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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with fatigue and shortness of breath. He states that he is taking methotrexate for psoriasis. The GP takes some bloods, and finds the following results in his full blood count (FBC):
Hb 90 g/L
MCV 90 fL
Platelets 70 * 109/L
WBC 2.5 * 109/L
Neuts 1.5 * 109/L)
Lymphs 0.7 * 109/L
Mono 0.2 * 109/L
Eosin 0.1 * 109/L
The GP suspects this to be an adverse effect of methotrexate.
What adverse effect is indicated by these results?Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: Pancytopaenia
Explanation:The patient’s blood test indicates a decrease in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which is known as pancytopenia. This condition is caused by severe bone marrow suppression, which is a common side effect of methotrexate. Anemia, on the other hand, would only result in a low hemoglobin level and cannot account for the low platelet and white blood cell counts.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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An 80-year-old man with symptoms of intermittent claudication needs to have his ankle brachial pressure indices checked. However, the dorsalis pedis artery cannot be felt. What tendinous structure, located medially, could aid in its identification?
Your Answer: Extensor hallucis longus tendon
Explanation:The dorsalis pedis artery is located lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman with a bony Bankart lesion who suffers from recurrent dislocations is scheduled to have a Laterjet procedure. Your consultant has asked you to scrub in and assist with the procedure. During your pre-operative conversation with the patient, she inquires about the procedure. You explain that the surgery involves relocating the coracoid process, along with its associated muscles, to the front of the glenoid where the bony Bankart lesion is located. Which of the subsequent structures do not connect to the coracoid process?
Your Answer: Long head of biceps brachii
Explanation:The correct answer is the long head of biceps brachii, which originates from the supraglenoid tubercle. The coracoid process of the scapula serves as the site of origin for coracobrachialis and the short head of biceps brachii, as well as the site of insertion for pectoralis minor. Additionally, it serves as the attachment site for the coracoclavicular, coracoacromial, and coracohumeral ligaments.
During the Laterjet procedure, a portion of the coracoid process and its attached muscles are removed and repositioned to the front of the glenoid. This helps to prevent dislocation by using the coracoid as a block and reinforcing the front of the shoulder capsule. This procedure is typically performed to treat a bony Bankart lesion, which is a bone lesion in the anterior glenoid fossa that can cause anterior dislocation of the shoulder joint.
The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Correct
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An 80-year-old falls in the garden. She arrives at the emergency department with left leg pain and is unable to bear weight. Upon examination, her left leg is shortened and externally rotated. An x-ray is conducted in the emergency department, revealing an intracapsular fracture of the left neck of femur. The medical team reviews the imaging and expresses concern about osteonecrosis of the femoral head.
Which artery's damage is the most concerning in this case?Your Answer: Medial circumflex femoral artery
Explanation:The medial femoral circumflex artery is the primary supplier of blood to the femoral head. This artery wraps around the back of the femur to provide blood to the neck and head of the femur. In cases of femoral neck fractures, damage to this artery can occur, leading to a disruption of blood supply and resulting in osteonecrosis of the femoral head.
The deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris, is a branch of the femoral artery that supplies the deep tissues of the thigh. It branches into the lateral and medial femoral circumflex arteries and the perforating arteries, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.
The femoral artery is responsible for providing blood supply to the lower limb, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.
The lateral femoral circumflex artery wraps around the front and side of the femur to supply the femoral neck and musculature on the lateral aspect of the thigh. While it does provide some blood supply to the femoral head, it is not the primary supplier and is therefore not the correct answer.
The popliteal artery is a continuation of the femoral artery at the adductor hiatus and supplies the knee, lower leg, and foot. It is not directly involved in the blood supply to the femoral head and is therefore not the correct answer.
Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply
The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.
The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Correct
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A teenage boy arrives at the hospital with a biking injury. An X-ray reveals that he has fractured both his tibia and fibula. The medical team applies a cast to his leg.
However, just an hour later, the boy is experiencing excruciating pain despite receiving regular doses of morphine. As a result, the doctors decide to remove his cast.
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer: Notify the orthopaedic surgeon and theatre team
Explanation:The appropriate course of action in this scenario is to notify the orthopaedic surgeon and theatre team immediately for an urgent fasciotomy. Sedation, increased pain relief, or reapplying a vacuum splint would not be helpful and could potentially worsen the situation.
Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Even if a pulse is present, compartment syndrome cannot be ruled out. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20mmHg being abnormal and over 40mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may experience myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true in relation to the sartorius muscle?
Your Answer: Causes extension of the knee
Correct Answer: Forms the Pes anserinus with Gracilis and semitendinous muscle
Explanation:The superficial branch of the femoral nerve provides innervation to it. It is a constituent of the pes anserinus.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A young adult presents to the emergency department on a Sunday morning after a night out with friends. Upon waking up, they realize they had fallen asleep with their arm draped over the back of a park bench and are now diagnosed with a radial nerve injury. Which muscle is expected to exhibit weakness during examination as a result of this injury?
