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  • Question 1 - A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort and bloating. She also reports having episodes of diarrhea with mucous in her stool, but no blood. The pain tends to worsen after meals and improve after having a bowel movement. Despite her symptoms, she has not experienced any weight loss and maintains a healthy appetite. She has undergone surgery for osteoarthritis in her hip, but has no other significant medical history.
      Upon investigation, the patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease. What is the most likely complication this patient may develop?

      Your Answer: Colovesical fistulae

      Explanation:

      Complications and Associations of Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a condition that can lead to various complications. One of the most common complications is the formation of fistulae, which are abnormal connections between different organs. The most frequent type of fistula associated with diverticular disease is the colovesical fistula, which connects the colon and the bladder. Other types of fistulae include colovaginal, colouterine, and coloenteric. Colocutaneous fistulae, which connect the colon and the skin, are less common.

      Diverticular disease does not increase the risk of developing colorectal carcinoma, a type of cancer that affects the bowel. However, it can cause other symptoms such as haemorrhoids, which are not directly related to the condition. Anal fissure, another medical condition that affects the anus, is not associated with diverticular disease either. Instead, it is linked to other conditions such as HIV, tuberculosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and syphilis.

      In summary, diverticular disease can lead to various complications and associations, but it is not a pre-malignant condition and does not directly cause haemorrhoids or anal fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      83.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in bowel habit towards constipation arrives in the Emergency Department with a tender, distended abdomen. She has also been suffering with a chest infection recently and has known chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4. Bowel sounds are absent. The rectum is empty on examination. Abdominal X-ray reveals distended loops of large bowel, consistent with large bowel obstruction.
      Which one of these investigations should be performed next?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of the abdomen

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin®

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Diagnostic Procedures for Bowel Obstruction in CKD Patients

      Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin® is a safe and effective diagnostic tool for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who present with bowel obstruction. This oral contrast medium provides crucial diagnostic information without posing a significant risk of renal injury. It is important to differentiate between large bowel obstruction and pseudo-obstruction, which can be achieved through imaging studies. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is not indicated in the absence of trauma. Gastroscopy is not necessary as the issue is bowel obstruction, and an ultrasound would not provide the level of detail needed. While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can provide quality images, a CT scan is more readily available and can be organized faster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal cancer. His father passed away from the disease at the age of 35, and the patient is worried about his own risk. He has no knowledge of any other cancer in his family.
      What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange FBCs, UEs and LFTs and review if abnormal

      Correct Answer: Arrange colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Importance of Colonoscopy in Patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

      Explanation:
      It is crucial to consider familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) in patients with a family history of colorectal cancer at a young age. FAP is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene, leading to the development of numerous polyps in the colon. If left untreated, patients with FAP develop colorectal cancer by the age of 35-40.

      In this scenario, the patient’s father likely had FAP, and the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and developing the disease. Therefore, regardless of the patient’s symptoms or blood results, a colonoscopy is necessary to review the colon and identify any polyps. Treatment for FAP involves a total colectomy at around the age of 20.

      Reassurance would be inappropriate in this scenario, and a digital rectal examination alone is not sufficient. It is essential to arrange a colonoscopy for patients with a family history of FAP to detect and treat the condition early. Additionally, it is recommended to review the patient with a view to colonoscopy at the age of 30 to monitor for any polyp development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      74.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack in the past 2 years. He admits to intermittent dark red blood loss per rectum (PR) and diarrhoea. He generally has a poor diet and dislikes fruit and vegetables. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 °C and a tachycardia of 95 bpm, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; his body mass index is 32. There is well-localised left iliac fossa tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l (N 11.0) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 64 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colonic carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Diverticulitis from Other Colonic Conditions in Older Adults

      Diverticulitis is a common condition in older adults, characterized by recurrent attacks of lower abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the left lower quadrant. It is associated with increasing age and a diet poor in soluble fiber. Left-sided involvement is more common due to increased intraluminal pressures. Management is usually conservative with antibiotics, but surgery may be necessary in 15-25% of cases. Complications include bowel obstruction, perforation, fistula formation, and abscess formation.

      Colonic cancer, on the other hand, presents with insidious symptoms such as loss of appetite, weight loss, and rectal bleeding, especially if left-sided. Late presentations may cause bowel obstruction or disseminated disease. Inflammatory bowel disease is less common in older adults and would present differently. Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause periodic fevers and has a different pattern of pain. Gastroenteritis is usually viral and self-limiting, unlike diverticulitis. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      79.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain. She is currently receiving peritoneal dialysis, and the physician suspects that she may be suffering from peritonitis.
      What is the most indicative sign or symptom of peritonitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peritonitis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the serosa that lines the abdominal cavity and viscera. It is commonly caused by the introduction of an infective organism, perforation of an abdominal organ, trauma, or collection formation. Patients may also present with sterile peritonitis due to irritants such as bile or blood. Risk factors include existing ascites, liver disease, or peritoneal dialysis.

      Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, with reduced or absent bowel sounds. Movement and coughing can worsen pain symptoms. Patients may have a fever and become tachycardic as the condition progresses due to intracapsular hypovolemia, release of inflammatory mediators, and third space losses. As the condition worsens, patients may become hypotensive, indicating signs of sepsis.

      Treatment for peritonitis involves rapid identification and treatment of the source, aggressive fluid resuscitation, and targeted antibiotic therapy.

      It is important to note that hyperactive tinkling bowel sounds are suggestive of obstruction, whereas patients with peritonitis typically present with a rigid abdomen and increased abdominal guarding. Pain tends to worsen with movement, as opposed to conditions such as renal colic where the patient may writhe around in pain.

      In severe cases, patients with peritonitis may become hypothermic, but this is not a common presentation. Understanding the symptoms and treatment of peritonitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain. The pain started yesterday and is increasing in intensity. She has had loose stools for a few days and has been feeling nauseated. She has not vomited. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, there is tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bloods: haemoglobin (Hb) 116 g/l; white cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticulosis

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Diverticulitis is a condition where small pouches in the bowel wall become inflamed, often due to blockages. This is more common in older individuals and can cause symptoms such as fever, nausea, and abdominal pain. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and rest, but surgery may be necessary in severe cases. It is important to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions, such as colorectal cancer, with lower gastrointestinal endoscopy. In contrast, Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are less likely diagnoses in a 75-year-old patient without prior gastrointestinal history. Diverticulosis, the presence of these pouches without inflammation, is often asymptomatic and more common in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      35.2
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old medical student presents with a 2-month history of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old medical student presents with a 2-month history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has no family history of bowel conditions, has not traveled recently, and has no sick contacts. During colonoscopy, seven polyps measuring <5 mm in diameter are found proximal to the sigmoid colon and removed for further analysis. Which of the following conditions linked to bowel polyps is considered non-hereditary?

      Your Answer: Peutz–Jeghers syndrome

      Correct Answer: Serrated polyposis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Overview of Hereditary Colorectal Polyp Disorders

      Hereditary colorectal polyp disorders are a group of genetic conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer. These disorders are caused by various genetic defects and are inherited in different patterns. Here are some of the most common hereditary colorectal polyp disorders:

      1. Serrated Polyposis Syndrome: This condition is characterized by the presence of numerous serrated and/or hyperplastic polyps in the colon and rectum. It is not associated with any specific genetic defect and is linked to an increased risk of colorectal cancer.

      2. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP): FAP is an autosomal dominant condition that causes the development of hundreds or thousands of adenomatous polyps in the colon. These polyps have a high risk of malignant transformation, and patients with FAP are likely to develop colorectal cancer if left untreated.

      3. Lynch Syndrome: Also known as hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, Lynch syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer and other malignancies, including breast, stomach, endometrial, and urinary tract cancers.

      4. Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome: This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by the development of gastrointestinal hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaneous hyperpigmentation. Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing colorectal, breast, liver, and lung cancers.

      5. Gardner Syndrome: Gardner syndrome is a subtype of FAP that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterized by the development of numerous colorectal polyps and extracolonic manifestations such as desmoids, osteomas, and epidermoid cysts. Prophylactic surgery is the mainstay of treatment for patients with Gardner syndrome.

      In conclusion, hereditary colorectal polyp disorders are a group of genetic conditions that increase the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Early detection and management are crucial in preventing the development of cancer in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      65.1
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa. Upon examination, local peritonitis is observed. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count. He has no prior history of abdominal disease, but he does have a history of atrial fibrillation. Pain worsens after eating and is alleviated by defecation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute small bowel ischaemia

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Localised Peritonitis and Left Iliac Fossa Pain

      Diverticular Disease:
      Diverticular disease is a common cause of localised peritonitis and left iliac fossa pain, especially in the elderly. It occurs due to the herniation of the intestinal mucosa through the muscle, forming an outpouching. Patients with diverticulitis present with slow-onset, constant pain, usually in the left iliac fossa, exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation. Acute diverticulitis can cause severe sepsis by rupture of a diverticulum and abscess formation or obstruction of the bowel. Diverticular disease can also cause bleeding per rectum. Conservative management includes increasing fluid intake, fibre in the diet, bulk-forming laxatives, and paracetamol to ease the pain.

      Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm:
      A ruptured aortic aneurysm presents with central abdominal pain, a pulsatile abdominal mass, and shock due to the volume of blood loss. It is associated with 100% mortality if not treated promptly.

      Splenic Infarct:
      A splenic infarct presents with acute pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, referred to the shoulder, and is more commonly seen in patients with haematological conditions such as sickle-cell disease.

      Ureteric Colic:
      Ureteric colic presents with characteristic loin-to-groin pain that has an intermittent colicky nature, with acute exacerbations. It can present in either iliac fossa, but it would not cause localised peritonitis.

      Acute Small Bowel Ischaemia:
      Acute small bowel ischaemia presents with an acute central or right-sided abdominal pain that is increasingly worsening, has no localising signs, and presents as generalised abdominal tenderness or distension. The patient is very unwell, with varying symptoms, including vomiting, diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, sepsis, and confusion. A highly raised serum/blood gas lactate level that does not drop following initial resuscitation attempts is a clue. It requires prompt treatment due to its high mortality risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      39.1
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  • Question 9 - A 71-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding. The blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding. The blood is not mixed in with the stool and is noticed on the paper after defecation. She has been becoming more constipated over the last 6 months; however, she reports no weight loss or change in dietary habits. There is a past medical history of haemorrhoids 10 years ago, which were treated with creams. On examination, she appears well. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, without organomegaly. Rectal examination reveals two third-degree haemorrhoids. She is anxious because her father died 15 years ago from colorectal cancer.
      What is the gold standard investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Barium enema

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Colorectal Cancer Investigations: Colonoscopy, CT Colonography, Barium Enema, Flexible Sigmoidoscopy, and Proctoscopy

      When a patient has a first-degree relative with colorectal carcinoma or reports persistent and progressive changes in bowel habits, investigations are necessary to detect any malignancy. While haemorrhoids may be the cause of bleeding, the presence of a coexisting lesion cannot be excluded without further investigation.

      Colonoscopy is the gold standard investigation for suspected colorectal cancer, allowing for examination of the large bowel and removal of suspicious lesions. CT colonography is a second-line alternative for patients unable to undergo a full colonoscopy, while a barium enema may be considered for those unable to complete colonoscopy.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy views the rectum, sigmoid colon, and distal descending colon, but does not provide information about the more proximal colon. Proctoscopy allows views of the rectum but does not provide information about lesions found further along the bowel.

      In summary, early detection of colorectal cancer is crucial, and these investigations play a vital role in identifying and treating the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      26.2
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  • Question 10 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and fever, associated with vomiting. Following examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of acute appendicitis and refers the patient to the surgical assessment unit at the local hospital. With regard to acute appendicitis, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: It can result in thrombosis of the appendicular artery (endarteritis obliterans)

      Explanation:

      Appendicitis is a common condition that occurs when the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. It can be caused by obstruction of the appendix, usually by a faecolith, leading to the build-up of mucinous secretions and subsequent infection. Alternatively, pressure within the closed system can compress the superficial veins and eventually lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery, resulting in ischaemic necrosis and gangrene. Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 10 and 30 years, and conservative management is rarely effective. Without treatment, appendicitis can progress to perforation and generalised peritonitis, which can be life-threatening. The pain associated with appendicitis is initially referred to the epigastric region and later localises to the right iliac fossa. Surgical intervention is almost always required, except in the case of an appendix mass or abscess, where removal is advised after an interval of 6-8 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient is admitted with severe abdominal pain and is diagnosed with mesenteric vascular occlusion. The small bowel becomes gangrenous and requires resection. What is a potential complication of this surgical procedure?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Nephrolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Short Bowel Syndrome

      Short bowel syndrome refers to clinical problems that arise from the removal of varying lengths of the small bowel. One common complication is nephrolithiasis, which is caused by enteric hyperoxaluria resulting from increased absorption of oxalate in the large intestine. Bile acids and fatty acids increase colonic mucosal permeability, leading to increased oxalate absorption. Steatorrhoea is also common due to fat malabsorption in the small bowel. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a complication of this syndrome. Diarrhoea is a severe complication, especially after ileal resection, which results in malabsorption of bile acid and stimulates fluid secretion in the intestinal lumen. Nutritional deficiencies of vitamins A, D, E, K, folate, and B12 are also seen. Gastric hypersecretion is common, but achlorhydria is not a complication of small bowel resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      80.4
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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
      What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Placement of a nasogastric tube, intravenous fluids and observation

      Correct Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery

      Explanation:

      Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery

      When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.

