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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old patient contacts you seeking advice regarding the routine shingles vaccination. The patient has previously experienced an episode of shingles and is unsure if they need to receive the vaccine. How do you respond?
Your Answer: doesn't require the vaccination
Correct Answer: Vaccination will reduce likelihood of further attacks
Explanation:To enhance his immunity and minimize the likelihood of recurrent shingles, it is recommended that he receive the shingles vaccination. The vaccine is believed to provide protection against shingles for a minimum of 5 years.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A patient in her early 30s calls in tears, requesting to speak with a doctor regarding her cervical screening test results. She has received a letter asking her to attend for colposcopy, and the results state 'Abnormal with borderline or low-grade cell changes.' She is distressed and wants to know if the test has detected cancer.
What is the typical meaning of this result?Your Answer: Premalignant changes
Explanation:The primary objective of cervical screening is to identify pre-cancerous alterations rather than detecting cancer.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening in the UK
Cervical cancer screening is a well-established program in the UK that aims to detect Premalignant changes in the cervix. This program is estimated to prevent 1,000-4,000 deaths per year. However, it should be noted that cervical adenocarcinomas, which account for around 15% of cases, are frequently undetected by screening.
The screening program has evolved significantly in recent years. Initially, smears were examined for signs of dyskaryosis, which may indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. However, the introduction of HPV testing allowed for further risk stratification. Patients with mild dyskaryosis who were HPV negative could be treated as having normal results. The NHS has now moved to an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
All women between the ages of 25-64 years are offered a smear test. Women aged 25-49 years are screened every three years, while those aged 50-64 years are screened every five years. Cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64, unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age. In Scotland, screening is offered from 25-64 every five years.
In special situations, cervical screening in pregnancy is usually delayed until three months postpartum, unless there has been missed screening or previous abnormal smears. Women who have never been sexually active have a very low risk of developing cervical cancer and may wish to opt-out of screening.
While there is limited evidence to support it, the current advice given out by the NHS is that the best time to take a cervical smear is around mid-cycle. Understanding the cervical cancer screening program in the UK is crucial for women to take control of their health and prevent cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman has been released from the nearby stroke unit following a lacunar ischaemic stroke. She has a history of hypertension and is a smoker who is currently taking lisinopril. However, her discharge medications do not include a statin. What would be the most suitable prescription for initiating statin therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg
Explanation:For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, atorvastatin 20 mg is recommended, while for secondary prevention, the dose is increased to 80 mg. The patient was previously not on statin therapy for primary prevention despite being hypertensive. However, after experiencing a confirmed vascular event, the patient now requires the higher dose of atorvastatin for secondary prevention as per current guidelines. Simvastatin is not the preferred choice for secondary prevention and neither the 40 mg nor the 20 mg dose would be appropriate. Atorvastatin 10 mg is not recommended for secondary prevention, and the 20 mg dose is only licensed for primary prevention. High-intensity statin treatment is recommended for both primary and secondary prevention.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in a surveyed population. Is it accurate to say that the disease is more fatal in this age group?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There were 40% more fatalities from the disease in this population compared to the reference population
Explanation:There were a higher number of deaths in the sample population than what was anticipated.
Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio
The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.
An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a holiday company. He developed a moderately severe depressive illness 12 months ago, presenting with poor memory, poor concentration and suicidal thoughts. He has been off work since then.
He has responded well to a selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and feels that the medication doesn't impair him in any way. He feels ready to return to work.
