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Question 1
Incorrect
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Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic pain about a trial that is going to be conducted in order to determine the efficacy of a novel analgesic. What phase is the trial currently in?
Your Answer: Phase 3
Correct Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.
Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.
Phase 3 also assesses the efficacy but at a higher scale with larger population sample.
Phase 4 trials are involved with the long term effects and side effects of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Over the course of 10 minutes, one litre of 0.9% normal saline is intravenously infused into a normally fit and well 58-year-old male. A catheter is used to measure urine output before and after the infusion. The patient is 70 kg in weight. The following data on urine output is obtained: 50ml/hour Before the infusion, 200 ml/hour 1 hour following infusion, 90 ml/hour 2 hours after the infusion, 60 ml/hr 3 hours after the infusion. Which of the following physiological responses is most likely to account for the sudden increase in urine output after a fluid bolus?
Your Answer: Stimulation of carotid sinus baroreceptors
Correct Answer: Increased glomerular filtration rate
Explanation:The following are some basic assumptions:
Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF).
One-quarter of ECF is plasma, and three-quarters is interstitial fluid (ISF).
The volume receptors have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold. The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
Prior to the transfusion, the plasma osmolality is normal (between 287 and 290 mOsm/kg).
[Na+] in 0.9 percent N. saline is 154 mmol/L, which is similar to that of extracellular fluid. When given intravenously, this limits its distribution within the extracellular space, resulting in a plasma compartment:ISF volume ratio of 1:3.
In this time frame, one litre of 0.9 percent N. saline will increase plasma volume by about 250 mL, which could be the threshold for activation of the volume receptors in the atria, resulting in the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).Because 0.9 percent N. saline is isosmotic, after a 1 L infusion, plasma osmolality will not change. No changes in antidiuretic hormone secretion will be detected by the hypothalamic osmoreceptors.
Because normal saline is protein-free, the oncotic pressure in the blood is slightly reduced after the saline infusion. As a result, fluid movement into the ISF is favoured (Starling’s hypothesis), and the lower oncotic pressure causes an immediate increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and a reduction in water reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
The flow of urine increases. There is no hormonal intermediary in this effect, so it is strictly local. Urine flow immediately increases. The fluid returns to the intravascular compartment, and urine flow continues until all of the transfused fluid has been excreted.
Blood pressure changes associated with a 1 L fluid infusion are unlikely to affect high-pressure baroreceptors in the carotid sinus.
The juxta-glomerular cells of the afferent arteriole are adjacent to the specialised cells (macula densa) of distal tubules. The sodium and chloride ions in the tubular fluid are detected by the macula densa. Renin release is inhibited when the tubular fluid contains too much sodium chloride. Hormonal changes take longer to manifest than physical changes that control glomerulotubular balance.
Hypertonic saline, not 0.9 percent N saline, is an osmotic diuretic. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Correct
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The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it. What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?
Your Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 4
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presented with a bitemporal hemianopia with enlarged hands and feet. On examination, he was found to be hypertensive. Which of the following correctly explains the cause of his visual field defect?
Your Answer: Pituitary macroadenoma secreting growth hormone (GH)
Explanation:Pituitary macroadenoma is a benign tumour with growth larger than 10mm (those under 10mm are called microadenoma)
Compression of optic chiasm by pituitary adenoma is responsible for causing visual field defects like bitemporal hemianopia, optic neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident. On clinical examination: Heart rate: 125 beats/min, Blood pressure: 120/105 mmHg. On physical examination, his abdomen was found to be tense and tender. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the compensation of blood loss?
Your Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic
Explanation:Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries mainly of those of skin, gut and kidney arterioles. This would cause and increase in total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure and as a result the perfusion of vital organs i.e. brain, heart and lungs are maintained.
Muscarinic M2 receptor also known as cholinergic receptor are located in heart, where they act to slow the heart rate down to normal sinus rhythm after negative stimulatory actions of parasympathetic nervous system. They also reduce contractile forces of the atrial cardiac muscle, and reduce conduction velocity of AV node. This could worsen the compensation.
Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptor result in dilation of smooth muscle as in bronchodilation.
Beta 3 adrenergic receptors are present on cell surface f both white and brown adipocytes and are responsible for lipolysis, thermogenesis, and relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle.
Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in inhibition of the release of noradrenaline in a form of negative feedback.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly
Your Answer: Sodium
Explanation:The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:
ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true.
Your Answer: Is not present in the placenta
Correct Answer: Is increased in the maternal plasma in pregnancy
Explanation:ACTH production is stimulated through the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamic nuclei.
ACTH secretion has a circadian rhythm. A high level of cortisol in the body stops its production. ACTH is secreted maximally in the morning and concentrations are lowest at midnight.
ACTH can be expressed in the placenta, the pituitary and other tissues.
Conditions where ACTH concentrations rise include: stress, disease and pregnancy.