      While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.

      In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      80.8
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  • Question 13 - A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. His medical history shows that he has had previous abdominal surgery. During the examination, you notice that his abdomen is distended, and upon auscultation, you hear 'tinkling' bowel sounds. An abdominal radiograph reveals multiple loops of dilated bowel centrally, with valvulae conniventes present. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Correct Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      Causes of Bowel Obstruction: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Bowel obstruction is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In young patients, adhesions secondary to previous surgery are the most common cause of bowel obstruction, particularly in the small intestine. The four classical features of bowel obstruction are abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distension, and absolute constipation. It is important to differentiate between small bowel and large bowel obstruction, with age being a helpful factor in determining the latter.

      While colorectal carcinoma is a significant cause of large bowel obstruction, it only accounts for about 5% of cases in the UK. Hernias are the second most common cause of small bowel obstruction, but adhesions are more likely in patients with a history of abdominal surgery. Crohn’s disease typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, while diverticulitis is more common in older patients and is unlikely to cause the symptoms described.

      In conclusion, understanding the various causes of bowel obstruction and their associated symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      34.5
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  • Question 14 - A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright red blood during bowel movements. The patient experiences severe pain each time they open their bowels, which has been ongoing for the past two weeks. The patient is now very anxious and avoids opening their bowels whenever possible, but this seems to worsen the pain symptoms. Rectal examination is not possible due to the patient's inability to tolerate the procedure because of pain.
      What is the recommended treatment for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Band ligation

      Correct Answer: Nitroglycerin ointment

      Explanation:

      Anal Fissure: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      An anal fissure is a common condition that can occur at any age, but is most common in individuals aged 15-40. It can be primary, without underlying cause, or secondary, associated with conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease or constipation. Symptoms include severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, bleeding, and itching.

      Treatment options include managing pain with simple analgesia and topical anesthetics, regular sitz baths, increasing dietary fiber and fluid intake, and stool softeners. Topical glyceryl trinitrate ointment may also be used to promote relaxation of the anal sphincter and aid healing. If the fissure remains unhealed after 6-8 weeks, surgical management options such as local Botox injection or sphincterotomy may be considered.

      Antibiotic therapy does not have a role in the management of anal fissures, and band ligation is a secondary care option for the treatment of hemorrhoids, not anal fissures. Incision and drainage would only be indicated if the patient presented with a perianal abscess. Simple analgesia can be offered to manage pain symptoms, but opioid-containing preparations should be avoided to prevent further constipation and worsening of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      58.8
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum. He had previously received treatment for haemorrhoids, including dietary advice, rectal analgesics, and haemorrhoid banding, but his symptoms have persisted. What is the next step in managing this man before conducting an examination under anaesthesia?

      Your Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Haemorrhoidal Disease

      Haemorrhoidal disease is a common condition that can be managed with dietary changes, analgesia, and anti-inflammatory agents. However, if symptoms persist, outpatient interventions such as banding or injection may be necessary. In some cases, further investigation is required to rule out colorectal cancer.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a useful tool for young patients with low risk of cancer, while older patients or those with a family history of colorectal cancer may require a full colonoscopy. If sigmoidoscopy is normal, an examination under anaesthesia can be performed to diagnose and treat any haemorrhoids, fissures, fistulas, or abscesses.

      A barium follow-through is not necessary in the absence of suspicion of malignancy. Similarly, a CT scan or MRI of the abdomen and pelvis is not the best choice for direct visualisation of the bowel mucosa.

      In summary, a range of diagnostic procedures are available for haemorrhoidal disease, depending on the patient’s age, risk factors, and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      32.1
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  • Question 16 - A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his groin that he noticed while lifting weights. Upon examination, a soft palpable mass is found in the scrotum that can be reduced with gentle massage. What structure is most likely ascending along the deep inguinal ring through which this mass has passed?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery and vein

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks in Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are a common condition that occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the inguinal canal. Understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for diagnosis and treatment. Here are some important landmarks to consider:

      1. Inferior epigastric artery and vein: These vessels lie immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring and are important landmarks when performing laparoscopic indirect inguinal hernia repair.

      2. Rectus abdominis muscle: This muscle forms the medial border of a spigelian hernia and also a direct inguinal hernia.

      3. Inguinal ligament: This represents the inferior limit of the deep inguinal ring.

      4. Femoral artery and vein: These vessels lie inferior to the inguinal ligament which forms the inferior boundary on the deep inguinal ring.