What is the recommended duration of stability on medication for a patient with moderate depression before driving with a Group 2 licence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Driving with Anxiety and Depression: DVLA Guidelines
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with anxiety and depressive illnesses who wish to drive. If the illness is more than just mild, meaning it includes significant memory or concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts, the DVLA must be informed. However, if the person is well and stable for a period of six months, driving may be permitted. It is important to note that medication must not cause side effects that interfere with alertness or concentration. If the anxiety or depression is long-standing and maintained symptom-free on doses of psychotropic medication that do not impair, driving is usually permitted. In some cases, the DVLA may require psychiatric reports. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman complains that her right ring finger regularly becomes locked after it has been flexed. It is difficult to straighten out without pulling on it with the other hand and sometimes a click is heard when it straightens.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trigger finger
Explanation:Understanding Trigger Finger
Trigger finger, also known as stenosing tenosynovitis, is a condition where the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This causes the finger to remain fixed in flexion unless it is pulled straight. The name trigger finger comes from the sudden release of the finger when it unlocks, similar to releasing a trigger on a gun. A small tender nodule may be felt in the tendon in the palm at the base of the affected finger, impeding the return of the tendon to its sheath. While trauma can cause trigger finger, often there is no obvious cause. Some patients improve spontaneously, while others require corticosteroid injections or tendon release surgery. It is important to differentiate trigger finger from other conditions such as cramp, Dupuytren’s contracture, osteoarthritis of the proximal interphalangeal joint, and tetany.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over the past year. She has no features of androgen excess. She has no medical history and is not on any regular medication. Recent blood tests including ferritin were unremarkable. On examination, you note some mild thinning around the crown area and widening of the central parting of her hair. You make a diagnosis of androgenetic alopecia.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate
Explanation:NICE Recommends Topical Minoxidil as First-Line Treatment for Female Androgenetic Alopecia
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of topical minoxidil 2% solution as the first-line treatment for androgenetic alopecia in women. This medication is available over-the-counter and has been found to be effective in promoting hair growth. However, NICE advises against prescribing other drug treatments in primary care.
Referral to dermatology should be considered in certain cases. For instance, if a woman has an atypical presentation of hair loss, or if she experiences extensive hair loss. Additionally, if treatment with topical minoxidil has been ineffective after one year, referral to a dermatologist may be necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that women with androgenetic alopecia receive appropriate and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain that he has been experiencing for two months. The pain is dull in nature and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is detected in the central abdomen. The patient had undergone an abdominal ultrasound 6 months ago which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the ultrasound and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's ultrasound report which shows no focal pancreatic, liver or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, a 5.4 cm diameter abdominal aorta, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys.
What aspect of the patient's medical history suggests that surgery may be necessary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. The abdominal aortic diameter must be greater than 5.5cm to be classified as high rupture risk, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA’s velocity of growth should be monitored, and a high-risk AAA would only be indicated if there is an increase of more than 1 cm per year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is currently on aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, and nifedipine, but is still experiencing frequent use of his GTN spray. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate MR and refer to cardiology for consideration of PCI or CABG
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a patient needs a third anti-anginal medication, they should be referred for evaluation of a more permanent solution such as PCI or CABG. Although ACE inhibitors may be beneficial for certain patients with stable angina, they would not alleviate his angina symptoms.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man has been experiencing widespread aches and pains in his chest, back, and hips for several months. He also reports difficulty with urinary flow and frequent nighttime urination. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels
Explanation:Prostate Cancer and Prostatism: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Patients with prostatism who experience bony pain should be evaluated for prostate cancer, as it often metastasizes to bone. A digital rectal examination should be performed after taking blood for PSA, as the prostate will typically feel hard and irregular in cases of prostate cancer. While chronic urinary retention and urinary infection may be present, investigations should focus on identifying the underlying cause rather than providing symptomatic treatment with an α-blocker. Without a confirmed diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, finasteride should not be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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When applied thinly, how much skin does one 'fingertip unit' of corticosteroid cream cover?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Four adult hand prints
Explanation:Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. To ensure proper coverage of affected areas, the cream or ointment should be spread thinly but in sufficient quantity. A useful measurement for this is the fingertip unit, which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease.
To apply the correct amount, one fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg) should be used to cover an area twice the size of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together). This ensures that the medication is evenly distributed and absorbed by the skin. By following these guidelines, patients can maximize the effectiveness of their topical corticosteroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A researcher is designing a crossover trial to study the efficacy of a new antiviral medication versus a placebo for treating influenza in elderly patients. The medication being studied has a very short half-life. The sample size that is available to the researcher for this trial is small but there is a long time period available for the trial to be completed. All of the elderly patients that have agreed to take part in the study are expecting to receive the active treatment.