Your Answer: Dorsal interossei
Correct Answer: Extensor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The radial nerve supplies all extensor muscles in the upper limb, including the extensor carpi ulnaris. The only exception is the brachioradialis muscle, which is not an extensor. The median nerve is responsible for wrist and finger flexion, as well as thumb opposition, while the ulnar nerve innervates the interossei muscles.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of multiple deep vein thromboses presents with pain around the medial side of their leg. On examination, venous eczema, lipodermatosclerosis, and overlying erythema are noted around the medial malleolus.
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this condition in a slightly older patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Four-layer compression bandaging
Explanation:Venous ulcers typically develop in the gaiter region, specifically around the medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index and venous duplex ultrasound are diagnostic tools used to investigate ulcers, not treat them. The primary conservative treatment for venous ulcers is four-layer compression bandaging. If conservative measures fail, surgical debridgement may be considered. There is limited evidence supporting the use of intermittent pneumatic compression devices for venous ulcers.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles is not involved in shoulder adduction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The shoulder abductor is the supraspinatus.
The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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During a placement at a GP practice, a 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. As part of the examination, the GP palpates her patella. What category of bone does the patella belong to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sesamoid bone
Explanation:The patella, which is the largest sesamoid bone in the body, shares an articular space with the femur and tibia. Sesamoid bones are embedded in tendons and often pass over joints to protect the tendon from damage.
Long bones, such as the femur, humerus, tibia, and fibula, have a body that is longer than it is wide.
Short bones, like the carpals, are as wide as they are long.
Flat bones are plate-like structures that serve to protect vital organs.
Irregular bones, such as the vertebrae and mandible, do not fit into any of the other categories.
Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults
Knee problems are common in children and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that affects teenage girls and is characterized by softening of the cartilage of the patella. This can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. However, it usually responds well to physiotherapy.
Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking. Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella, and the knee may give way. Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys and causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. It is tender below the patella on examination.
It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male is scheduled for hernia repair surgery where the mesh will be sutured to the inguinal ligament. What is the origin of the inguinal ligament?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The external oblique aponeurosis forms the inguinal ligament, which extends from the pubic tubercle to the anterior superior iliac spine.
Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall
The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.
The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.
During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a complaint of right arm pain. He reports that the pain started abruptly while lifting weights at the gym and that his arm feels weaker than usual.
Upon performing an ultrasound of the upper arm, a distal biceps tendon tear is identified.
Which specific movement is expected to be impacted by this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supination and elbow flexion
Explanation:The biceps brachii is mainly responsible for supination and elbow flexion. If the tendon associated with this muscle is torn, it can affect these movements.
External rotation is primarily performed by the infraspinatus and teres minor muscles, not the biceps brachii.
The teres major muscle, not the biceps brachii, is responsible for internal rotation.
Pronation is performed by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, while elbow flexion is performed by the triceps muscle. Therefore, these actions are not associated with the biceps brachii.
Shoulder abduction involves muscles such as the supraspinatus and deltoid, but it does not involve the biceps brachii.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the metastatic bone tumours mentioned below is most susceptible to pathological fracture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peritrochanteric lesion from a carcinoma of the breast
Explanation:Fracture risks are highest in peritrochanteric lesions due to loading. Lytic lesions from breast cancer are at greater risk of fracture compared to the sclerotic lesions from prostate cancer.
Understanding the Risk of Fracture in Metastatic Bone Disease
Metastatic bone disease is a condition where cancer cells spread to the bones from other parts of the body. The risk of fracture in this condition varies depending on the type of metastatic bone tumour. Osteoblastic metastatic disease has the lowest risk of spontaneous fracture compared to osteolytic lesions of a similar size. However, lesions affecting the peritrochanteric region are more prone to spontaneous fracture due to loading forces at that site. To stratify the risk of spontaneous fracture for bone metastasis of varying types, the Mirel Scoring system is used. This system takes into account the site of the lesion, radiographic appearance, width of bone involved, and pain. Depending on the score, the treatment plan may involve prophylactic fixation, consideration of fixation, or non-operative management. Understanding the risk of fracture in metastatic bone disease is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which structure divides the cephalic vein and the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biceps muscle
Explanation:The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance
The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.
There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.
The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after colliding with a lamppost while riding his bicycle. He reports experiencing left arm pain and limited mobility.
Upon examination, there is noticeable swelling and bruising in the left upper arm, along with a visible deformity. The left shoulder has reduced abduction.
After an X-ray, it is confirmed that the patient has a fractured neck of the left humerus.
What is the most probable additional sign that will be present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of sensation over C5 dermatome
Explanation:The likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is an axillary nerve injury, which can result from a fractured neck of the humerus. This nerve originates from the C5 nerve root, which also provides innervation to the regimental badge area, leading to a loss of sensation in that region.