      5. Superficial inguinal ring: This lies medial to the deep inguinal ring but is not considered to form its medial border. Indirect hernias then travel through the inguinal canal after passing through the deep inguinal ring.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal occult blood. Upon further questioning, he disclosed that his bowel movements have altered in the past few months. During physical examination, he appeared pale and breathless, but otherwise his examination was normal. Laboratory tests indicated that he had anaemia caused by a lack of iron.
      What would be the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis in this individual?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for Iron Deficiency Anaemia in a Man

      Iron deficiency anaemia in a man is often caused by chronic blood loss from the gastrointestinal tract. In this case, the patient’s altered bowel habits and lack of other symptoms suggest a colonic pathology, most likely a cancer. Therefore, a colonoscopy is the best investigation to identify the source of the bleeding.

      A barium swallow is not appropriate in this case as it only examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. Abdominal angiography is an invasive and expensive test that is typically reserved for patients with massive blood loss or mesenteric ischaemia. While abdominal radiographs are useful, a colonoscopy is a more appropriate investigation in this case.

      Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unlikely to reveal the cause of the patient’s symptoms as it primarily examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, it may be useful in cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeds causing melaena.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      88.3
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  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change in bowel habit and bleeding per rectum. He reports no further symptoms, and an abdominal and digital rectal examination are unremarkable. However, colonoscopy shows a high rectal tumour, encompassing approximately two-thirds of the diameter of the colon. He is booked to have an operation.
      Which of the following is he most likely to be listed for?

      Your Answer: Anterior resection

      Explanation:

      Types of Colorectal Resection Surgeries

      Colorectal resection surgeries are performed to remove cancerous or non-cancerous tumors in the colon or rectum. Here are the different types of colorectal resection surgeries:

      1. Anterior Resection: This surgery is recommended for non-obstructed tumors in the distal sigmoid colon, middle or upper rectum.

      2. abdominoperineal Resection: This surgery is used for operable low rectal and anorectal tumors. It involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and sigmoid colon, and the formation of an end-colostomy.

      3. Sigmoid Colectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the sigmoid colon.

      4. Left Hemicolectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the descending colon.

      5. Pan-colectomy: This surgery involves the removal of the entire colon and is typically performed in cases of ulcerative colitis. It requires the formation of a permanent ileostomy or the construction of an ileal-anal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      111.4
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  • Question 19 - You are the F2 in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic and have been asked...

    Incorrect

    • You are the F2 in the Surgical Outpatient Clinic and have been asked to see Mrs Jones by the consultant. Mrs Jones is a 56-year-old lady who presents with trouble defecating, and although she still passes her motions normally, over the past month, she has noticed the uncomfortable feeling of still wanting to defecate after passing her motions. During the past 2 weeks, she has noticed she has been passing mucous and some blood but no change in colour. Examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following does the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance recommend as an initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Rigid sigmoidoscopy

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Investigation for Bowel Habit Changes: A Guide

      When a patient experiences changes in bowel habit, it is important to choose the right investigation to determine the underlying cause. In this scenario, the patient is having difficulty defecating, feels incomplete emptying, and is passing mucous per rectum. The main differential diagnoses include colorectal cancer, colorectal polyps, and diverticular disease. Here are some options for investigations and their appropriateness:

      Colonoscopy: NICE recommends colonoscopy as the initial investigation for those without major co-morbidities. If a lesion is visualized, it can be biopsied, allowing for a diagnosis of colon cancer. Flexible sigmoidoscopy, followed by barium enema, can be offered in those with major co-morbidities.

      Barium enema: This may be considered in patients for whom colonoscopy is not suitable. However, it would not be the first investigation of choice in this patient without major co-morbidities.

      Faecal occult blood testing: This is a screening test offered to men and women aged 60-74 in the general population. It would not be appropriate to request this test in the above scenario, as it is not specific and would not offer any extra information for diagnosis. Plus, the patient already has signs of bleeding.

      Rigid sigmoidoscopy: This would be a valid option in the outpatient setting, as it allows quick visualization of the anorectal region. However, NICE guidance recommends colonoscopy as first line as it allows visualization of a much greater length of the bowel.

      Computerized tomography (CT) abdomen: For patients who present as emergencies, this may be more appropriate. However, in this case, in the outpatient setting, this is unlikely to be the investigation of choice.

      In summary, choosing the right investigation for bowel habit changes depends on the patient’s individual circumstances and the suspected underlying cause. Colonoscopy is often the first line investigation recommended by NICE, but other options may be appropriate in certain situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 20 - A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery....

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery. When examining this patient after her surgery, you notice she has an end colostomy.
      What feature in particular will suggest that this patient has had a Hartmann’s procedure and not an abdominoperineal (AP) resection?

