-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old boy has been unwell, looks pale, is anorexic and has lost weight. He has abdominal pain and a pain in his leg and a limp. You are concerned about his appearance and worry he may have a malignancy.
Which is the feature that will MOST LIKELY be present if he has a neuroblastoma?Your Answer: Limb weakness
Correct Answer: Abdominal mass
Explanation:Neuroblastoma: Symptoms and Presenting Features
Neuroblastoma is a solid neoplasm that commonly affects children and arises from sympathetic nervous tissue. The most common symptom is an abdominal mass, which is caused by the tumor location in the adrenal gland. Other symptoms may include bone pain, limping, and anemia due to marrow infiltration. Hypertension is a rare finding, but it can occur due to renal artery compression. Tumors that arise from the thoracic sympathetic chain can produce Horner syndrome, which is characterized by meiosis, ptosis, and absence of sweating of the face. Limb weakness and bladder and bowel problems can occur if the tumor grows through the spinal foramina into the spinal canal, compressing the spinal cord. Periorbital bruising may also be a presenting feature if there is metastatic disease in the orbit. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and to seek medical attention if they occur, as early detection and treatment can improve outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding migraine is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is 3 times more common in women
Explanation:Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Diagnostic Criteria
Migraine is a primary headache that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache that is usually felt on one side of the head. Other symptoms include nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and a duration of up to 72 hours. During an attack, patients often seek a quiet, dark room to alleviate their symptoms. Some patients may experience an aura before the onset of a migraine attack, which is a visual disturbance that can last up to an hour.
Migraine is more common in women, with a prevalence of 18% compared to 6% in men. There are several triggers that can precipitate a migraine attack, including stress, lack of sleep, certain foods, and hormonal changes. The diagnosis of migraine is based on specific criteria established by the International Headache Society, which includes the frequency and duration of attacks, the location and quality of pain, and the presence of associated symptoms.
There are also variants of migraine, such as hemiplegic migraine, which is characterized by motor weakness as a manifestation of aura. This type of migraine is rare, affecting only around 1 in 1,000 migraine patients, and is more common in adolescent females.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and diagnostic criteria of migraine can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in a study comparing the effectiveness of drug A versus drug B in lowering blood pressure, where drug A was found to be more effective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The probability that the results could have occurred by chance is less than 0.05
Explanation:Understanding Null and Alternative Hypotheses and the Significance of P Values
In any scientific study, researchers formulate a null hypothesis that assumes there is no difference between two treatments. The alternative hypothesis, on the other hand, suggests that there is a difference. It is important to note that while the convention is to assume the null hypothesis is true, rejecting it doesn’t necessarily mean that the alternative hypothesis is true.
The P value is a measure of the probability that the observed results in a study (or more extreme results) could have occurred by chance. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the possibility of chance occurrences when interpreting study results. Accepting the alternative hypothesis is not the same as saying it is true, but rather that it is more likely than the null hypothesis.
A P value of 0.05 or below is conventionally considered statistically significant, but this still carries a risk of a chance occurrence of 1 in 20. To reduce this risk, a more stringent rule is to use a P value of 0.01. Understanding null and alternative hypotheses and the significance of P values is essential for accurate interpretation of study results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old boy crawled and walked at the normal age but has not yet developed much speech. His ears seem abnormally large and he has a long thin face. He is quite an overactive child.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders: Characteristics and Symptoms
Fragile X Syndrome, ADHD, Down Syndrome, Marfan Syndrome, and Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness are genetic disorders that affect individuals in different ways. Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked-dominant disorder that affects both boys and girls, causing learning difficulties, delayed development, and other symptoms such as attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder, autistic spectrum disorder, and speech problems. ADHD is a combination of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity that interferes with functioning and/or development. Down Syndrome is characterized by typical facial features, physical abnormalities, and a low IQ due to an additional chromosome 21. Marfan Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder affecting connective tissue, resulting in skeletal, skin, cardiac, aortic, ocular, and dura mater malformations. Non-syndromic Congenital Deafness is most commonly inherited by autosomal-recessive genes, and children have a normal appearance and IQ. Understanding the characteristics and symptoms of these genetic disorders is crucial for early diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A novel oral hypoglycaemic agent has been developed to manage type 2 diabetes (drug B). A recently published paper appears to show very favourable results for this drug. A brief extract is given below.
