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Question 1
Correct
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You review a 65-year-old woman who is on the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a fall. Her son is present, and he is concerned about recent problems she has had with memory loss. He is very worried that she may be showing signs of developing dementia.
Which of the following is the most prevalent type of dementia?Your Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease is the most prevalent type of dementia, making up around 55-60% of all cases. In the UK, the occurrence of Alzheimer’s disease is approximately 5 per 1000 person-years, and the likelihood of developing it increases with age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of sickle-cell disease undergoes a blood transfusion for severe anemia. Four weeks later, she arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a skin rash, high body temperature, and diarrhea. Laboratory tests are ordered, revealing low levels of all blood cells and abnormal liver function.
What is the probable cause of this transfusion reaction?Your Answer: T lymphocytes reacting against recipient’s tissues
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a potentially life-saving treatment that can provide great clinical benefits. However, it also carries several risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, immune dilution, and transfusion errors. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and efforts to minimize the use of transfusion, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
One rare complication of blood transfusion is transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD). This condition typically presents with fever, rash, and diarrhea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Laboratory findings may show pancytopenia and abnormalities in liver function. Unlike GVHD after marrow transplantation, TA-GVHD leads to severe marrow aplasia with a mortality rate exceeding 90%. Unfortunately, there are currently no effective treatments available for this condition, and survival is rare, with death usually occurring within 1-3 weeks of the first symptoms.
During a blood transfusion, viable T lymphocytes from the donor are transfused into the recipient’s body. In TA-GVHD, these lymphocytes engraft and react against the recipient’s tissues. However, the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes due to factors such as immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens. Supportive management is the only option for TA-GVHD.
The following summarizes the main complications and reactions that can occur during a blood transfusion:
Complication Features Management
Febrile transfusion reaction
– Presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise.
– Most common reaction, occurring in 1 out of 8 transfusions.
– Usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.
– Supportive management, with the use of paracetamol for symptom relief.Acute haemolytic reaction
– Symptoms include fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine.
– Often accompanied by a feeling of ‘impending doom’.
– Most serious type of reaction, often due to ABO incompatibility caused by administration errors.
– Immediate action required: stop the transfusion, administer IV fluids, and consider diuretics if necessary.Delayed haemolytic reaction
– Typically occurs 4-8 days after a blood transfusion.
– Symptoms include fever, anemia and/or hyperbilirubinemia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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You are summoned to the resuscitation area to assist with a patient experiencing status epilepticus.
Which ONE statement about the utilization of benzodiazepines in status epilepticus is accurate?Your Answer: Diazepam can be given by the intravenous route
Explanation:Between 60 and 80% of individuals who experience seizures will have their seizure stopped by a single dose of intravenous benzodiazepine. Benzodiazepines have a high solubility in lipids and can quickly pass through the blood-brain barrier. This is why they have a fast onset of action.
As the initial treatment, intravenous lorazepam should be administered. If intravenous lorazepam is not accessible, intravenous diazepam can be used instead. In cases where it is not possible to establish intravenous access promptly, buccal midazolam can be utilized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful left elbow. She is left-handed and participates in various sports. During the examination, you observe tenderness over her medial epicondyle, and her pain intensifies with resisted pronation at the wrist.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tennis elbow
Correct Answer: Golfer’s elbow
Explanation:Golfer’s elbow, also known as medial epicondylitis, is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain in the flexor tendons that attach to the medial epicondyle. It is commonly caused by repetitive strain, with golf being a frequent culprit. Similarly, tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, occurs when the same strain and inflammation affect the tendons at the lateral epicondyle. In both cases, pain can be worsened by resisted wrist extension. Treatment involves avoiding activities that trigger symptoms and using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for flare-ups. In more severe cases, steroid injections may be necessary.
Ulnar neuritis presents with symptoms such as hand clumsiness, muscle weakness, and wasting in the muscles supplied by the ulnar nerve. Patients may also experience numbness or tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger. This condition is caused by narrowing of the ulnar groove and can be associated with risk factors like osteoarthritis, trauma, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nerve conduction studies may be recommended, and surgical decompression may be necessary.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis occurs when there is inflammation of the tendon sheaths for the thumb extensor and abductor muscles. This leads to pain over the radial styloid, which worsens with forced adduction and flexion of the thumb. Treatment options include anti-inflammatory medications, thumb splints, and steroid injections.
Bursitis can develop from repeated pressure on the olecranon, resulting in swelling and discomfort in that area. Aspiration of fluid may be performed to rule out conditions like gout or sepsis. If these conditions are ruled out, bursitis often resolves on its own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. The triage nurse requests an urgent review as she is concerned about the patient's blood pressure. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 226/120 mmHg
Pulse: 122 bpm
Respiration rate: 18
Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air
You consider secondary causes of hypertension, such as phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is most commonly associated with phaeochromocytoma?Your Answer: Hypergylcaemia
Explanation:Hyperglycemia is a common occurrence in patients with phaeochromocytoma. This is primarily due to the excessive release of catecholamines, which suppress insulin secretion from the pancreas and promote glycogenolysis. Calcium levels in phaeochromocytoma patients can vary, with hypercalcemia being most frequently observed in cases where hyperparathyroidism coexists, particularly in MEN II. However, some phaeochromocytomas may secrete calcitonin and/or adrenomedullin, which can lower plasma calcium levels and lead to hypocalcemia. While not typical, potassium disturbances may occur in patients experiencing severe vomiting or acute kidney injury. On the other hand, anemia is not commonly associated with phaeochromocytoma, although there are rare cases where the tumor secretes erythropoietin, resulting in elevated hemoglobin levels and hematocrit.