      Your Answer: End colostomy

      Correct Answer: Presence of rectum

      Explanation:

      The patient has a presence of rectum, indicating that they have undergone a Hartmann’s procedure, which is commonly performed for perforated diverticulitis or to palliate rectal carcinoma. This involves resecting the sigmoid colon and leaving the rectal stump, which is oversewn. An end colostomy is created in the left iliac fossa, which can be reversed later to restore intestinal continuity. The midline scar observed is not exclusive to a Hartmann’s procedure, as AP resections and other abdominal surgeries can also be carried out via a midline incision. The presence of an end colostomy confirms that a Hartmann’s procedure has been performed. The Rutherford-Morison scar, a transverse scar used for colonic procedures and kidney transplants, is not unique to either an AP resection or a Hartmann’s procedure. The presence of solid faeces in the stoma bag is expected for a colostomy, while ileostomies typically contain liquid faeces and are usually located in the right lower quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated with a loss of appetite and nausea. On examination, the patient is apyrexial, with a blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 bpm. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness at McBurney’s point. Urine dip reveals a trace of glucose.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to diagnose the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound abdomen

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Blood Tests for Suspected Appendicitis in Pregnancy

      Appendicitis is a common surgical problem during pregnancy, often presenting with non-specific symptoms and a positive McBurney’s sign. Pregnant women may not exhibit the classic low-grade fever and may experience loss of appetite and nausea. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the preferred imaging study for suspected appendicitis, with MRI used when ultrasound is inconclusive. Blood tests, including FBC, urea and electrolytes, and LFTs, may show a raised white cell count but are not definitive for diagnosis. CT scan is a last resort and not preferred in pregnancy. Ultrasound KUB is useful for renal causes of abdominal pain but not for diagnosing appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 22 - A woman has previously had a total colectomy. Three years ago, she had...

    Correct

    • A woman has previously had a total colectomy. Three years ago, she had an end ileostomy for ulcerative colitis (UC). She presents to the Emergency Department with a tender stoma which has not had any output for 2 days. On examination, there is a positive cough impulse and a detectable tender lump lateral to the ileostomy.
      What is the most likely stoma complication that has occurred?

      Your Answer: Parastomal herniation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Parastomal Herniation from Other Stoma Complications

      When a patient presents with a cough impulse and lump at the site of their stoma, along with a lack of stoma output, it is likely that they are experiencing a parastomal hernia. This type of hernia requires emergency repair if it is irreducible. It is important to note that Crohn’s disease is more likely to affect stomas than ulcerative colitis, as UC primarily affects the colon.

      If a patient is experiencing an IBD recurrence at the site of their stoma, they would have increased stoma output, which is not the case in this scenario. Ischaemia of the stoma is more likely to occur in the immediate post-operative phase and would present as a dusky, ischaemic stoma. A stoma prolapse would not cause a positive cough impulse, and stoma retraction would present with persistent leakage and peristomal irritant dermatitis.

      Therefore, it is important to differentiate between these various stoma complications to provide appropriate and timely treatment for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of painless rectal bleeding that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of painless rectal bleeding that has been occurring for the past 5 days. The patient reports experiencing bright red bleeding during bowel movements, which appears as streaks on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl. The blood is not mixed in with the stool. This has been happening every time he has a bowel movement since the symptoms began. He does not feel any pain during these episodes, but he does experience some itching and irritation around the anal area afterwards. He is otherwise healthy, without changes in bowel habits or weight loss.
      During a rectal examination, the doctor observes a fleshy protrusion at the 7 o'clock position that appears when the patient strains but recedes into the anus when he stops straining.
      Which of the following management options would be appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Mebendazole

      Correct Answer: Injection sclerotherapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids and Treatment Options

      Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are swollen vascular mucosal cushions within the anal canal that can cause discomfort and pain. They are more common with advancing age and can be associated with pregnancy, constipation, increased intra-abdominal pressure, low-fibre diet, and obesity. Haemorrhoids can be classified by the degree of prolapse through the anus, with grade 1 being the mildest and grade 4 being the most severe.

      Patients with haemorrhoids may present with painless rectal bleeding, anal itching and irritation, rectal fullness or discomfort, and soiling. Pain is not a significant feature unless the haemorrhoid becomes strangulated or thrombosed. It is important to exclude ‘red flag’ symptoms such as change in bowel habit, weight loss, iron deficiency anaemia, or unexplained abdominal pain, especially in patients over 40.