However, the patient is unlikely to experience a loss of sensation in the lateral 3 and 1/2 fingers, reduced internal rotation of the shoulder, a reduced pincer grip, or a winged scapula as these symptoms are not associated with an axillary nerve injury.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to his GP with limited mobility in his right hip. He has a long-standing history of mid and lower back pain due to his work in a lumberyard. During the examination, reduced flexion and external rotation of the hip are observed. The patient reports experiencing weakness and limited range of motion during single-leg squats on the affected side, but not during regular two-legged squats. What is the probable lower limb structure affected, leading to this patient's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoas muscle
Explanation:The main muscle responsible for hip flexion is the iliopsoas group, which includes the psoas muscle. These muscles are controlled by nerves originating from L1 to L4 and also contribute to lateral rotation of the hip.
Femoroacetabular impingement is a condition characterized by hip and groin pain that worsens with prolonged sitting and is often accompanied by snapping, clicking, or locking of the hip. It is caused by an abnormality in hip anatomy that leads to contact between the femur and acetabulum rim.
Meralgia paresthetica is a condition caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, resulting in sensory symptoms such as numbness or tingling in the outer thigh. This nerve is not responsible for motor function and therefore would not cause weakness or paralysis.
A meniscal tear is a common knee injury that can cause locking and giving way of the knee joint. A positive Thessaly’s test, which involves standing on one leg and twisting the body in internal or external rotation, may elicit pain in individuals with a meniscal tear.
Trochanteric bursitis is a condition characterized by lateral groin pain and tenderness over the greater trochanter, which is a bony prominence on the femur.
The Psoas Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Innervation, and Action
The psoas muscle is a deep-seated muscle that originates from the transverse processes of the five lumbar vertebrae and the superficial part originates from T12 and the first four lumbar vertebrae. It inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur and is innervated by the anterior rami of L1 to L3.
The main action of the psoas muscle is flexion and external rotation of the hip. When both sides of the muscle contract, it can raise the trunk from the supine position. The psoas muscle is an important muscle for maintaining proper posture and movement, and it is often targeted in exercises such as lunges and leg lifts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents at the outpatient clinic after a routine surgery and reports reduced sensation on the dorso-lateral aspect of her foot. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sural
Explanation:The lateral aspect of the foot is innervated by the sural nerve, which travels parallel to the short saphenous vein. During surgery on the short saphenous vein, there is a risk of damaging the sural nerve.
Cutaneous Sensation in the Foot
Cutaneous sensation in the foot is the ability to feel touch, pressure, temperature, and pain on the skin of the foot. Different regions of the foot are innervated by different nerves, which are responsible for transmitting sensory information to the brain. The lateral plantar region is innervated by the sural nerve, while the dorsum (excluding the 1st web space) is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. The 1st web space is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve, and the extremities of the toes are innervated by the medial and lateral plantar nerves. The proximal plantar region is innervated by the tibial nerve, while the medial plantar region is innervated by the medial plantar nerve and the lateral plantar region is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve. Understanding the innervation of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect cutaneous sensation in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He has no visible wounds or head trauma, but he is experiencing left lower limb pain and is unable to walk. Upon examination, he displays a high stepping gait and there is swelling and deformity below the knee. An X-ray confirms a fractured neck of the fibula.
Which function is most likely impacted in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsiflexion of foot
Explanation:A fibular neck fracture can result in foot drop due to common peroneal nerve injury. The nerve is often injured because it winds around the neck of the fibula. The common peroneal nerve is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, and an injury to this nerve can cause foot drop, which is characterized by a high stepping gait. In foot drop, the foot appears floppy, and the toes point downward, scraping the ground while walking. The patient tends to lift their foot very high to avoid dragging it on the ground. Eversion of the foot is not the correct answer, as it is controlled by the superficial peroneal nerve. Flexion of toes is also an incorrect answer, as it is controlled by the medial plantar nerve.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteal lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on his left anterior chest wall that extends to his back and under his armpit, but does not cross the midline. The rash has been present for one day, and he has been feeling lethargic for three days. Based on these symptoms, what virus do you suspect is causing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Explanation:The Varicella zoster virus (VZV) is the correct answer. Shingles is a painful rash that typically appears in a dermatomal distribution and does not usually cross the mid-line. VZV is the virus responsible for causing chickenpox, and after the initial infection, it can remain dormant in nerve cells for many years. Shingles occurs when VZV reactivates. Additional information on shingles can be found below.
Epstein-Barr virus is primarily linked to infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever).
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is associated with viral warts, and some strains are linked to gynecological malignancies. Due to their potential to cause cancer, some types of HPV are now vaccinated against.
