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Question 1
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A 60-year-old man with type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic with his wife. He is limping and his wife noticed that his ankle was abnormally-shaped after he stepped out of the shower. Examination of his right ankle reveals a painless warm swollen joint. There is crepitus and what appears to be palpable bone debris. X-ray reveals gross joint destruction and apparent dislocation. Joint aspiration fluid shows no microbes. Investigations: His CRP and white count are of normal values. Historical review of HB A1c reveals that it has rarely been below 9%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Charcot’s ankle
Explanation:Charcot arthropathy is a progressive condition of the musculoskeletal system that is characterized by joint dislocations, pathologic fractures, and debilitating deformities. It results in progressive destruction of bone and soft tissues at weight-bearing joints. In its most severe form, it may cause significant disruption of the bony architecture.
Charcot arthropathy can occur at any joint; however, it occurs most commonly in the lower extremity, at the foot and ankle. Diabetes is now considered to be the most common aetiology of Charcot arthropathy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Is most commonly caused by Haemophilus influenzae
Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele
Explanation:The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
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A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease. What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?
Your Answer: Bradykinin
Explanation:Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l. You advise him to start fibrate therapy. Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?
Your Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis
Explanation:Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
Your Answer: Aneurysm coiling
Correct Answer: Heparin
Explanation:This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male patient, who is otherwise healthy and without a significant family history, presents with a history of early morning headache and visual field defects, When asked, he said that he has been having these complaints for three months now. What is the most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour
Explanation:The most possible diagnosis is a pituitary tumour. Pituitary tumours compress the optic chiasm inferiorly and can cause visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia or quadrantanopia). Temporal arteritis usually develops in older people and acute glaucoma usually requires a family history. Amaurosis fugax is classed as a stroke and usually leads to reversible unilateral vision loss. A subconjunctival haemorrhage does not typically produce the symptoms described.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old obese woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Which of the following findings is most consistently seen in PCOS?
Your Answer: Raised LH:FSH ratio
Correct Answer: Ovarian cysts on ultrasound
Explanation:The diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is based on hyperandrogenism or chronic anovulation in the absence of specific pituitary and/or adrenal disease.
Pelvic ultrasonography may be very helpful in the evaluation as well, but polycystic ovaries are not specific for PCOS with over 20% of “normal” women having this finding. The number of follicles and ovary volume are both important in the ultrasound evaluation. The criteria for PCOS put forth by Adams et al. are the most often cited: the presence of ≥10 cysts measuring 2–8 mm around a dense core of stroma or scattered within an increased amount of stroma.
A recent proposal to modify these criteria has been put forth by Jonard et al.: “increased ovarian area (>5.5cm2) or volume (>11 mL) and/or presence of ≥12 follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter (mean of both ovaries)”.
These criteria have a specificity of 99% and a sensitivity of 75% for the diagnosis of PCOS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?
Your Answer: Androgen receptor antagonist
Correct Answer: GnRH agonist
Explanation:Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:
Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.
Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.
Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presented with polydipsia and polyuria for the last two years. Investigations reveal: Serum urea 9.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 108 mol/L (60-110), Serum corrected calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.2-2.6), Serum phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), Plasma parathyroid hormone 6.5 pmol/L (0.9-5.4). Which of the following is directly responsible for the increase in intestinal calcium absorption?
Your Answer: 1,25 Dihydroxy vitamin D
Explanation:This patient has hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism. However, the intestinal absorption of calcium is mainly controlled by 1,25 dihydroxy-vitamin D. Under the influence of calcitriol (active form of vitamin D), intestinal epithelial cells increase their synthesis of calbindin (calcium-binding carrier protein) necessary for active calcium ion absorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an indication for an implantable cardiac defibrillator?
Your Answer: Previous myocardial infarction with non-sustained VT on 24 hr monitoring
Correct Answer: Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome
Explanation:Class I indications (i.e., the benefit greatly outweighs the risk, and the treatment should be administered): -Structural heart disease, sustained VT
-Syncope of undetermined origin, inducible VT or VF at electrophysiologic study (EPS)
-Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤35% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤35%, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤30% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI
-LVEF ≤40% due to prior MI, inducible VT or VF at EPSClass IIa indications (i.e., the benefit outweighs the risk and it is reasonable to administer the treatment):
-Unexplained syncope, significant LV dysfunction, nonischaemic cardiomyopathy
-Sustained VT, normal or near-normal ventricular function
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with 1 or more major risk factors
-Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia/cardiomyopathy (ARVD/C) with 1 or more risk factors for sudden cardiac death (SCD)
-Long QT syndrome, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Nonhospitalized patients awaiting heart transplant
-Brugada syndrome, syncope or VT
-Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Cardiac sarcoidosis, giant cell myocarditis, or Chagas disease -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with upper GI haemorrhage. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which she is managed with low dose prednisolone, diclofenac and codeine phosphate. On examination in the Emergency ward her BP is 90/60 mmHg, pulse 100/min. You fluid resuscitate her and her BP improves to 115/80 mmHg, with a pulse of 80/min. Investigations; Hb 10.4 g/dL, WCC 6.1 x109/L, PLT 145 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 180 μmol/L, ECG – Lateral ST depression , Upper GI endoscopy reveals a large bleeding ulcer on the posterior aspect of the duodenum. It cannot be easily reached with the endoscope, and you decide to attempt embolization. Which of the following is the artery that should be targeted?