Further Reading:
Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.
The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.
Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.
The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48 hours because her symptoms have not improved. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. Unfortunately, the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent to the lab are still unavailable. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute. She has been taking nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release PO BD for the past two days.
Which of the following antibiotics is the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.
Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
– Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
– Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are with a hiking group and have ascended from an elevation of 2800m to 3400 meters over the past two days. One of your group members is experiencing difficulty breathing while at rest and has developed a dry cough. The individual's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 150/92 mmHg
Pulse: 126 bpm
Respiration rate: 28 bpm
Oxygen saturations: 86% on air
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer to this individual?Your Answer: Furosemide
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Nifedipine is the preferred medication for treating high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE). When a patient shows signs of HAPE, the best course of action is to immediately descend to a lower altitude while receiving supplemental oxygen. However, if descent is not possible, nifedipine can be used to alleviate symptoms and assist with descent. Nifedipine works by reducing the pressure in the pulmonary artery. On the other hand, dexamethasone is the preferred medication for treating acute mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE).
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old smoker with a diagnosis of advanced lung cancer with spinal metastases experiences a severe, shooting pain in his left leg. He is currently using a fentanyl patch, but it is not providing relief for the pain.
What would be the most appropriate next course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Gabapentin
Explanation:This patient is currently experiencing neuropathic pain due to spinal metastases from their lung malignancy.
The first line of treatment for neuropathic pain includes options such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the initial treatment is not effective or well-tolerated, one of the remaining three drugs can be considered. If the second and third drugs tried also prove to be ineffective or not well-tolerated, it may be necessary to switch to a different medication. Tramadol should only be considered as a last resort for acute rescue therapy.
For more information on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in adults, please refer to the NICE guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You assess a limping adolescent with hip discomfort. An X-ray is conducted, and a diagnosis of Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is confirmed.
Which ONE statement about this condition is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It typically presents later in girls
Explanation:Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), also referred to as slipped capital femoral epiphysis, is a rare but significant hip disorder that primarily affects children. It occurs when the growth plate slips at the epiphysis, causing the head of the femur to shift from its normal position on the femoral neck. Specifically, the femoral epiphysis remains in the acetabulum while the metaphysis moves forward and externally rotates.
SUFE typically presents later in boys, usually between the ages of 10 and 17, compared to girls who typically experience it between 8 and 15 years of age. Several risk factors contribute to its development, including being male, being overweight, having immature skeletal maturity, having a positive family history, being of Pacific Island or African origin, having hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, or hypogonadism.
Patients with SUFE commonly experience hip pain and a limp. In severe cases, a leg length discrepancy may be noticeable. While the condition may not be immediately apparent on an anteroposterior (AP) film, it is usually detectable on a frog-leg lateral film. A diagnostic sign is the failure of a line drawn up the lateral edge of the femoral neck (known as the line of Klein) to intersect the epiphysis during the acute stage, also known as Trethowan’s sign.
Surgical pinning is the most common treatment for SUFE. In approximately 20% of cases, bilateral SUFE occurs, prompting some surgeons to recommend prophylactic pinning of the unaffected hip. If a significant deformity is present, osteotomies or even arthroplasty may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 32-year-old male patient who has undergone an initial evaluation by one of the medical students. The medical student suspects that the patient may have irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the subsequent clinical characteristics is atypical for IBS and would raise concerns about a potentially more severe underlying condition in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal bleeding
Explanation:If someone with IBS experiences unintentional weight loss or rectal bleeding, it is important to investigate further as these symptoms are not typical of IBS and may indicate a more serious underlying condition. Other alarm symptoms to watch out for include positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT), change in bowel habit after the age of 60, elevated faecal calprotectin levels, iron deficiency anaemia, persistent or frequent bloating in females (especially if over 50), the presence of an abdominal or rectal mass, or a family history of bowel cancer, ovarian cancer, coeliac disease, or inflammatory bowel disease.
Further Reading:
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.
Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.
Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.
Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You witness the sudden arrival of a baby in one of the cubicles within the Emergency Department. Your consultant evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and notifies you that:
The limbs appear bluish, while the body has a pink hue.
The heart rate measures 110 beats per minute.
The baby responds with cries upon stimulation.
There is noticeable flexion in the limbs.
The baby's cry is strong and robust.