Which of these factors may make a crossover trial unsuitable in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The natural course of the disease
Explanation:Considerations for Conducting a Crossover Trial
When considering conducting a crossover trial, there are several factors to take into account. Firstly, the natural course of the disease being studied should be considered, as crossover trials are less suited to studying self-limiting illnesses. Secondly, the expectations of the patients regarding the treatment they will receive should be taken into account, as all participants will receive both the active treatment and the placebo. Thirdly, the half-life of the medication should be considered, as drugs with a long half-life may confound the results. Fourthly, the sample size required for a crossover trial is typically smaller than for other types of trial. Finally, the time available for the trial to be completed should be considered, as crossover trials consist of two study periods and may take longer than parallel designs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What medical condition in a child would require circumcision?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent balanitis
Explanation:Patients who suffer from chronic balanitis or recurrent episodes of the condition should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Recurrent balanitis can lead to phimosis, a condition where the foreskin becomes tight and difficult to retract, and in some cases, circumcision may be necessary to prevent further complications.
- Ambiguous Genitalia:
- Description: Ambiguous genitalia is a condition where a newborn’s external genitals do not appear to be clearly male or female. It can be part of a disorder of sex development (DSD).
- Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is generally not performed as part of initial management for ambiguous genitalia. The condition requires careful evaluation, diagnosis, and sometimes gender assignment surgery, which may include or exclude circumcision.
- Cryptorchidism:
- Description: Cryptorchidism refers to undescended testes, where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum.
- Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not indicated for cryptorchidism. The standard treatment is orchidopexy, a surgical procedure to move the undescended testicle into the scrotum.
- Recurrent Balanitis:
- Description: Balanitis is inflammation of the glans penis, often associated with infection. Recurrent episodes can lead to discomfort, infection, and difficulty in hygiene.
- Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is often recommended for recurrent balanitis to prevent further episodes. Removal of the foreskin reduces the risk of infection and improves hygiene.
- Hypospadias:
- Description: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip.
- Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not performed in infants with hypospadias as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair of the urethra (urethroplasty). Surgery to correct hypospadias is typically done between 6-18 months of age.
- Non-retractile Foreskin in a 4-year-old Child:
- Description: Non-retractile foreskin (physiological phimosis) is normal in young children and usually resolves by age 5-7 as the foreskin becomes more retractable.
- Circumcision Consideration: Circumcision is not recommended for physiological phimosis in young children unless there are complications such as recurrent infections or significant ballooning during urination.
- Ambiguous Genitalia:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of bladder transitional cell carcinoma and a current foot ulcer is being treated for type 2 diabetes mellitus with metformin and gliclazide. His recent check-up showed a HbA1c level of 60 mmol/mol. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin
Explanation:Based on the patient’s current medication regimen and HbA1c level, NICE guidance recommends triple therapy with the addition of a gliptin such as sitagliptin. Acarbose is not recommended due to significant gastrointestinal side-effects, while canagliflozin is contraindicated in patients with active foot disease. Pioglitazone should be avoided in patients with active or previous bladder cancer.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage one hypertension without any signs of end-organ damage. As a first step, he is recommended to make lifestyle changes instead of taking medication.
What are the most suitable lifestyle modifications to suggest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A diet containing less than 6g of salt per day
Explanation:For patients with hypertension, it is recommended to follow a low salt diet and aim for less than 6g/day, ideally 3g/day. Consuming a diet high in processed red meats may increase cardiovascular risk and blood pressure, although this is a topic of ongoing research and public opinion varies. While tea may contain a similar amount of caffeine as coffee, it is unlikely to reduce overall caffeine intake. The current exercise recommendation for hypertension is 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, 5 days a week. It is recommended to limit alcohol intake in hypertension, and consuming 2 glasses of red wine, 5 days a week would exceed the recommended limits.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You see a 28-year-old man who complains of painful mouth ulcers. He is in good health otherwise.
During the examination, you notice around 5 small and shallow aphthous ulcers on the inner lining of his mouth.
What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stopping smoking is a risk factor for aphthous mouth ulcers
Explanation:There are various factors that can contribute to the development of oral ulcers. These include smoking, deficiencies in iron, folic acid, or vitamin B12, and local trauma to the oral mucosa. Additionally, anxiety and exposure to certain foods such as chocolate, coffee, peanuts, and gluten products may also play a role. However, hormonal factors are not typically associated with the development of oral ulcers.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old mother contacts the on-call doctor, concerned about her two daughters (aged 4 and 6) who attend the same school. She reports that both girls have been complaining of an itchy scalp for the past week, but she has not noticed any visible signs of rash or irritation. After conducting a dry combing of their hair, she has found live lice on her younger daughter.