Your Answer: Anterior Superior Pancreaticoduodenal artery
Correct Answer: Posterior superior Pancreaticoduodenal artery
Explanation:The most common location for a duodenal ulcer bleed is the posterior duodenum (remember: posterior bleeds, anterior perforates). The perfusion to this area is most specifically from the posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
The anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the anterior region. The gastroepiploic artery supplies mostly the stomach. The splenic artery goes, obviously, toward the spleen, in the other direction. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the celiac artery, and it’s branches are the anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one days ago, he underwent allogeneic bone marrow transplant for high-risk acute myeloid leukaemia. The rash was initially maculopapular affecting his palms and soles but 24 hours later, general erythroderma is noted involving the trunk and limbs. Other than that, he remains asymptomatic. His total bilirubin was previously normal but is now noted to be 40 μmol/L (1-22). How would you manage the patient at this stage?
Your Answer: High-dose methylprednisolone
Correct Answer:
Explanation:This is a classical picture of graft versus host disease (GVHD) following bone marrow transplant. Acute GVHD occurs in the first 100 days post transplant with chronic GVHD occurring 100-300 days after transplant. GVHD is graded according to the Seattle system, and each organ involved is scored (skin, liver, and gut).
The standard initial treatment in the acute setting is high-dose methylprednisolone started immediately. If there is no response, a more intensive immunosuppressive agent such as alemtuzumab or antilymphocyte globulin is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?
Your Answer: Raised serum haptoglobins
Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination: BP: 101/74 mmHg RR: 22 breaths/min PR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?
Your Answer: Overactive elastase enzyme leading to an excessive breakdown of collagen
Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin
Explanation:Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On examination, you notice grey membranes on the uvula and tonsils and a low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scarlet fever
Correct Answer: Diphtheria
Explanation:Characteristic findings on patients suffering from diphtheria are the grey membrane on the uvula and tonsils together with the low grade fever and dyspnoea. It’s of great importance that the patient has recently been to India where there is a know prevalence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 18 year old prospective medical student is tested for hepatitis B. Her liver tests show alanine transaminase (ALT) 120 U/L and serology shows her to be positive for HBsAg, HBcAb and HBeAg, with a viral load of 105 genome equivalents/mL. A liver biopsy is reported as showing early fibrosis with evidence of moderate inflammation. Which of the following treatments should be offered?
Your Answer: Entecavir
Correct Answer: Interferon alfa 2b
Explanation:Interferon alfa alone, not interferon alfa and ribavirin, has been shown to achieve HBeAg seroconversion for patients with HBeAg-positive chronic hepatitis B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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Where is the site of action of spironolactone?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?
Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:The following are conditions commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum:
Inflammatory bowel disease:
– Ulcerative colitis
– Crohn’s disease
Arthritides:
– Rheumatoid arthritis
– Seronegative arthritis
Haematological disease:
– Myelocytic leukaemia[8]
– Hairy cell leukaemia
– Myelofibrosis
– Myeloid metaplasia
– Monoclonal gammopathy
Autoinflammatory disease:
– Pyogenic sterile arthritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, and acne syndrome (PAPA syndrome)
– Granulomatosis with polyangiitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 30-year-old female is brought by her concerned mother. The patient reports that the president is secretly in love with her, despite the fact that there has never been any contact between them. What is the probable psychiatric condition from which the patient is suffering from?
Your Answer: De Clerambault's syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is De Clerambault’s syndrome, also known as erotomania, which is a form of paranoid delusion with an amorous quality. The patient, often a single woman, believes that a famous person is in love with her.
Other options:
– Bouffée délirante is an acute psychotic disorder in which hallucinations, delusions or perceptual disturbances are obvious but markedly variable, changing from day to day or even from hour to hour.
– Fregoli delusion is the mistaken belief that some people currently present in the deluded person’s environment (typically a stranger) is a familiar person in disguise.
– Capgras delusion is the belief that significant others have been replaced by impostors, robots or aliens.
– Couvade is the common but poorly understood phenomenon whereby the expectant father experiences somatic symptoms during the pregnancy for which there is no recognized physiological basis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65 year old gentleman presented with 4 months history of a non healing lesion over the right ear. It is about 1cm in size and bleeds when palpated. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma like other skin cancers mostly arise on photo exposed sites. A patient usually presents with a history of a non healing lesion or wound. Confirmatory diagnosis requires a skin biopsy and histopathological screening. It is rarely metastatic and treatment of choice is surgical excision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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