Herpes simplex virus is associated with oral or genital herpes infections.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The Trendelenburg test evaluates the integrity of which muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gluteus medius
Explanation:The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function
The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.
When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.
To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.
It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old motorcyclist is rushed to the emergency department following a car collision. Upon examination, it is discovered that the lower left limb has suffered a compound fracture.
The patient undergoes surgery to treat the injuries with open reduction and internal fixation. Despite intensive physiotherapy, the patient experiences an abnormal gait after the surgery. The left foot's plantarflexion and inversion power are measured at 2/5.
Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The patient experiences a loss of the ability to plantarflex and invert their foot, which is likely due to damage to the tibial nerve.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A thirty-four-year-old man is experiencing pain in his right gluteal region that radiates down his leg. The pain worsens when he runs or sits for extended periods, and he is concerned as he is training for a half-marathon. An MRI scan shows that one of his lateral hip rotators has hypertrophied and is compressing his sciatic nerve.
Which muscle is responsible for compressing the sciatic nerve in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Piriformis
Explanation:P-GO-GO-Q is a mnemonic for remembering the lateral hip rotators in order from top to bottom: Piriformis, Gemellus superior, Obturator internus, Gemellus inferior, and Obturator externus.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 42 year old woman comes to your general practice with a complaint of right wrist pain that has been bothering her for a year. The pain worsens with flexion and she rates it as a 7 on the pain scale. She has tried pain medication but with little success. Upon examination, there is no indication of synovitis, but a small effusion is present in the right wrist. Onycholysis is also observed. Purple plaques are present on the extensor surfaces of the elbows bilaterally. What is the clinical diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is strongly linked to psoriasis, with skin and nail bed changes serving as indicators of this related pathological process. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation. For comprehensive information on these conditions, Arthritis Research UK is a valuable resource.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A woman is undergoing excision of a sub mandibular gland. During the procedure, a vessel is damaged that is located between the gland and the mandible. What is the most probable identity of this vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial artery
Explanation:Stone formation is favored by the thick consistency of submandibular gland secretions. Additionally, the majority of stones are visible on radiographs. During gland removal surgery, the facial artery is typically tied off as it runs between the gland and mandible. The lingual artery may also be encountered later in the procedure when Wharton’s duct is being moved.
Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland
The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.
The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old patient with a past medical history of Crohn's disease is initiated on azathioprine. What is the mode of action of azathioprine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits purine synthesis
Explanation:The active compound mercaptopurine, which inhibits purine synthesis, is produced through the metabolism of azathioprine, a purine analogue.
Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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During pronation and supination, which bones are involved in movement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rotation of the radius on the ulna
Explanation:The movement of the arm’s pronation and supination is caused by the rotation of the radius bone, while the ulna bone remains still. This movement involves two joints: the proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints. The humerus bone remains stationary during this process, while the radial head rotates on the humerus’s capitulum. It’s worth noting that the distal carpal bones don’t move in relation to the distal radius during pronation and supination.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male comes to you with sudden onset back pain following weightlifting at the gym. He reports a sharp pain that travels from his lower back down his legs. During the physical examination, you observe that the pain is replicated when he is lying on his back and you lift his leg. Additionally, he has decreased sensation on the top of his foot. Based on these findings, you suspect that he may have a herniated intervertebral disc.
Which level is the most probable location of the herniated disc?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L5-S1
Explanation:When a disc herniates at the L5-S1 level, it can impact the L5 spinal nerve and result in a loss of sensation on the top of the foot. Additionally, it can affect the function of the sciatic nerve, leading to pain that travels down the leg from the lower back. This pain can be detected through the sciatic nerve stretch test.
If the disc herniation occurs at the L3-L4 level, it can cause a loss of sensation in the front of the thigh and knee. The femoral nerve stretch test would be positive in this case.
Finally, if the disc herniation is at the S1-S2 level, it can cause a loss of sensation on the back and side of the leg, as well as the outer edge of the foot.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with elbow pain after falling onto his outstretched hand at work. The fall occurred with his elbow fully extended. An x-ray confirms a fracture of his medial epicondyle.
During the examination, the patient reports reduced sensation on the medial side of his palm and some weakness in his wrist. Based on the nerve likely affected, what muscle may also exhibit weakness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris, which is supplied by the ulnar nerve. If there is an injury to the medial epicondyle, it may result in damage to the ulnar nerve, which runs posterior to the medial epicondyle. This nerve injury would cause sensory loss in the medial portion of the hand. The ulnar nerve supplies intrinsic muscles of the hand, hypothenar muscles, and the flexor carpi ulnaris, which aids in wrist flexion and adduction.
Coracobrachialis is an incorrect answer. It is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and aids in arm flexion at the shoulder. The musculocutaneous nerve is rarely injured in isolation.
Extensor carpi ulnaris is also an incorrect answer. It is innervated by the radial nerve and controls wrist extension and adduction. Mid-shift fractures of the humerus may damage the radial nerve.