      Conservative treatment options for haemorrhoids include lifestyle changes such as increasing fluid and fibre intake, managing constipation, anal hygiene advice, and simple analgesia. If conservative treatment fails, secondary care treatment options include rubber band ligation, injection sclerotherapy, photocoagulation, diathermy, haemorrhoidectomy, and haemorrhoid artery ligation. Referral to specialists or admission may be necessary for acutely thrombosed haemorrhoids or perianal haematoma, associated perianal sepsis, large grade 3 or 4 haemorrhoids, and persistent or worsening symptoms despite conservative management.

      Other treatment options such as mebendazole, topical lidocaine ointment, incision and drainage, and sphincterotomy are not indicated for haemorrhoids. Mebendazole is used to treat threadworms, while topical lidocaine ointment is useful for anal fissures. Incision and drainage are indicated for perianal abscesses, and sphincterotomy is used to manage chronic or recurrent anal fissures.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for haemorrhoids is essential for effective management and improved quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood specimens. He has had no significant symptoms, apart from mild fatigue over the past few months.
      On examination, he has pale conjunctiva, but there are no other specific findings.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 79 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 275 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 11 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 46 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Flexible colonoscopy: abnormal vessels visualised on the right side of the colon
      Which of the following is the initial therapy of choice?

      Your Answer: Iron sulfate supplementation

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels

      Explanation:

      Management of Angiodysplasia of the Colon

      Angiodysplasia of the colon is a condition that commonly affects individuals over the age of 60 and presents with chronic hypochromic microcytic anemia or massive bleeding with hemodynamic instability in 15% of patients. The treatment of choice for this condition is endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels. Surgery may be considered for those who do not respond to ablation therapy. A review colonoscopy in 6 months would not be appropriate as management is required for the observed angiodysplasia. Blood transfusion is not indicated unless there are signs of acute large-volume blood loss. Iron sulfate supplementation may not be necessary if the underlying condition is treated, as the iron deficiency should correct itself with adequate dietary intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his doctor complaining of worsening abdominal pain that has been present for two days. He also reports feeling nauseous and experiencing loose bowel movements. During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 37.9 °C, and he has a heart rate of 90 bpm and a blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg. The doctor notes that the patient's abdomen is tender to the touch and that he has a positive Rovsing sign. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Splenic rupture

      Correct Answer: Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Physical Signs and Symptoms of Abdominal Conditions

      Abdominal conditions can present with a variety of physical signs and symptoms that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some common signs and symptoms associated with different abdominal conditions:

      Appendicitis: A positive Rovsing sign, psoas sign, and obturator sign are less commonly found symptoms of appendicitis. More common signs include rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.

      Splenic rupture: A positive Kehr’s sign, which is acute shoulder tip pain due to irritation of the peritoneum by blood, is associated with a diagnosis of splenic rupture.

      Pyelonephritis: Positive costovertebral angle tenderness, also known as the Murphy’s punch sign, may indicate pyelonephritis.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm: A large abdominal aortic aneurysm may present with a pulsatile abdominal mass on palpation of the abdomen. However, the Rovsing sign is associated with appendicitis, not an abdominal aneurysm.

      Pancreatitis: A positive Grey Turner’s sign, which is bruising/discoloration to the flanks, is most commonly associated with severe acute pancreatitis. Other physical findings include fever, abdominal tenderness, guarding, Cullen’s sign, jaundice, and hypotension.

      Knowing these physical signs and symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing surgery to have her appendix removed. The peritoneal cavity has been opened using the appropriate approach and the caecum is visible. What would be the most appropriate feature to follow in order to locate the appendix?

      Your Answer: Right colic artery

      Correct Answer: Taeniae coli

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Large Bowel: Taeniae Coli, Appendices Epiploicae, Haustrations, Ileocolic Artery, and Right Colic Artery

      The large bowel is composed of various structures that play important roles in digestion and absorption. Among these structures are the taeniae coli, which are three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle found on the outside of the large bowel. These bands produce haustrations or bulges in the colon when they contract. Additionally, the appendices epiploicae, or epiploic appendages, are protrusions of subserosal fat that line the surface of the bowel. The large bowel also contains the ileocolic artery, which runs over the ileocaecal junction, and the right colic artery, which supplies the ascending colon. Understanding the anatomy of the large bowel is crucial in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 27 - What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify it during an open repair of a perforated gastric ulcer by the operating surgeon, as observed by a medical student?

