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  • Question 1 - A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?

      Your Answer: Dizygotic twin

      Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin

      Explanation:

      An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with haematemesis. His consumption of alcohol has been estimated to be 120 units per week. Following alcohol withdrawal, when is the peak incidence of seizures expected in this patient?

      Your Answer: 36 hours

      Explanation:

      The peak incidence of seizures is expected 36 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal.

      Pathophysiology:
      Chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA mediated inhibition in the CNS (similar to benzodiazepines) and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. Alcohol withdrawal is thought to lead to the opposite (decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission).

      Clinical course in alcohol withdrawal:
      Symptoms begin 6-12 hours following the onset of alcohol withdrawal
      Seizures occur 36 hours following the onset of withdrawal
      Delirium tremens (coarse tremor, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, tachycardia) occurs approximately 72 hours after the onset of alcohol withdrawal.

      Management
      First-line: benzodiazepines e.g. lorazepam, chlordiazepoxide.
      Carbamazepine is also effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.
      Phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:

      Your Answer: Calcium resorption in proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets. On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

      ‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
      ‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
      ‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

      Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

      EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

      Examples of EAA include:

      Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.

      People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.

      A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 34 yr. old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 yr. old male presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for the past 2 weeks. On examination there was a mid-systolic murmur which is best heard at the apex and double apical impulse. His ECG showed left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). What is the risk factor which would be most indicative of the potential for sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Degree of left ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of hypertrophic obstructive cardiac myopathy. The degree of left ventricular hypertrophy is strongly associated with sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3...

    Incorrect

    • A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acid fast bacilli

      Explanation:

      History and CXR are suggestive of tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli should be seen on microscopy to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following listed below is not a recognised feature of anorexia...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following listed below is not a recognised feature of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Physiological abnormalities in anorexia include:
      – Hypokalaemia – from diuretic or laxative use
      – Low FSH, LH, oestrogens and testosterone – most consistent endocrine abnormality was low serum luteinizing and follicle stimulating hormone (LH and FSH) levels associated with depressed serum oestradiol levels.
      – Raised cortisol and growth hormone
      – Impaired glucose tolerance – lack of glucose precursors in the diet or low glycogen stores. Low blood glucose may also be due to impaired insulin clearance
      – Hypercholesterolemia
      – Hypercarotenaemia
      – Low T3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a large swollen right knee, after playing football with his son. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee joint. What should be the most appropriate first step of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous factor IX concentrate

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B (Christmas disease), is the deficiency of clotting factor IX and is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The factor IX level dictates the disease severity and established arthropathy is usually seen in those with severe disease.

      The aforementioned patient’s history and presentation is consistent with the development of hemarthrosis. Joint aspiration is not recommended. The treatment, therefore, should be intravenous replacement of the deficient clotting factor with plasma-derived factor IX concentrate.

      The other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Joint aspiration is not preferred over the administration of clotting factor as the first step of management.
      2. DDAVP (desmopressin) can increase factor VIII levels transiently in those with mild haemophilia A and is useful prior to minor surgical procedures in such patients.
      3. Cryoprecipitate is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor and is used in the treatment of haemophilia A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted to the hospital with headache, visual disturbances, pale conjunctivae, and breathlessness. While in the assessment unit, he has had an episode of nosebleed that has been difficult to control. On examination, his heart rate is 120bpm, blood pressure is 115/65 mmHg, and he is febrile with a temperature of 37°C. Fundoscopy shows dilated retinal veins with a retinal haemorrhage in the right eye. What is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasmapheresis

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying signs and symptoms of hyperviscosity syndrome, secondary to the Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia. Treatment of choice is plasmapheresis.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 27 year old female has been taken to A&E from a cinema...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old female has been taken to A&E from a cinema after complaining of sudden severe pain in the eyes. This is followed by seeing coloured halos and vomiting. She has a history of reoccurring headaches which used to resolve themselves. She is examined and is found to have a fixed, dilated ovoid pupil. Choose the most appropriate first investigation from the list.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Applanation tonometry

      Explanation:

      The darkness of the cinema room will have caused halfway dilation of the pupil. This can cause an acute attack of angle closure glaucoma. The appropriate test to diagnose this is applanation tonometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 57-year-old school teacher is found to have abnormal liver function tests at...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old school teacher is found to have abnormal liver function tests at a health screening. Other than tiredness and occasional gritty eyes that she attributes to age, she is well. She is postmenopausal and takes hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but no other medication. She smokes 12 cigarettes per day but takes no alcohol. There is nothing to find on examination. Some of her blood results are shown below: Albumin 40 g/l (37–49) Alanine aminotransferase(ALT) 14 U/l (5–35) Alkaline Phosphatase 300 U/l (45–105) AMA positive >1:40 Anti-dsDNA weakly positive Bilirubin 12 ÎĽmol/l (1–22) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l (>1.55) Liver–kidney microsomal antibody (anti-LKM) negative Liver transaminase (AST) 10 U/l (1–31) Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol 4.0 mmol/l (<3.36) Plasma thromboplastin (PT) 12 s (11.5–15.5) Smooth muscle antibody (SMA) negative Which of the following would be an appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      The patient is AMA+ and weakly + for anti-dsDNA, suggesting an autoimmune process. She also has gritty eyes, which makes you think Sjogren’s syndrome. She has an elevated ALP and normal AST/ ALT. All of these factors, in addition to her middle age and the fact that she is a woman, make the diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) most likely. It is associated with conditions (autoimmune) such as Sjogren’s syndrome. The treatment for this disease initially is ursodeoxycholic acid. Liver transplantation is the definitive treatment for end-stage disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain, especially 30 minutes after eating. This is associated with nausea and belching. She also describes constipation with occasional explosive diarrhoea. The stools are normally hard with mucus and she needs to strain with every motion. Abdominal pain is relieved after defecation but abdominal bloating persists. She wakes up an hour earlier each morning to finish her breakfast in order to prevent vomiting. She has missed work on a few occasions and feels that her weight has fluctuated. Past medical history includes scarlet fever. She is not on any regular medications except intermittent laxatives over the counter. Abdominal examination is normal. Rectal examination reveals an anal fissure. Investigation results: Haemoglobin (Hb 13.1 g/dL, White blood count (WBC) 6.0 Ă— 109/L, Platelets 180Ă— 109/L, Mean cell volume (MCV) 87 fL, International normalised ratio (INR) 1.0, Na+ 136 mmol/L, K+ 3.9 mmol/L, Urea 3.7 mmol/L, Creatinine 70 ÎĽmol/L, Albumin 39 glL. Liver function test normal. Anti-endomysial antibody negative. Thyroid function test normal. Gastroscopy normal. Flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy normal. Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scans are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis to account for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Overlap irritable bowel syndrome and functional dyspepsia

      Explanation:

      This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, of varying duration. It is a functional, not an organic problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: is treated with radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Malignant mesothelioma is a type of cancer that occurs in the thin layer of tissue that covers the majority of the internal organs (mesothelium).
      Malignant Mesothelioma (MM) is a rare but rapidly fatal and aggressive tumour of the pleura and peritoneum. Aetiology of all forms of mesothelioma is strongly associated with industrial pollutants, of which asbestos is the principal carcinogen.

      Thoracoscopically guided biopsy should be performed if mesothelioma is suggested; the results are diagnostic in 98% of cases. No specific treatment has been found to be of benefit, except radiotherapy, which reduces seeding and invasion through percutaneous biopsy sites.

      Median survival for patients with malignant mesothelioma is 11 months. It is almost always fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which was 320 ÎĽmol/L at her last clinic visit 3 weeks ago, is brought into the Emergency Department having been found collapsed at home by her partner. She is now fully conscious but complains of a headache.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      One of the most important complications in patients with PKD is being affected by berry aneurysms that may burst, causing a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which seems to be the case in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 16 - A 71 year-old dentist is seen in clinic with a history of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 71 year-old dentist is seen in clinic with a history of worsening memory problems and confusion. His wife had noted that his sleep was becoming more disturbed and he complains of vivid nightmares and visual hallucinations. Over the past few weeks, he has had increasing difficulty in dressing himself, and his mobility has deteriorated. On examination, he is bradykinesic with a resting tremor and rigidity affecting his arms and legs. His Mini-Mental-State Examination (MMSE) is 18/30. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lewy body disease

      Explanation:

      Lewy body dementia is the second most common cause of dementia in the elderly after Alzheimer’s disease. The core feature is a progressive dementia, but other characteristic features include Parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognitive abilities and executive function, and an increased risk of falls or autonomic failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81...

    Incorrect

    • The average weight of 64 patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus was 81 kg, with a standard deviation of 12 kg. What is the standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The SEM is dependent on the variation in the population and the number of the extracted samples. A large variation in the population causes a large difference in the sample means, ultimately resulting in a larger SEM. However, as more samples are extracted from the population, the sample means move closer to the population mean, which results in a smaller SEM. In short, the SEM is an indicator of how close the sample mean is to the population mean. Standard error of the mean = standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
      The standard error of the mean is calculated by the standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

      = 12 / square root (64) = 12 / 8 = 1.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried out. Which one of the following is mostly associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deletions of chromosome 5

      Explanation:

      Deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7 is a poor prognostic feature for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be diagnosed radiologically at birth

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is the most common type of short-limb disproportionate dwarfism. A single gene mapped to the short arm of chromosome 4 (band 4p16.3) is responsible for achondroplasia and is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait. All people with achondroplasia have a short stature.
      Characteristic features of achondroplasia include an average-size trunk, short arms and legs with particularly short upper arms and thighs, limited range of motion at the elbows, and an enlarged head (macrocephaly) with a prominent forehead. Fingers are typically short and the ring finger and middle finger may diverge, giving the hand a three-pronged (trident) appearance. People with achondroplasia are generally of normal intelligence.
      Examination of the infant after birth shows increased front-to-back head size. There may be signs of hydrocephalus. It may be diagnosed radiographically at birth, or becomes obvious within the first year with disparity between a large skull, normal trunk length and short limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old woman experiences weakness of her left hand. Clinical examination reveals wasting...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman experiences weakness of her left hand. Clinical examination reveals wasting of the hypothenar eminence and weakness of finger abduction and thumb adduction. The lesion is most probably located at:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Patients with compressive neuropathy of the ulnar nerve typically describe numbness and tingling of the ulnar-sided digits of the hand, classically in the small finger and ulnar aspect of the ring finger. Among the general population, symptoms usually begin intermittently and are often worse at night, particularly if the elbow is flexed while sleeping. As the disease progresses, paraesthesia may occur more frequently and during the daytime.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
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