Flexor carpi radialis is another incorrect answer. It is innervated by the median nerve and controls wrist flexion and abduction.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During a lower limb examination, a 54-year-old female patient is observed by the GP to have a right-sided pelvic drop while walking, which is identified as a positive Trendelenburg sign. Which specific muscle or group of muscles is weakened in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
Explanation:The Trendelenburg sign test evaluates the strength of the abductor muscles of the hip, specifically the gluteus medius and minimus. During the gait cycle, the contralateral abductor muscles are necessary to prevent the pelvis from dropping to the side of the stance leg when the patient stands on one leg. A positive Trendelenburg sign on the right side indicates weakness in the left gluteus medius and minimus, which are responsible for lifting the pelvis.
The Trendelenburg sign test assesses the contralateral muscles that contract to maintain a straight pelvis. Therefore, if the pelvis tilts to the right, the left gluteus medius and gluteus minimus are likely weak.
It’s important to note that the gluteus maximus is not involved in hip abduction and is not tested with this test. Additionally, the adductor muscles, including the adductor magnus, help stabilize the leg and prevent outward movement, and are not evaluated with the Trendelenburg sign test.
The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function
The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.
When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.
To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.
It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female with uncontrolled rheumatoid arthritis and a history of extensive large bowel surgery is prescribed sulfasalazine, a prodrug. However, the consultant is concerned that her shortened colon may hinder the conversion of the prodrug into its active form.
What is the name of the therapeutically active compound that sulfasalazine is converted to in the colon?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-ASA (5-aminosalicylates)
Explanation:Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be taken when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old female experiences a fall and is brought to the emergency department. X-rays reveal a displaced fracture above the greater and lesser trochanter of the proximal femur on the right side. What would be the best surgical approach for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemiarthroplasty
Explanation:When a hip fracture occurs within the joint capsule, there is a higher chance of the femoral head experiencing avascular necrosis. This type of fracture is considered displaced and requires treatment with hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement, especially for older patients. However, younger patients may opt for hip fixation instead of replacement as prosthetic joints have a limited lifespan.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.
Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A basketball enthusiast in his early twenties visits his GP complaining of discomfort in his right shoulder and neck, and also reports an unusual appearance on the right side of his upper back.
To assess the condition, the GP asks the patient to stand facing a wall and extend his arms straight in front of him, with his palms flat against the wall. The GP then instructs the patient to bend his arms and push away from the wall. During the movement, the patient's right shoulder blade protrudes from his back.
Based on the symptoms, which nerve is most likely to be affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve
Explanation:The correct nerve that supplies the serratus anterior muscle is the long thoracic nerve. This muscle is responsible for pulling the scapula around the thorax, and damage to this nerve can cause medial winging of the scapula.
The axillary nerve is not the correct answer as it supplies the deltoid muscle, which is responsible for shoulder abduction. Damage to this nerve results in a flattened deltoid muscle, not winging of the scapula.
The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii muscle, which is responsible for elbow flexion. Damage to this nerve does not affect the scapulae.
The spinal accessory nerve supplies the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, and injury to this nerve may result in difficulty turning the head from side to side or shrugging the shoulders. It does not affect the scapulae.
Trauma to the thoracodorsal nerve may cause atrophy of the latissimus dorsi muscle and difficulty moving the affected shoulder, but it does not cause winging of the scapula.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which one of the following relationship descriptions regarding the scalene muscles is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The subclavian artery passes posterior to the middle scalene
Explanation:The middle scalene is located posterior to the subclavian artery.
The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.
The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.
In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves is responsible for the motor innervation of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accessory nerve
Explanation:The accessory nerve provides the motor supply to the sternocleidomastoid, while the ansa cervicalis is responsible for supplying sensory information from the muscle.
The Sternocleidomastoid Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is a large muscle located in the neck that plays an important role in head and neck movement. It is named after its origin and insertion points, which are the sternum, clavicle, mastoid process, and occipital bone. The muscle is innervated by the spinal part of the accessory nerve and the anterior rami of C2 and C3, which provide proprioceptive feedback.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle has several actions, including extending the head at the atlanto-occipital joint and flexing the cervical vertebral column. It also serves as an accessory muscle of inspiration. When only one side of the muscle contracts, it can laterally flex the neck and rotate the head so that the face looks upward to the opposite side.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles, which are important landmarks for medical professionals. The anterior triangle contains several important structures, including the carotid artery, jugular vein, and thyroid gland. The posterior triangle contains the brachial plexus, accessory nerve, and several lymph nodes.
Overall, the sternocleidomastoid muscle is a crucial muscle for head and neck movement and plays an important role in the anatomy of the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of ankle pain. He has been training for a marathon and running up to 60 miles per week. During the examination, he experiences difficulty flexing his four lateral toes. The GP suspects tenosynovitis affecting his flexor digitorium longus.