‘Patients were recruited from outpatient clinics to receive drug B. A questionnaire developed by the trial coordinator was filled out by the clinician if they felt a patient might be suitable for the trial and these were collated by the trial coordinator. Baseline blood tests were taken at this time. Suitable patients were then selected by the coordinator and invited to join the trial. The group had the following characteristics: 32% female, 96% white, 2% black, 2% Asian. They were given drug B to take for a 12-month period. At the end of the trial questionnaires were given out to patients who were still taking the drug to evaluate side-effects and repeat blood tests were taken.’
Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the trial described above?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The study design is prone to inclusion bias
Explanation:Limitations of a Diabetes Study
The Limitations of a Diabetes Study are evident in the inclusion of patients based on the clinician and coordinator’s discretion, leading to inclusion bias. This bias may result in a higher representation of English-speaking white patients, while Asians and black patients are under-represented. Additionally, the study only followed patients who completed the trial, excluding those who dropped out due to side-effects, resulting in a lack of intention-to-treat analysis. Furthermore, there is no information on whether the study was placebo-controlled. These limitations suggest that the study’s findings may not be representative of the broader diabetic population in the UK.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
What is true during menopause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phyto-oestrogens are as effective as HRT
Explanation:Treatment Options for Menopausal Symptoms
Systemic oestrogens remain the most effective treatment for hot flashes during menopause, according to available evidence. However, hormone profiling is only useful in uncertain cases, and clonidine effectiveness in treating hot flashes is not yet conclusive. Loss of libido is often caused by a decrease in circulating androgens, but tibolone has been shown to improve libido. On the other hand, counselling efficacy in treating menopausal symptoms is still uncertain, and phyto-oestrogens are no more effective than a placebo, according to BMJ Clinical Evidence. In summary, systemic oestrogens and tibolone are the most promising treatments for menopausal symptoms, while other options require further research.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal interphalangeal joints
Explanation:Heberden’s Nodules: Bony Swellings in Osteoarthritis
Heberden’s nodules are bony swellings that typically develop around the distal interphalangeal joints, particularly in the second and third fingers. These nodules are caused by calcific spurs of the articular cartilage at the base of the terminal phalanges in osteoarthritis. This condition is more common in females and usually occurs in middle age. Heberden’s nodules can cause pain and stiffness in the affected joints, and may limit hand function. Proper management of osteoarthritis can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A research study examines the advantages of incorporating a new antiplatelet medication with aspirin after a heart attack in patients over the age of 60. The study yields the following outcomes:
Percentage of patients experiencing
another heart attack within 3 months
Aspirin 5%
Aspirin + new drug 3%
What is the number needed to treat to prevent one patient over the age of 60 from having another heart attack within 3 months?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100
Explanation:The formula for NNT is the reciprocal of the absolute risk reduction or the difference between the control event rate and the experimental event rate. For example, if the control event rate is 0.04 and the experimental event rate is 0.03, the NNT would be 1 divided by 0.01.
Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man with fragile X syndrome and asthma attends his annual health check.
Which of the following characteristics is most commonly seen in an adult male with fragile X syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation:Common Health Issues in Adults with Fragile X Syndrome
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder that can cause various health issues in affected individuals. Here are some common health issues that may be found in adult males with fragile X syndrome:
Mitral Valve Prolapse: This condition occurs in about 80% of adult males with fragile X syndrome and can also be associated with aortic-root dilatation. It is caused by connective-tissue disorders.
Gastro-oesophageal Reflux: While this is common among children with fragile X syndrome, it is less common in adults.
Infertility: Women with fragile X syndrome are more likely to have premature ovarian failure, but males with the condition are likely to have normal fertility.
Recurrent Otitis Media: This is a common issue that can cause hearing loss and worsen learning difficulties, but it is not the most likely feature to be found in adult males with fragile X syndrome.
Seizures: Seizures occur in 20-30% of males with fragile X syndrome, but they are less common in adulthood.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl with Down's syndrome who has a congenital heart defect has been prescribed furosemide by the paediatric cardiologists. Her parents have come to get a refill. Looking at the prescription, she has been prescribed furosemide at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg twice daily. Her current weight is 16 kg. Furosemide oral solution is available at a concentration of 20 mg/5 ml. What is the appropriate amount in millilitres to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 ml BD
Explanation:Dosage Calculation for Furosemide Oral Solution
To calculate the correct dosage for furosemide oral solution, the patient’s weight and prescribed dose must be taken into account. For example, if the patient weighs 16 kg and the prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg BD, then the total daily dose would be 8 mg BD (16 kg x 0.5 mg/kg).
