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH): <0.01 µU/l (normal range: 0.17-3.2 µU/l)
- TSH receptor antibody (TRAb): 20 U/l (normal range: <0.9 U/l)
What treatment should be recommended for this patient?Your Answer: Carbimazole
Explanation:The patient is showing signs of an overactive thyroid, likely due to Graves’ disease. Propranolol can provide temporary relief, but long-term treatment involves blocking the thyroid gland with carbimazole or replacing thyroid hormones with thyroxine. Ibuprofen is not indicated for this condition. Tri-iodothyronine is more potent than thyroxine but less stable, making thyroxine the preferred hormone replacement medication. Propylthiouracil can also be used to block thyroid hormone formation, but its use in the first trimester of pregnancy is avoided due to potential teratogenic effects. PTU can be used in pregnancy, but only at the lowest effective dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visited her GP with complaints of low mood, weight gain, and irregular menstrual cycles. The GP conducted some tests and referred her to the hospital. The results of the investigations are as follows:
- Sodium: 150 mmol/l (normal value: 135-145 mmol/l)
- Potassium: 2.5 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Fasting blood glucose: 7.7 mmol/l (normal value: <7 mmol/l)
- 24-hour urinary cortisol excretion: 840 nmol/24 h
- Plasma ACTH (0900 h): 132 ng/l (normal value: 0-50 ng/l)
- Dexamethasone suppression test:
- 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 0.5 mg/6 h orally (po) for two days: 880 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).
- 0800 h serum cortisol after dexamethasone 2 mg/6 h PO for two days: 875 nmol/l (<50 nmol/l).
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 28-year-old woman?Your Answer: Cushing’s disease
Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndrome Secondary to Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung Causing Cushing Syndrome
Cushing syndrome is a clinical state resulting from chronic glucocorticoid excess and lack of normal feedback mechanisms of the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis. While Cushing’s disease, paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung, and adrenocortical tumor are specific conditions resulting in Cushing syndrome, this patient’s symptoms are caused by paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell carcinoma of the lung.
In some cases of small cell carcinoma of the lung, ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) production occurs, leading to elevated plasma ACTH and cortisol levels. The mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol results in sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to glucose intolerance and hyperglycemia. The differentiation between Cushing’s disease and ectopic ACTH secretion is made by carrying out low- and high-dose dexamethasone suppression tests. In cases of ectopic ACTH secretion, there is usually no response to dexamethasone, as pituitary ACTH secretion is already maximally suppressed by high plasma cortisol levels.
The absence of response to dexamethasone suggests an ectopic source of ACTH production, rather than Cushing’s disease. Other differential diagnoses for Cushing syndrome include adrenal neoplasia, Conn’s syndrome, and premature menopause. However, in this case, the blood test results suggest ectopic production of ACTH, indicating paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to small cell lung carcinoma as the most likely cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old male is seeking treatment for hypertension related to his type 2 diabetes. He is currently taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently high at around 160/92 mmHg.
What medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes Patients
Patients with type 2 diabetes who have inadequately controlled hypertension should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, which is the preferred antihypertensive medication for diabetes. Combining an ACE inhibitor with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine can also be effective. However, beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is a medication used specifically for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is reserved for cases where other medications have failed to control blood pressure. If blood pressure control is still insufficient with ramipril and amlodipine, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the treatment plan.
It is important to note that hypertension management in diabetic patients requires careful consideration of medication choices and potential interactions. Consulting with a healthcare provider is crucial to ensure safe and effective treatment. Further reading on this topic can be found in the Harvard Medical School’s article on medications for treating hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic for his yearly check-up and expresses worry about osteoporosis. He has questions about bone formation and calcium homeostasis, and you explain the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in regulating calcium levels.
Which of the following statements about PTH is accurate?Your Answer: It causes a decrease in serum calcium
Correct Answer: It causes indirect osteoclastic activation via RANK-L
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone (PTH) indirectly activates osteoclasts by increasing the production of RANK-L by osteoblasts. This leads to bone degradation and the release of calcium. PTH also decreases the release of osteoprotegerin, which is a decoy receptor for RANK-L. This further enhances osteoclast activity and bone degradation. Additionally, PTH causes a decrease in serum calcium by promoting calcium release from bone. It also enhances renal phosphate excretion by decreasing phosphate reabsorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A teenager comes to see you in general practice with a swelling in the region of their throat. They are worried because they have read about an extremely invasive cancer which is difficult to treat.
Which of the following is the patient referring to?Your Answer: Medullary thyroid cancer
Correct Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer
Explanation:Types of Thyroid Cancer and Their Prognosis
Thyroid cancer is a type of cancer that affects the thyroid gland, a small butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck. There are different types of thyroid cancer, each with its own characteristics and prognosis.