Which other muscles are part of the affected leg compartment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and popliteus
Explanation:The muscles located in the deep posterior compartment include the Tibialis posterior, Flexor hallucis longus, Flexor digitorum longus, and Popliteus. The Flexor digitorum longus muscle is specifically affected in this compartment.
Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb
The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.
The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.
The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.
Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.
Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department by her husband after a fall at home. Upon assessment by the orthopaedics team, it is observed that she is holding her right arm adducted to her side and there is deformity of the proximal arm and shoulder with overlying skin ecchymosis and swelling. Neurovascular examination reveals palpable distal pulses and some paraesthesia over the deltoid region, but loss of active shoulder abduction is noted. What structure is likely to have been affected by this patient's injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The correct nerve that is likely injured in a patient with difficulty abducting their arm following a humeral neck fracture is the axillary nerve. This nerve provides motor function to the deltoid muscle, which is responsible for arm abduction at the shoulder joint, and cutaneous sensation to the deltoid region. Proximal humerus fractures, which are common in individuals of the patient’s age and gender, can often result in injury to the axillary nerve.
The brachial plexus is an incorrect answer as injuries to this nerve bundle are rare and would likely result in neurological dysfunction beyond the shoulder. The musculocutaneous nerve is also an incorrect answer as it provides motor function to the anterior compartment of the arm and sensation to the lateral forearm, but not to the deltoid region. The radial nerve is also an incorrect answer as it is typically injured in humeral shaft fractures and would result in wrist drop and paresthesia over the dorsal hand and wrist. The suprascapular nerve is also an incorrect answer as it provides motor innervation to different muscles and sensation to different joints than those affected in this case.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of pain in his right hand following a fall during a football match earlier in the day. Upon conducting a thorough hand examination, you identify that the pain is concentrated in the anatomical snuffbox. To investigate a possible scaphoid bone fracture, you order an x-ray.
Which structure, passing through the anatomical snuffbox, is most likely to have been affected by this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The radial artery
Explanation:The radial artery is the only structure that passes through the anatomical snuffbox and is commonly injured by scaphoid bone fractures, as it runs over the bone at the snuffbox. Therefore, it is the most likely structure to be affected by such a fracture.
The median nerve does not pass through the anatomical snuffbox, but rather through the carpal tunnel, so it is less likely to be injured by a scaphoid fracture.
While the radial nerve does pass through the snuffbox, it is the superficial branch, not the deep branch, that does so. Therefore, if a scaphoid bone fracture were to damage the radial nerve, it would likely affect the superficial branch rather than the deep branch.
The basilic vein does not pass through the anatomical snuffbox, but rather travels along the ulnar side of the arm. The cephalic vein is the vein that passes through the snuffbox.
The extensor pollicis longus tendon forms the medial border of the snuffbox, but it is not one of its contents. It runs relatively superficially and is therefore less likely to be affected by a scaphoid bone fracture than a structure that runs closer to the bone, such as the radial artery.
The Anatomical Snuffbox: A Triangle on the Wrist
The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral aspect of the wrist. It is bordered by tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles, as well as the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the trapezium and scaphoid bones. The apex of the triangle is located distally, while the posterior border is formed by the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The radial artery runs through the snuffbox, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
In summary, the anatomical snuffbox is a small triangular area on the wrist that is bordered by tendons and bones. It is an important landmark for medical professionals due to the presence of the radial artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after falling from a stepladder onto her left arm. She reports experiencing elbow pain and limited movement in her left hand.
During the examination, the left elbow is tender to the touch, and there is a decrease in wrist flexion and adduction.
Which nerve is affected by this patient's injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, responsible for wrist flexion and adduction, is innervated by the ulnar nerve. This patient’s reduced wrist flexion and adduction, along with elbow pain, suggest ulnar nerve injury. The axillary, median, and musculocutaneous nerves are not responsible for these symptoms, as they innervate different muscles. The radial nerve, which innervates the extensor compartments, would not cause reduced wrist flexion.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures divides the subclavian artery and vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior scalene muscle
Explanation:The subclavian vein (anterior) and subclavian artery (posterior) are separated by the significant anatomical feature known as the anterior scalene muscle.
The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.
The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.
In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which one of the following muscles does not attach to the radius?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brachialis
Explanation:The ulna serves as the insertion point for the brachialis muscle, while the remaining muscles are inserted onto the radius.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 55 years old female patient presented with complaints of morning hand stiffness that improves with use throughout the day. During a physical examination, nonmobile, nodular growths were found over the extensor surfaces of both elbows. Initial laboratory tests showed negative results for rheumatoid factor and Antinuclear antibody screen. To eliminate the possibility of other skin conditions, a biopsy of the nodules was conducted, which revealed cholesterol deposits.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that typically causes symmetric arthritis in multiple joints, with the distal interphalangeal joints being spared. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical features, supported by serological testing that shows positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide or rheumatoid factor. X-rays may reveal periarticular osteopenia, marginal bony erosions, and joint space narrowing. A biopsy of rheumatoid nodules that shows cholesterol deposits is considered pathognomonic for RA.