Glucocorticoids (not mineralocorticoids – aldosterone) switch off ACTH production through a negative feedback loop .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon intends to use a nerve integrity monitor thus avoiding neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following nerves is liable to injury in parotidectomy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:Parotidectomy is basically an anatomical dissection. Identification of the facial nerve trunk is essential during parotid gland surgery because facial nerve injury is the most daunting potential complication of parotid gland surgery owing to the close relation between the gland and the extratemporal course of the facial nerve. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the substance of the parotid gland and then gives off five terminal branches:
From superior to inferior, these are the:
– Temporal branch supplying the extrinsic ear muscles, occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi
– Zygomatic branch supplying orbicularis oculi
– Buccal branch supplying buccinator and the lip muscles
– Mandibular branch supplying the muscles of the lower lip and chin
– Cervical branch supplying platysma.There are two approaches to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotidectomy€”conventional antegrade dissection of the facial nerve, and retrograde dissection. Numerous soft tissue and bony landmarks have been proposed to assist the surgeon in the early identification of this nerve. Most commonly used anatomical landmarks to identify facial nerve trunk are stylomastoid foramen, tympanomastoid suture (TMS), posterior belly of digastric (PBD), tragal pointer (TP), mastoid process and peripheral branches of the facial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has multiple stab wounds to his abdomen and is rushed into the emergency. Resuscitative measures are performed, but the patient remains hypotensive. Emergency laparotomy is performed, and it reveals a vessel is bleeding profusely at a certain level of lumbar vertebrae. The vessel is the testicular artery and is ligated. At which lumbar vertebrae is the testicular artery identified?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L2
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post tetanic count of 5
Explanation:A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.
Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.
During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5€‰min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation. On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are: Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic. Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min, Pulse: 120 beats/min, Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg, SPO2: 95% on air. Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases. What is the next most important step of investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate
Explanation:Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.
Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR
PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.
Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:
Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
Heart rate: >110 beats/min
PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:
If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
Possible life threatening asthma
Possible consolidation
Unresponsive asthma
If ventilation is required.An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case
Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient's presentation.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External elastic lamina
Explanation:Blood vessels (except capillaries and venules) have three distinctive layers (innermost to outermost):
1. Tunica intima
2. Tunica media
3. Tunica adventitiaThe tunica media contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima layer by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year old man, is admitted in hospital. He is scheduled to undergo a femoro-popliteal bypass graft, for which he has been administered a spinal-epidural anaesthetic. Intrathecal heavy bupivacaine (0.5%) was injected at L3-4 with good effect. On insertion of the epidural catheter, he remained asymptomatic. During surgery, 5000 I.U. of IV heparin was given. The surgery is successful and required no epidural top-ups. Six hours later, he complains of a severe back pain with weakness in his lower limbs. What is the most important first step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A full neurological examination to establish the nature of the problem
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.
The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.
The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.
Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.
A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:
Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
Cauda equina syndrome
Paralysis of the lower extremities.
If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
Meningism. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus
Explanation:Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.
The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.
If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.
A 95% confidence interval:
lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)
upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)
Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).
Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.
The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.
The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.
No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs. He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Agitation or restlessness, Rapid heart rate, high Blood Pressure, loss of muscle coordination, or twitching muscles is common symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome.
Tramadol should not be given to patients taking selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) therapy because of the risk of serotonin syndrome
Tramadol is a centrally acting analgesic that is an atypical opioid that relieves pain by opioids as well as additional mechanisms. Its affinity for µ opioid receptor is low, while that for κ and δ is very low. Unlike other opioids, it inhibits the reuptake of Noradrenaline (NA) and 5- Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), increases 5-HT release, and thus activates monoaminergic spinal inhibition of pain.
Its analgesic action is only partially reversed by the opioid antagonist naloxone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasodilation
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Arrythmias can develop from abnormal conduction, which may be as a result of impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries which causes hypoxia. Phase 0 depolarisation can be slowed, and this leads to slower conduction speeds. Rapid depolarisation in the cardiac action potential is caused by which movement of ions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium influx
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes
Explanation:Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.
Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.
The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.
The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.
The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.
Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic €‹in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a BMI of 24 kg/m2 consumes four glasses of wine on an empty stomach. Her serum alcohol are levels measured over the following five hours. The serum alcohol level of 30-year-old man with the same BMI and alcohol consumption is also measured over the same duration. The peak concentration of alcohol is found to be greater in the woman than in the man. Which of these offers best explanation for this observation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower volume of distribution
Explanation:The blood alcohol concentration depends on:
-The rate of alcohol absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
-The volume of distribution of alcohol in the body, and
-The rate of elimination of alcohol from the body.Total body water is approximately 50% in a female as compared to 60% in a typical male. This means that the volume of distribution of alcohol is lower in female compared with men. This is the principal reason for higher peak in alcohol levels.
About 4% of ingested alcohol is metabolised by the liver accounting for first pass metabolism and 0.4% is metabolised by gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). The absorbed alcohol is NOT distributed to fat cells but it is distributed throughout the water compartments (plasma, interstitial and intracellular) of the body. Women have very little gastric ADH, which further influences this exaggerated rise.
85-98% of the alcohol is oxidised by the liver to acetaldehyde and then to acetate. The metabolic pathway initially observes first order kinetics and then saturation or zero order kinetics leading to peaks in alcohol levels.
Clearance of ethanol per unit lean body mass is lower in male. The calculated alcohol elimination rate and liver volume per kilogram of lean body mass were 33% and 38% higher in women than in men, respectively.
Available evidence in the literature about the relationship of alcohol metabolism to the phases of the menstrual cycle is conflicting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secreted mainly by the left atrium
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.
The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.
The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.
The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.
The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart in patients with suspected heart failure. The aim is to measure the ejection fraction, but to do that, the stroke volume must first be measured. How is stroke volume calculated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old man, is scheduled for an angiogram to investigate gastro-intestinal bleeding. The radiologist performing the angiogram inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis. What level of the vertebrae does the coeliac axis normally arise from the aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The coeliac axis refers to one of the splanchnic arteries located within the abdomen.
It arises from the aorta almost horizontally at the level of the T12 vertebrae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test. Which type of bias is that?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Work-up bias
Explanation:Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.
Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.
Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.
Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.
Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable. What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis
Explanation:According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring. Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.
The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.
The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle
Explanation:The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:
The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions
The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.
The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram
Explanation:An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.
A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.
Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.
A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.
A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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