      Your Answer: It is supplied by the right and left gastric arteries

      Correct Answer: It provides a route of access to the lesser sac

      Explanation:

      The Greater Omentum: An Integral Structure with Surgical Importance

      The greater omentum, also known as the gastrocolic omentum, is a double sheet of peritoneum that hangs down like an apron overlying loops of intestine. It is made up of four layers, two of which descend from the greater curvature of the stomach and are continuous with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the stomach. The other two layers run between the anterior layers and the transverse colon, loosely blending with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the colon and the transverse mesocolon above it.

      Contrary to the belief that it has no surgical importance, the greater omentum is of paramount surgical importance. Surgeons use it to buttress an intestinal anastomosis or in the closure of a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer. It also attempts to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections, earning it the nickname great policeman of the abdomen. The greater omentum is supplied by the right and left gastric arteries, and its blood supply may be cut off if it undergoes torsion.

      Furthermore, the greater omentum is often found plugging the neck of a hernial sac, preventing the entry of coils of the small intestine and strangulation of the bowel. In an acutely inflamed appendix, the omentum adheres to the appendix and wraps itself around the infected organ, localizing the infection to a small area of the peritoneal cavity. However, in the first two years of life, the greater omentum is poorly developed and less protective in young children.

      In conclusion, the greater omentum is an integral structure with significant surgical importance, providing access to the lesser sac and attempting to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 28 - You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student....

    Incorrect

    • You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student. The consultant asks you what structures form the roof of the inguinal canal.

      What forms the roof of the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: The aponeurosis of the medial oblique

      Correct Answer: The arched fibres of internal oblique and transversus abdominis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Inguinal Canal: Structures and Functions

      The inguinal canal is a passage located in the abdominal wall that extends from the abdominal inguinal ring to the subcutaneous inguinal ring. It is about 4 cm long, slanting downwards and medially, and is situated just above the medial part of the inguinal ligament. The canal contains important structures such as the spermatic cord and the ilioinguinal nerve in males, and the round ligament of the uterus and the ilioinguinal nerve in females.

      The roof of the inguinal canal is formed by the arched fibres of the internal oblique muscle and transversus abdominis, along with the transversalis fascia. The floor of the canal is formed by the union of the transversalis fascia with the inguinal ligament, along with the lacunar ligament at the medial third. The medial third of the floor is also formed by the lacunar ligament, while the posterior wall is formed by the reflected inguinal ligament, also known as the conjoint tendon, and the transversalis fascia.

      Understanding the anatomy of the inguinal canal is important for medical professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions such as hernias and nerve entrapment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history of painless rectal bleeding. She reports seeing blood on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl after defecation. The blood is not mixed with the stool, and there is no associated weight loss or change in bowel habit. She gave birth to twin boys after an uncomplicated pregnancy and normal vaginal delivery. She has no past medical or family history of note.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can affect individuals of all ages, but pregnancy is a known risk factor. Contrary to previous beliefs, haemorrhoids are not simply varicose veins, but rather enlarged vascular cushions with a complex anatomy. The main function of these cushions is to help maintain continence, but when they become enlarged or prolapsed, they can cause a range of symptoms.

      The most common symptom of haemorrhoids is rectal bleeding, which may be visible on toilet paper or in the toilet bowl. Other symptoms may include mucous discharge, pruritus, and soiling episodes due to incomplete closure of the anal sphincter. However, pain is not a typical feature of first-degree haemorrhoids, unless they become thrombosed.

      To confirm the diagnosis of haemorrhoids, a thorough examination is necessary, including an abdominal assessment and proctoscopy. It is important to rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as fissure-in-ano, perianal haematoma, anorectal abscess, or colorectal carcinoma (especially in older patients).

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of haemorrhoids can help healthcare providers provide appropriate management and improve patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constipation and undergoes diagnostic imaging, which reveals a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constipation and undergoes diagnostic imaging, which reveals a sigmoid volvulus. What are the most likely direct branches of the arteries that supply blood to this part of the colon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries Involved in Sigmoid Colon Volvulus

      Sigmoid colon volvulus is a condition where a part of the colon twists and rotates, causing obstruction and ischemia. The following arteries are involved in this condition:

      1. Inferior mesenteric artery: The sigmoid colon is directly supplied by the sigmoid arteries, which branch directly from the inferior mesenteric artery.

      2. Ileocolic artery: The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery and supplies the ileum, caecum, and ascending colon.

      3. Left common iliac artery: The left common iliac artery branches into the left external and internal iliac arteries, which supply the lower limbs and pelvis, including the rectum.

      4. Superior mesenteric artery: The superior mesenteric artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies the caecum, ascending colon, and transverse colon. However, the sigmoid colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      While the inferior mesenteric artery is the most specific artery involved in sigmoid colon volvulus, understanding the other arteries can also aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Colorectal (13/29) 45%
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