The furosemide oral solution comes in a concentration of 20 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 4 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, we can use the conversion factor of 8 mg = 2 ml. Therefore, the patient should take 2 ml of the furosemide oral solution twice a day. Proper dosage calculation is crucial to ensure the patient receives the correct amount of medication for their condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man attends for his annual COPD review.
As part of his assessment you discuss his symptoms. He tells you that he can walk around without any problems on level ground but if he has to hurry or walk up an incline then he becomes breathless and has to stop to catch his breath.
How would you grade his degree of breathlessness according to the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 1
Explanation:The Importance of Grading Patients’ Symptoms
Grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of assessing disease severity, tailoring treatment, and monitoring treatment effect. One useful tool for this purpose is the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale, which has been introduced as part of the quality and outcomes framework in General practice. As part of the COPD assessment, it is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes.
The MRC dyspnoea scale grades the degree of breathlessness related to activities. The scale ranges from grade 0, where the patient is not troubled by breathlessness except on strenuous exercise, to grade 4, where the patient is too breathless to leave the house or breathless when dressing or undressing. By using this scale, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of a patient’s symptoms and tailor treatment accordingly. It is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes to monitor treatment effect and adjust treatment plans as necessary. Overall, grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of providing effective healthcare and improving patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.
Which one of the following is more suggestive of vascular dementia than Alzheimer's?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emotional lability
Explanation:Emotional lability in Vascular Dementia
Emotional lability, which refers to sudden and exaggerated changes in mood or emotions, is a common symptom in patients with vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to damage in different areas of the brain. Emotional lability can manifest as sudden outbursts of anger, crying spells, or inappropriate laughter.
On the other hand, other symptoms such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with language and communication are more suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease. It is important to differentiate between the two types of dementia as they have different underlying causes and may require different treatment approaches.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old teacher presents with joint pains. Over the past few months, she has been experiencing intermittent pain, stiffness, and swelling in the joints of her hands and feet. The stiffness tends to improve during the day, but the pain tends to worsen. She has also noticed stiffness in her back but cannot recall any injury that may have caused it. During an acute attack, blood tests were taken and the results are as follows:
Rheumatoid factor: Negative
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody: Positive
Uric acid: 0.3 mmol/l (0.18 - 0.48)
ESR: 41 mm/hr
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly linked to the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies, which are highly specific to this condition.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.
Which single feature best suggests a high risk of future suicide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ingestion of alcohol with the overdose drug
Explanation:Factors indicating high risk of suicide
The effort to conceal an overdose suggests a serious intent to complete suicide, which is a significant factor indicating a high risk of suicide. However, previous history of overdoses doesn’t necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a more sinister intent include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.
Protective factors, such as religious beliefs and social support, can reduce the risk of suicide. Additionally, being responsible for children is also a protective factor. However, when assessing a patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to focus on factors that suggest a high risk, rather than protective factors.
In conclusion, when presented with a patient who may be at risk of suicide, it is crucial to consider the effort to conceal an overdose and other factors such as age, gender, and mental health history. While protective factors such as social support and religious beliefs are important, they should not distract from the assessment of high-risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the following in the history and examination would require a referral to Paediatrics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large naevus over the sacral area
Explanation:When assessing a child’s constipation history and conducting an examination, certain red flags should be taken into consideration. If the child has been constipated since birth or within the first few weeks of life, or if there was a delay of more than 48 hours before passing meconium, it could indicate underlying conditions such as Hirschsprung’s disease or cystic fibrosis.
Additionally, the presence of multiple anal fissures or new neurological symptoms in the lower limbs should be cause for concern. If a large naevus is present over the sacral area, further investigation is necessary to rule out the possibility of spina bifida.
Understanding Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.
After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.
In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of shoulder aches that have been bothering her for several months. She finds it challenging to get up in the morning, but the pain seems to improve as the day progresses. She has also lost some weight recently, but she is otherwise healthy. She is not taking any regular medications and has no visual symptoms. On examination, there is no wasting or rash.