Anaplastic thyroid cancer is a rare but aggressive form of thyroid cancer that mostly affects the elderly. It presents as a hard mass within the thyroid and is responsible for a significant number of deaths from thyroid cancer.
Follicular thyroid cancer is the second most common type of thyroid cancer. Although it is more aggressive than papillary thyroid cancer, it still has a good prognosis.
Medullary thyroid cancer originates from the thyroid C cells and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve the prognosis.
Thyroid lymphoma is a rare form of lymphoma that affects the thyroid gland. It has a good prognosis with proper treatment.
Papillary thyroid cancer is the most common type of thyroid cancer, occurring mostly in people between the ages of 25 and 50. It presents as an irregular mass arising from a normal thyroid and has a good prognosis.
In summary, understanding the different types of thyroid cancer and their prognosis can help with early detection and treatment, leading to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Correct
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What is the accurate description of growth hormone (GH) and its role in normal growth?
Your Answer: It stimulates cartilage and bone growth via somatomedin C
Explanation:Functions and Characteristics of Growth Hormone
Growth hormone (GH) plays a crucial role in stimulating cartilage and bone growth through the production of somatomedin C, also known as insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). While GH has direct effects throughout the body, its receptors have a limited distribution outside the central nervous system (CNS). GH is secreted in a pulsatile manner, with its concentration peaking during sleep. The synthesis of GH is stimulated by the action of somatostatin, which inhibits its release and is sometimes referred to as ‘growth hormone-inhibiting hormone’. In addition to its other actions, GH has a proinsulin-like effect, which is in contrast to its anti-insulin-like effects, such as promoting gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with pruritus and lethargy. His serum biochemistry results show low calcium, high phosphate, and raised parathyroid hormone levels. His blood test results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 15.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 590 μmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Chronic renal failure due to hypertension
Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism in a Patient with Chronic Renal Failure
Secondary hyperparathyroidism can occur in patients with chronic renal failure due to imbalances in phosphorus and calcium levels. In this case, the patient has hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia, leading to overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid gland.
Loop diuretic overuse can also affect PTH levels, but it would result in additional electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia and hypokalemia. The role of hypertension in causing chronic renal failure is unclear in this patient.
Primary hyperparathyroidism, where the parathyroid gland overproduces PTH resulting in high serum calcium, is not present in this case. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which occurs after a chronic period of secondary hyperparathyroidism and results in dysregulation of calcium homeostasis and high serum calcium levels, is also not present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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What is the joint that is most frequently impacted by diabetic Charcot's?
Your Answer: Tarsometatarsal joints
Explanation:Charcot’s Joint: A Destructive Process Affecting Weight-Bearing Joints
Charcot’s joint is a condition that primarily affects the weight-bearing joints in the extremities, including the feet, ankles, knees, and hips. The most commonly affected joints are the tarsometatarsal and metatarsophalangeal joints, as well as the ankle. This condition is characterized by a destructive process that can lead to joint deformity and instability.
Patients with Charcot’s joint typically have decreased sensation in the affected area and peripheral neuropathy. The most common cause of peripheral neuropathy is diabetes, which has a high affinity for the joints in the foot. Other causes of peripheral neuropathy, such as leprosy, syringomyelia, and tabes dorsalis, are much less common.
Charcot’s joint can be a debilitating condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent joint deformity and instability. Treatment may include immobilization, orthotics, and surgery in severe cases. With proper management, patients with Charcot’s joint can maintain mobility and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a three month history of weight gain. During this time her weight has increased from 56 kg to 81 kg.
She works as a teacher and was in a long-term relationship until three months ago. Following the break-up, she started to drink more and her meals became erratic. She has been recently diagnosed with anxiety. In addition, she recently broke her left ankle after falling while hiking.
Her regular medications now include sertraline, vitamin D, and a benzoyl peroxide gel for acne.
What is the next best test?Your Answer: Blood for TSH
Correct Answer: Blood for midnight cortisol
Explanation:Screening for Cushing’s Syndrome
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome, including acne, weight gain, depression, and brittle bones. The most appropriate screening test for this condition is a midnight cortisol level in the blood or a 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. While a dexamethasone suppression test can also be used, a single midnight cortisol level has the same sensitivity and is easier to administer.
It is important to note that morning cortisol levels are more appropriate for diagnosing Addison’s disease. Additionally, while morning cortisol levels are used after a dexamethasone suppression test, the upper limit of normal is not well-defined, unlike the lower limit of normal. Therefore, levels below 550 ng/ml may indicate steroid insufficiency, but high levels cannot provide specific information.
While hypothyroidism may explain some of the patient’s symptoms, a TSH test is not the best option for screening for Cushing’s syndrome. Similarly, while blood sugar levels may be abnormal in this case, they will not aid in diagnosing the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Given the severity of the patient’s symptoms, it is important to take action and screen for Cushing’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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