What advice would you give as the on-call doctor?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat only the twin with live lice on dry combing with either malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate or cyclomethicone
Explanation:According to the updated 2016 NICE CKS guidance, household contacts of patients with head lice do not require treatment unless they are also infested. Treatment should only be given if live head lice are detected, and it may be possible to manage this over the phone without a physical examination. It is crucial to have a discussion with the patient or caregiver about the various treatment options available, weighing the pros and cons, and involving them in the decision-making process.
Understanding Head Lice: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs, which are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead, are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits, on the other hand, are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.
Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. It is important to note that head lice cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.
To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. It is important to note that school exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of head lice is crucial in preventing its spread. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, we can effectively manage this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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John is a 44-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a complaint of a severely itchy rash on his wrist that appeared suddenly a few weeks ago. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
Upon examination of the flexor aspect of John's left wrist, you observe multiple 3-5 mm shiny flat-topped papules that are violet in color. Upon closer inspection, you notice white streaks on the surface of the papules. There are no other affected skin areas, and no oromucosal changes are present.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient, given the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A potent topical steroid such as betamethasone valerate 0.1%
Explanation:Lichen planus is typically treated with potent topical steroids as a first-line treatment, especially for managing the itching caused by the rash. While this condition can occur at any age, it is more common in middle-aged individuals. Mild topical steroids are not as effective as potent ones in treating the rash. Referral to a dermatologist and skin biopsy may be necessary if there is diagnostic uncertainty, but in this case, it is not required. Severe or widespread lichen planus may require oral steroids, and if there is little improvement, narrow band UVB therapy may be considered as a second-line treatment.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A six-year-old has been brought to the GP by his mother due to frequent episodes of shortness of breath and wheeze during physical education lessons at school and when out playing with friends. He also has been coughing and complaining of chest tightness at night. Examination and vital signs are within normal limits. Peak flow is slightly reduced based on height.
What is the most appropriate next step for diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, the diagnosis of asthma in adults should include bronchodilator reversibility testing, while children aged 5-16 should also undergo this test if feasible. Fractional exhaled nitrous oxide (FeNO) testing is not recommended as the initial step for diagnosing asthma in children, but may be considered in cases of diagnostic uncertainty where spirometry is normal or obstructive with negative bronchodilator reversibility. Methacholine bronchial challenge is not used in children and should only be considered in adults if other tests have not provided a clear diagnosis. Peak flow readings may be offered in children aged 5-16 with normal or obstructive spirometry and positive FeNO. While symptoms may indicate asthma, further objective testing is necessary, starting with spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing in children aged 5-16. A diagnosis of asthma in this age group may be made with positive bronchodilator reversibility or positive FeNO with positive peak flow variability.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Explanation:There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.
Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.
HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a fungal nail infection. You determine that terbinafine is the appropriate treatment. Choose the one accurate statement regarding the use of terbinafine.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months’ therapy is needed
Explanation:Fungal Nail Infection Treatment Options
Fungal nail infections are commonly caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes fungi. These two types of fungi are responsible for over 90% of cases, with T. rubrum being the most common culprit. Systemic treatment is recommended for fungal nail infections as it is more effective. However, the slow growth of nails means that they may not appear normal even after successful treatment.
Terbinafine is currently the first-line treatment for fungal nail infections, with evidence showing greater efficacy compared to itraconazole. However, itraconazole is more effective against candida. Treatment with terbinafine usually takes around 3 months to be effective. It is important to note that terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old, in which case griseofulvin must be used.
There have been rare cases of liver toxicity with terbinafine, and very rare reports of severe skin reactions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. Therefore, it is advisable to monitor hepatic function before treatment and every 4-6 weeks during treatment. If abnormalities in liver function tests occur, treatment should be discontinued.
Itraconazole can be given in pulses for 7 days every month to treat fungal nail infections. Two pulses are recommended for fingernails, and three for toenails.
In conclusion, fungal nail infections can be effectively treated with systemic antifungal medications such as terbinafine and itraconazole. However, it is important to monitor for potential side effects and to follow the recommended treatment regimen for optimal results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable to tolerate metformin due to nausea. She has been doing some of her own research into other options and suggests an SGLT-2 inhibitor, empagliflozin, because she has read it might help her lose weight and improve her blood pressure, as well as improve her blood sugar.