What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send blood for erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), then review
Explanation:Management of Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects elderly individuals. It presents with proximal myalgia of the hip and shoulder girdles and morning stiffness. Here are some management options for PMR:
1. Send blood for erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), then review: Inflammatory markers are characteristically raised in PMR. If the ESR is raised, it would be diagnostic of the condition and guide future management options.
2. Arrange a course of physiotherapy: Physiotherapy may be useful for this patient once the cause of her symptoms has been established and inflammatory causes of shoulder pain have been excluded.
3. Inject both shoulders with medroxyprogesterone acetate and review if no better: Medroxyprogesterone acetate is a steroid used to treat localised inflammation in joints, but would not treat the systemic disease. A blood test for ESR should be carried out to confirm this diagnosis before oral steroids are commenced for this patient.
4. Refer to rheumatology outpatients: This condition can be initially managed in general practice, with referral to rheumatology indicated if she doesn’t respond to steroid therapy.
5. Treat with oral prednisolone 60 mg od for one week, then review: Corticosteroids (ie prednisolone) are the treatment of choice for PMR. The suggested regimen is prompt relief of symptoms should occur within 24–72 hours. Gastro protection with a proton pump inhibitor and prophylactic bisphosphonates should be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old plumber has come for a medication review. He has had three separate episodes of depression in the past four years, resulting in several absences from work. He is currently employed by a competitor and finds the reduced stress level beneficial. He has been taking citalopram 20 mg for the past nine months and reports feeling well. He is interested in discontinuing his medication and seeks your guidance. What is the recommended duration of antidepressant withdrawal after achieving remission?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He can withdraw 24 months into his recovery
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment for Patients with Recurrent Depression
Guidance from NICE on Depression (CG23) recommends that patients who have experienced two or more episodes of depression in the recent past or suffered significant functional impairment should continue antidepressants for at least two years into remission. This recommendation was reiterated in the 2009 publication of Depression in adults (CG90). However, for patients who have suffered a single episode of depression without significant functional impairment, the duration of treatment after remission is six months. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these guidelines when treating patients with depression to ensure appropriate and effective management of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and currently has a BP of 155/95 mmHg. She has noted that her face has become more rounded over the years and she is having increasing trouble with both acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has revealed impaired glucose tolerance. There has also been increasing trouble with abdominal obesity and she has noticed some purple stretch marks appearing around her abdomen.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome
Explanation:Cushing Syndrome: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Cushing syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by hypercortisolaemia, which leads to a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common features include a round, plethoric facial appearance, weight gain (especially truncal obesity, buffalo hump, and supraclavicular fat pads), skin fragility, proximal muscle weakness, mood disturbance, menstrual disturbance, and reduced libido. Hypertension is present in more than 50% of patients, impaired glucose tolerance in 30%, and osteopenia, osteoporosis, and premature vascular disease are common consequences if left untreated.
The annual incidence of Cushing syndrome is approximately two per million, and it is more common in women. The cause of the disease is hypercortisolaemia, and in 68% of cases, it is due to a pituitary adenoma producing adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Ectopic ACTH production is the cause in 12% of cases (most commonly small-cell carcinoma of the lung and bronchial carcinoid tumours), adrenal adenoma in 10%, and adrenal carcinoma in 8%.
Diagnosis of Cushing syndrome is made based on the results of the 24-hour urinary free-cortisol assay or the 1 mg (low-dose) overnight dexamethasone suppression test.