Reactive arthritis is characterized by a combination of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis, often accompanied by diarrhea. Patients may also develop keratoderma blennorhagicum, which is characterized by hyperkeratotic vesicles on the palms and soles.
Septic arthritis typically affects a single joint, causing redness, swelling, and pain. It occurs when the synovial membrane is invaded, resulting in yellow, turbid synovial fluid with high neutrophil levels. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of septic arthritis.
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a condition that causes shorter duration of morning stiffness, with symptoms worsening throughout the day with weight-bearing. X-rays may show loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.
Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset of severe lower back pain on the right side after lifting a heavy suitcase and twisting. He experiences some paraesthesia on the postero-lateral aspect of his right lower leg and foot.
Upon examination, he appears to be in significant discomfort with his lower back and has a positive sciatic nerve street test. Additionally, there is evident weakness in plantar flexion (MRC grading 3/5) and a reduced ankle reflex.
Based on these findings, it is suspected that the patient has a herniated intervertebral disc with radiculopathy. What is the level of nerve root compression in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S1
Explanation:The patient exhibits sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, a reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. These features suggest compression of the S1 nerve root. Symptoms and signs associated with L3, L4, and L5 nerve root compression differ significantly and are not present in this patient.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of difficulty initiating abduction of her right arm. She denies any pain or previous shoulder issues and has not experienced any trauma. During examination, her passive range of motion is normal, but she is unable to begin abduction from a neutral position. However, if she uses her left arm to lift her right arm to approximately 15 degrees, she is then able to continue abduction without difficulty. Which muscle is responsible for initiating shoulder abduction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for starting the process of lifting the arm away from the body, up to a point of about 15 degrees. After this point, the Deltoid muscle takes over as the primary muscle responsible for continuing the arm’s upward movement. When the arm is lifted beyond 90 degrees, the Trapezius muscle comes into play, elevating the shoulder and rotating the scapula. Finally, the Infraspinatus muscle is responsible for producing lateral rotation of the arm at the shoulder.
Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Jewish woman comes to a doctor complaining of mouth ulcers and skin blistering. During the examination, the doctor observes Nikolsky's sign. The doctor informs her that she has an autoimmune disease where her body's own cells are being attacked by antibodies. What is the specific target for these antibodies in her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desmoglein 3
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the presence of antibodies against desmoglein 3, while Grave’s disease is associated with antibodies against TSH receptors. Cardiac myopathy is linked to antibodies against desmoglein 2, while pemphigus foliaceus is associated with antibodies against desmoglein 1. Hashimoto’s hypothyroidism is characterized by the presence of antibodies against thyroid peroxidase.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a wrist injury sustained from a fall. Upon examination, the physician notes tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, as well as localized swelling and bruising. The physician suspects a fracture in one of the carpal bones and orders a series of plain x-rays to confirm the diagnosis. The physician is concerned about the potential consequences of leaving this fracture untreated due to its precarious blood supply.
Which blood supply could be compromised as a result of this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retrograde blood supply to the scaphoid through the tubercle
Explanation:Fractures to the scaphoid bone can result in avascular necrosis due to its sole blood supply through the tubercle. The healing process may be complicated by non-union as well. It is important to note that blood supply to the scaphoid is not anterograde and pain in the anatomical snuffbox is indicative of a scaphoid fracture, not a trapezium fracture. Additionally, the scaphoid bone receives blood supply through the tubercle, not the lunate surface.
The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old soccer player injures her ankle while playing a game. She reports that her ankle turned inward, causing her foot to roll inward, and she experienced immediate pain and swelling.
What ligament is the most probable to have been sprained in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament
Explanation:The most frequently sprained ligament in ankle inversion injuries is the anterior talofibular ligament, which runs from the talus to the fibula and restricts inversion in plantar flexion. The calcaneonavicular ligament, located between the calcaneus and navicular bones, stabilizes the medial longitudinal arch and is not involved in resisting inversion or eversion, making it unlikely to be injured. The deltoid ligament, found on the medial side of the ankle, resists eversion and is therefore not typically affected in inversion injuries. The interosseous ligament, located between the tibia and fibula above the ankle joint, is only impacted if there is trauma to the lower leg. The Lisfranc ligament, which connects the second metatarsal to the medial cuneiform, is more commonly disrupted by direct blows or axial loads on a plantarflexed foot with rotation, whereas a simple sprain to the anterior talofibular ligament is more common in inversion injuries.