What is the mechanism of action of empagliflozin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase urinary glucose excretion
Explanation:SGLT-2 inhibitors function by enhancing the urinary excretion of glucose, which is the root cause of their primary side effects such as increased urine output, weight loss, and UTI. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide, on the other hand, work by increasing insulin release from the pancreas. Acarbose, which is not commonly prescribed in the UK, reduces glucose absorption in the gut. DPP4-inhibitors, which reduce the breakdown of incretins, decrease glucagon secretion by reducing glucagon release from the pancreas. Empagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, reduces glucose reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule, leading to an additional excretion of approximately 70g of glucose per day. This not only improves blood sugar levels but also causes weight loss, unlike other diabetic medications such as sulphonylureas and insulin, which cause weight gain. The slight diuresis caused by increased glucose excretion may also improve blood pressure. However, the increased glucose in the urine can also lead to adverse events such as urinary tract or genital infections. SGLT-2 inhibitors do not slow gastric emptying.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of weakness and tingling in her right hand. Upon examination, she displays atrophy of the thenar eminence and experiences sensory loss in the palmar region of the lateral (radial) three fingers. Which nerve is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:It is highly likely that this patient is suffering from carpal tunnel syndrome.
Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve
The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.
The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.
Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What plasma glucose level is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes: Interpreting Plasma Glucose Concentrations
The diagnosis of diabetes is based on interpreting plasma glucose concentrations. To diagnose diabetes mellitus, a fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose above 11.1 mmol/L is required. However, it is important to note that two plasma glucose readings are needed according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient to make the diagnosis. In a symptomatic patient, only one reading is needed.
It is crucial to pay attention to the details of the question and not misinterpret any of the options. For instance, candidates may misread or misinterpret the threshold of 7.0 mmol/L and argue that 7.1 mmol/L cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, using good examination technique, it is recommended to go over the options again to ensure that the question has been read correctly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is brought to the operating room by her mother due to experiencing headaches for the past few months. These headaches occur approximately once a week and are described as a 'pulsing' feeling in the right temple region. The pain is severe and accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light. Her neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most probable treatment to alleviate her symptoms during a headache episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Headache in Children: Migraine and Tension-Type Headache
Headaches are a common complaint in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing paediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanied by nausea/vomiting and/or photophobia/phonophobia. Acute management of paediatric migraine involves ibuprofen, which is more effective than paracetamol, and triptans, which may be used in children over 12 years old but require follow-up. Prophylaxis for migraine is limited, with pizotifen and propranolol recommended as first-line preventatives, followed by valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline as second-line options.
Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children. The IHS diagnostic criteria for TTH in children include headache lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with at least two of three specific pain characteristics and no nausea/vomiting but with photophobia/phonophobia present. Treatment for TTH involves identifying and addressing triggers, as well as using non-pharmacological interventions such as relaxation techniques and cognitive-behavioural therapy. Overall, headache in children requires careful diagnosis and management to improve quality of life and prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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As a GP participating in research projects, you have a patient who is curious about a study testing a new antihypertensive medication. You inform them that the drug has undergone testing on several volunteers, but has not yet been approved for sale. The manufacturers are currently seeking patients to compare the effectiveness of this new drug to existing antihypertensives before it can be licensed and prescribed by all doctors.
In which phase of the drug trial are you seeking patients for recruitment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phase 3
Explanation:Phase 3 trials involve larger studies conducted on real patients, where the effectiveness of a new treatment is compared to existing treatments.
To elaborate, phase 1 trials typically involve testing a drug on a small group of healthy individuals to assess its pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and dosage. Phase 2 trials involve testing the drug on actual patients with the condition it is intended to treat, to evaluate its efficacy and potential side effects.
In phase 3 trials, the new treatment is compared to existing treatments, which requires a much larger sample size than phase 1 and 2 trials. Phase 4 trials involve ongoing observation after the treatment has been approved for sale, to monitor any long-term effects.
There is no such thing as phase 5 trials.
Stages of Drug Development
Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.
Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.
Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.
If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.