Differential diagnosis includes multiple endocrine neoplasia, essential hypertension, phaeochromocytoma, and simple obesity. However, multiple endocrine neoplasia is less likely due to the rarity of the syndrome and lack of other features. Essential hypertension may respond to two agents but cannot explain the other symptoms and signs. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that secretes catecholamines and presents with headache, sweating, palpitations, tremor, and hypertension. Simple obesity is a differential diagnosis but cannot explain the other features.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old accountant presents with persistent anxiety symptoms that are significantly impacting his daily functioning. Despite completing a self-help program and undergoing CBT, he has not experienced any significant improvement after taking Sertraline for 6 months. What is the recommended next step in treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of an alternative SSRI such as Escitalopram or a SNRI such as Venlafaxine
Explanation:If non-pharmacological treatments have not effectively managed symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), the first line of medication recommended is an SSRI such as Sertraline or Escitalopram. If this proves to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, an alternative SSRI or SNRI like Venlafaxine should be tried. It is important to allow 12 weeks to see the full effects of the medication. Benzodiazepines, Propranolol, and low dose Amitriptyline are not recommended in this situation. If the patient cannot tolerate or has contraindications to the aforementioned medications, a trial of Pregabalin is recommended. Referral to a mental health team is not necessary at this time as the patient has not yet tried the different management options.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure a few days after completing her final exams. The discharge summary and follow-up letter from the neurologist both indicate that this was an alcohol-related seizure. Despite having normal CT and EEG results, the student admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol before the seizure. She denies any previous alcohol misuse and has normal liver function tests. She has not consumed alcohol since the episode and has been advised to inform the DVLA. As a motorcyclist, she is concerned about any potential restrictions. How long should she refrain from using her motorcycle after experiencing a single alcohol-induced seizure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: One year
Explanation:DVLA Guidance on Fitness to Drive
The DVLA provides guidance on fitness to drive, which takes into account different types of seizures, including those caused by alcohol. In this case scenario, the seizure is solitary and alcohol-induced, and the driver holds a Group one entitlement for cars and motorcycles.
The DVLA distinguishes between different types of seizures, and provides specific conditions for the return or issue of a driving licence when there is a background of substance misuse or dependence. Independent medical assessment and consultant reports are usually necessary in these cases.
It is important to note that the driving restrictions for Group one entitlement drivers, such as the student in this scenario, are the same as those for car drivers. However, if the student held a Group two entitlement for heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles, their licence would have been revoked for a minimum of five years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of redness and pain in his left eye for the past two days. He also reports mild sensitivity to light and blurred vision. He wears contact lenses daily and is in good health otherwise.
Upon examination, the left eye appears red with swelling of the eyelid, conjunctival inflammation, and excessive tearing. However, ocular movement is normal.
What are the most frequently implicated organisms in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:If someone has contact lens associated keratitis, it is important to consider the possibility of a Pseudomonas infection. In the UK, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most frequently encountered bacterial pathogen in cases of contact lens associated keratitis.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).
Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.
Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A diabetic patient who uses insulin presents to the surgery. Which one of the following statements regarding the application for a group 2 (HGV) driving licence is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Applicants must provide 3 months of blood glucose readings using an electronic monitor
Explanation:DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His blood tests are shown in the table below. Other liver function tests are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
Investigation Result Normal value
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 1000 IU/l 30–150 IU/l
Adjusted calcium 2.25 mmol/l 2.12–2.65 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.2 mmol/l 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects individuals over the age of 40. It is often asymptomatic and is discovered through incidental findings of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels or characteristic abnormalities on X-rays. However, classic symptoms include bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. Diagnosis is established by finding a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level, but normal liver function tests. Differential diagnoses include multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnoses of Paget’s disease of bone is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Chronic alcohol abuse is known to have a negative impact on the cardiovascular system. Among the following conditions, which is the LEAST likely to be associated with excessive alcohol consumption?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Alcohol Abuse and Cardiovascular Problems: Effects and Risks
Alcohol abuse can lead to various cardiovascular problems, including atrial fibrillation, hypertension, strokes, and cardiomyopathy with heart failure. Additionally, infective endocarditis is more common in those who abuse alcohol. However, it is interesting to note that mild to moderate alcohol consumption, particularly in the form of wine and beer, which are rich in polyphenols, may actually have cardiovascular protective effects. This is true for both individuals with existing cardiovascular disease and healthy individuals. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with alcohol abuse, but also to consider the potential benefits of moderate alcohol consumption.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman who is 16-weeks pregnant comes in with acne vulgaris. Which of the following treatments is recognized to be detrimental to the growth of the fetus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical isotretinoin
Explanation:Women using oral or topical isotretinoin must take effective contraception as both forms are highly prohibited during pregnancy.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite ongoing lifestyle interventions and trials of orlistat and sibutramine he has failed to lose a significant amount of weight. He is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension but a recent fasting glucose was normal. For this patient, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) that would trigger a referral for consideration of bariatric surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2
Explanation:Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy is referred by his GP with a two-week history of general malaise, fatigue and pharyngitis. On examination, multiple small lymph nodes were palpable in the neck, axillae and groins.