Ankle Sprains: Types, Presentation, Investigation, and Treatment
Ankle sprains occur when ligaments in the ankle are stretched or torn. The ankle joint is composed of the distal tibia and fibula and the superior aspect of the talus, which form a mortise secured by ligamentous structures. Low ankle sprains involve the lateral collateral ligaments, with the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament being the most commonly injured. Inversion injury is the most common mechanism, causing pain, swelling, tenderness, and sometimes bruising. Low ankle sprains are classified into three grades based on the extent of ligament disruption, bruising and swelling, and pain on weight-bearing. Radiographs should be done to rule out associated fractures, and MRI may be useful for evaluating perineal tendons. Treatment for low ankle sprains involves rest, ice, compression, and elevation, with occasional use of a removable orthosis, cast, or crutches. Surgical intervention is rare.
High ankle sprains involve the syndesmosis, which is rare and severe. The mechanism of injury is usually external rotation of the foot, causing the talus to push the fibula laterally. Patients experience more pain when weight-bearing than with low ankle sprains. Radiographs may show widening of the tibiofibular joint or ankle mortise, and MRI may be necessary for high suspicion of syndesmotic injury. Treatment for high ankle sprains involves non-weight-bearing orthosis or cast until pain subsides, or operative fixation if there is diastasis or failed non-operative management.
Isolated injuries to the deltoid ligament are rare and frequently associated with a fracture, such as Maisonneuve fracture of the proximal fibula. Treatment for deltoid ligament injuries is similar to that for low ankle sprains, provided the ankle mortise is anatomically reduced. If not, reduction and fixation may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female tennis player visits her GP with a complaint of pain on the lateral side of her wrist and at the base of her left thumb. The pain has been gradually worsening over the past few weeks and is aggravated by thumb movement. Upon examination, the GP observes tenderness in the area above the first dorsal compartment and a positive Finkelstein test. The GP diagnoses her with De Quervain's tenosynovitis, which is an inflammation of a tendon sheath. What tendons are impacted by this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus
Explanation:De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the synovium surrounding a tendon. Specifically, it affects the tendon sheath that encloses two adjacent tendons – the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus – responsible for extending and abducting the thumb. It is important to note that De Quervain’s syndrome only affects these two tendons and not the extensor pollicis longus or any flexors. Additionally, the adductor pollicis muscle is not involved in this condition. Tenderness over the first dorsal compartment is a common sign of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, as the affected tendons do not travel underneath it.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which pain is elicited by ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction of the thumb, is also indicative of the condition.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical intervention may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can experience relief from the pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by his father after falling off his skateboard on an outstretched hand. The patient complains of pain at the base of the thumb which is worse with the use of the hand.
Upon examination, there is swelling and tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox.
The emergency physician is concerned about avascular necrosis of the scaphoid bone. The physician explains to the patient that the scaphoid bone receives its blood supply through a specific part of the bone and fracture to this area can result in bone death. Therefore, an urgent scaphoid x-ray is necessary.
Which part of the scaphoid bone, when fractured, increases the risk of avascular necrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tubercle
Explanation:The scaphoid bone’s blood supply is only through the tubercle, and a fracture in this area can lead to avascular necrosis. It attaches to the trapezium and trapezoid bones at the greater and lesser multangular ends, respectively.
The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man was in a car accident where two cars collided at around 60 miles per hour. After being stabilized, the doctor conducts a secondary survey and finds that the patient's right leg is adducted, flexed, and internally rotated. The diagnosis is a hip dislocation. What type of dislocation is probable and why?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior dislocation as the iliofemoral ligament is strongest
Explanation:The iliofemoral ligament is the strongest ligament stabilizing the hip joint, making posterior dislocations more common. The deep acetabulum of the hip provides stability and reduces the risk of anterior dislocation. The ischiofemoral ligament is the weakest of the three capsular ligaments and does not play a significant role in hip stability. Therefore, the iliofemoral ligament is the most important factor in preventing hip dislocation.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 50
Incorrect
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What is the position of the hyoid bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C3
Explanation:Surface Anatomy of the Neck: Identifying Structures and Corresponding Levels
The neck is a complex region of the body that contains numerous structures and landmarks. By understanding the surface anatomy of the neck, healthcare professionals can accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.
In the midline of the neck, several structures can be felt from top to bottom. These include the hyoid at the level of C3, the notch of the thyroid cartilage at C4, and the cricoid cartilage at C6. The lower border of the cricoid cartilage is particularly significant as it corresponds to several important structures, including the junction of the larynx and trachea, the junction of the pharynx and esophagus, and the level at which the inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland. Additionally, the vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen in the 6th cervical vertebrae at this level, and the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle crosses the carotid sheath. The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion is also located at this level, as well as the carotid tubercle, which can be used to compress the carotid artery.
Overall, understanding the surface anatomy of the neck is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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