In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon reviewing his records, you discover that he was recently admitted to the hospital due to a possible seizure. His wife witnessed unusual jerking movements while he was asleep, and he is currently undergoing investigations to rule out epilepsy. The consultant neurologist has advised him not to drive, but you saw him driving his bus just three days ago. When confronted, he admits to still driving and refuses to inform DVLA as he has not received a definite diagnosis and believes there is no issue. Despite informing him of his legal duty to inform DVLA, he still refuses. As a doctor, what is your duty in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should contact DVLA immediately disclosing the situation to them in confidence situation without the patient's knowledge
Explanation:DVLA Guidance and Doctor’s Duties in Cases of Seizures
This case highlights the importance of following DVLA guidance when it comes to seizures. If a driver experiences a seizure, they have a duty to inform DVLA and refrain from driving until a diagnosis is made. Depending on the diagnosis, they may be required to not drive for a further period.
According to GMC guidance, if a doctor advises a patient that they may not drive, they should suggest and arrange a second opinion for the patient. In this case, the doctor is the second opinion and a third opinion is not necessary.
If the patient refuses to inform DVLA of their condition, the doctor has a duty to disclose the information. However, they must inform the patient prior to the disclosure and confirm in writing that the disclosure has been made. It is important for doctors to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 80 year old man undergoes decompressive surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy. After three years, he complains of neck pain and hand paraesthesias. What is the recommended management strategy for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to spinal surgery or neurosurgery
Explanation:Patients with cervical myelopathy require ongoing follow-up after surgery as the pathology can recur at adjacent spinal levels that were not treated during the initial decompressive surgery. Recurrent symptoms should be treated with suspicion, and peripheral neuropathy should not be the primary diagnosis as delays in diagnosing and treating DCM can negatively impact outcomes. Urgent evaluation by specialist spinal services is necessary for all patients with recurrent symptoms, and axial spine imaging, such as an MRI scan, is the first line of investigation. AP and lateral radiographs are of limited use when myelopathy is suspected. Therefore, statements A and E are false, and statement C is also false.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is prescribed lithium for his bipolar disorder. What is the appropriate time interval before his plasma lithium should be checked for the first time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 days
Explanation:Monitoring Lithium Treatment: Guidelines and Recommendations
Before starting lithium treatment, it is important to conduct several tests, including ECG, thyroid function tests, renal function tests, and U&Es. After starting treatment, the plasma level should be checked after 7 days and then every 7 days until the required level is reached. The blood sample should be taken 12 hours after the dose has been taken. Once stable, the level should be checked every 3 months for the first year and 3-6 monthly depending on risk thereafter.
In addition to monitoring lithium levels, it is also important to regularly check thyroid function, calcium, eGFR, and U&Es every 6 months. Normal lithium levels vary between different laboratories but are generally about 0.6 – 1.0 mmol/l.
Lithium toxicity can occur at levels above the normal range and usually consists of gastrointestinal (anorexia, nausea, diarrhea) and central nervous system effects (muscle weakness, drowsiness, ataxia, coarse tremor, muscle twitching). Therefore, serum levels should also be taken during any intercurrent illness as this can increase toxicity.
Overall, monitoring lithium treatment is crucial for ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A preschool teacher arranges an educational session at the Preschool assembly where they talk about healthy eating. This could be best described as an example of which of the following concepts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Health promotion
Explanation:The RCGP curriculum includes Public Health as part of the statement on ‘Healthy People: promoting health and preventing disease,’ which are commonly encountered in Primary Care.
The nurse in this scenario is practicing health promotion, which is defined by the World Health Organisation as ‘the process of enabling people to increase control over, and to improve, their health.’
Health surveillance, as defined by WHO, involves the continuous and systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data for public health practice. An example of this is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.
Screening is the process of testing a population or selected subgroup for a disease in its early or pre-symptomatic stage to provide earlier treatment and improve outcomes. In the UK, examples of screening programs include breast screening, cervical screening, and bowel cancer screening. It is linked to the concept of secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a disease at an earlier stage to reduce morbidity and mortality.
Understanding Health Promotion and Surveillance
Health promotion refers to the process of empowering individuals to take control of their health and improve it. This is achieved through various means such as education, awareness campaigns, and access to healthcare services. The World Health Organisation defines health promotion as a continuous process that enables people to increase their control over their health.
On the other hand, health surveillance is the systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data. This data is used to plan, implement, and evaluate public health practices. Health surveillance is crucial in identifying health trends and patterns, which can help in the prevention and control of diseases. An example of health surveillance is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.
In summary, health promotion and surveillance are essential components of public health. Health promotion empowers individuals to take control of their health, while health surveillance provides valuable data that can be used to plan and implement effective public health interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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