Investigations revealed:
Haemoglobin 125 g/L (130-180)
WBC 16.0 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 160 ×109/L (150-400)
Blood film Lymphocytosis noted
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus infection (EBV)
Explanation:Differentiating between Acute EBV, CMV, and Toxoplasmosis
Acute EBV typically presents with symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, fever, pharyngitis, and bilateral lymphadenopathy. Heterophil antibody tests are usually positive. On the other hand, CMV mononucleosis has a lower incidence of pharyngitis and cervical adenopathy. The clinical presentation of CMV infectious mononucleosis may be similar to EBV, but it is usually not accompanied by posterior cervical adenopathy, and non-exudative pharyngitis is minimal or absent.
Primary toxoplasmosis is acquired through the ingestion of undercooked meat containing toxoplasma cysts or fresh food contaminated by toxoplasma excreted in cats’ faeces. The infection is asymptomatic in 80-90% of immunocompetent patients. Highly characteristic of toxoplasmosis is asymmetrical lymphadenopathy limited to an isolated lymph node group. Patients with toxoplasmosis have little or no fever, fatigue, or pharyngitis.
Mild transient thrombocytopenia is not uncommon in EBV infectious mononucleosis. In contrast, patients with toxoplasmosis have little or no fever, fatigue, or pharyngitis. The diagnosis of ALL and HD is made by a combination of blood film examination, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, and lymph node biopsy.
In summary, while EBV and CMV mononucleosis may have similar clinical presentations, the absence of posterior cervical adenopathy and minimal or absent non-exudative pharyngitis may indicate CMV. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy limited to an isolated lymph node group is highly characteristic of toxoplasmosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old woman, who has a history of panic attacks, visits her General Practitioner as she has been experiencing a feeling of detachment from her surroundings during her attacks. She describes it as as if there is a veil between me and the outside world. What is the most appropriate term for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Derealisation
Explanation:Differentiating between psychological experiences: Derealisation, Delusion, Depersonalisation, Flight of Ideas, and Hallucination
Psychological experiences can be complex and difficult to differentiate. Here are some explanations of five different experiences: derealisation, delusion, depersonalisation, flight of ideas, and hallucination.
Derealisation is the feeling that the external world is unreal, distant, or distorted. Patients may describe it as a veil between themselves and their surroundings.
Delusion is a fixed false belief that doesn’t change despite conflicting evidence. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings. Delusions are commonly associated with schizophrenia, not anxiety.
Depersonalisation is the feeling of being a detached observer of oneself. This is different from derealisation, where patients feel detached from their surroundings.
Flight of ideas is a rapid flow of thoughts that often connect and is part of the hyperexcitable state of mania. It is not typically seen in anxiety with derealisation.
Hallucination is a false sensory perception in the absence of a real external stimulus. For example, hearing voices when no one has spoken. This patient has not described any false sensory perception.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
The practice pediatrician has seen several adolescents with orthopaedic abnormalities and is uncertain about their management. You have been tasked with creating a tutorial on the subject. Which of these adolescent orthopaedic abnormalities is MOST LIKELY to require active intervention? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scoliosis in an 8-year-old girl
Explanation:Common Pediatric Orthopedic Conditions and Their Management
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine that can occur in children at different ages. Infantile scoliosis is more common in boys and may resolve spontaneously or progress to severe deformity. Juvenile and adolescent scoliosis are more common in girls and often require surgical intervention.
In toeing is a condition where the feet point inward when a child walks. It is most commonly due to internal tibial torsion in children under 2 years old, which usually resolves on its own. Over 2 years old, internal femoral torsion is the most common cause and can be treated by correcting abnormal sitting positions.
Bow legs, or genu varum, occur when the legs curve outward at the knee. This is usually caused by a tight posterior hip capsule and typically resolves by age 2. In severe cases, night splints or an osteotomy may be necessary. Rickets should be ruled out as a possible cause.
Flexible flat feet, or hypermobile pes planus, are common in young children and usually resolve by age 6. If the child experiences pain, difficulty walking, or trouble with shoes, ankle-stretch exercises and foot orthoses may be necessary.
Knock knees, or genu valgum, occur when the legs curve inward so that the knees touch but the feet are apart. This condition is usually benign and resolves by age 5-8. Surgery may be necessary if it persists beyond age 10.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.
Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.
Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.
Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.
In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)