What is the Apgar score of the neonate at one minute?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:
Appearance
Pulse rate
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effortThe Apgar score criteria are as follows:
Score of 0:
Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
Pulse rate: Absent
Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
Activity: None
Respiratory effort: AbsentScore of 1:
Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
Activity: Some flexion
Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gaspingScore of 2:
Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a two day history of nausea and vomiting. He has reduced GCS, is hypotensive and tachycardic. His wife tells you he has Addison's but frequently neglects to take his medication. Concerning Addison's, which electrolyte imbalance is most frequently linked to the condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:The electrolyte imbalances that are commonly observed in individuals with Addison’s disease are decreased sodium levels, increased potassium levels, increased calcium levels, and decreased glucose levels. In cases of Addisonian crisis, which is a severe form of Addison’s disease, patients may also experience hyponatremia (low sodium levels), hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), hypercalcemia (high calcium levels), and hypoglycemia (low glucose levels). Additionally, these patients may often develop acidosis.
Further Reading:
Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.
The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.
Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department with intermittent abdominal pain over the past few weeks that has worsened in the last week. The patient reports that the pain is most severe at night and is relieved by eating, although the relief is only temporary. The patient provides a list of their current medications:
Medication & dose
Fluoxetine 40 mg once daily (long term)
Oxybutynin 5 mg twice daily (long term)
Ibuprofen 400 mg three times daily as needed (long term)
Prednisolone 30mg for 7 days
Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 7 days
You suspect the patient may have a duodenal ulcer. Which medication is most commonly associated with the development of peptic ulcer disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Explanation:Peptic ulcer disease is most commonly caused by NSAIDs, making them the leading drug cause. However, h.pylori infection is the primary cause of peptic ulcers, with NSAIDs being the second most common cause.
Further Reading:
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.
The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.
Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.
The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.
Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.
For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after stepping on a sharp object while playing barefoot in the backyard. The wound needs to be stitched under anesthesia. While obtaining parental consent from the accompanying adult, you notice that the adult has a different last name than the child. When asking about their relationship to the child, the adult states that they are the child's like a mother and is the partner of the girl's father. What is the term used to describe a parent or guardian who can provide consent on behalf of a child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parental responsibility
Explanation:Parental responsibility encompasses the legal rights, duties, powers, responsibilities, and authority that a parent holds for their child. This includes the ability to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of the child. Any individual with parental responsibility has the authority to give consent for their child. If a father meets any of the aforementioned criteria, he is considered to have parental responsibility. On the other hand, a mother is automatically granted parental responsibility for her child from the moment of birth.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his friends after they discovered he had ingested an excessive amount of medication. The patient seems disoriented. The friends inform you that he had consumed 4 bottles (120 tablets) of 500 mg ibuprofen tablets. The initial ibuprofen level is reported as 600 mg/L. What level of ibuprofen toxicity does this indicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate
Explanation:The classification of severity in salicylate overdose can sometimes be confused by mixing up the ingested dose and the measured plasma salicylate level. To clarify, when using the blood salicylate level, moderate toxicity is indicated by a level of 350-700 mg/L, while severe toxicity is indicated by a level exceeding 700 mg/L.
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma..
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old baby is brought in by his mother with a reported high temperature at home. The triage nurse measures his temperature again as part of her initial assessment.
Which of the following is recommended by NICE as an appropriate method of measuring body temperature in this age group?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electronic thermometer in the axilla
Explanation:In infants who are less than 4 weeks old, it is recommended to measure their body temperature using an electronic thermometer placed in the armpit.
For children between the ages of 4 weeks and 5 years, there are several methods that can be used to measure body temperature. These include using an electronic thermometer in the armpit, a chemical dot thermometer in the armpit, or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.
It is important to note that measuring temperature orally or rectally should be avoided in this age group. Additionally, forehead chemical thermometers are not reliable and should not be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Large numbers of casualties are observed after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident. It is believed that sarin gas is the responsible agent. Which combination of clinical features is most likely to be present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Miosis, bronchorrhoea, salivation and muscle weakness
Explanation:The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.
The first compounds to be created are called the G agents (G stands for German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).
In the 1950s, the V agents (V stands for venomous) were synthesized and are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).
One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 died.
Nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.
The clinical features observed after exposure are a result of a combination of muscarinic, nicotinic, and central nervous system effects.
Muscarinic effects (DUMBBELS):
– Diarrhea
– Urination
– Miosis
– Bronchorrhea
– Bronchospasm
– Emesis
– Lacrimation
– Salivation
Plus bradycardia and hypotension.Nicotinic effects:
– Sweating
– Tremor
– Fasciculations
– Muscle weakness
– Flaccid paralysisCentral nervous system effects:
– Agitation and irritability
– Amnesia
– Ataxia
– Respiratory -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes in with a complaint of headache, fever, and growing drowsiness. He recently had a flu-like illness but his condition worsened this morning, prompting his partner to call for the GP. He exhibits significant neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. During the examination, you observe a petechial rash on his abdomen.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia
Explanation:This woman is displaying symptoms and signs that are in line with a diagnosis of meningococcal septicaemia. In the United Kingdom, the majority of cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.
The implementation of a vaccination program for Neisseria meningitidis group C has significantly reduced the prevalence of this particular type. However, a vaccine for group B disease is currently undergoing clinical trials and is not yet accessible for widespread use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today calls you over to show you a case of superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) in a 32-year-old woman with a Le Fort II fracture of the midface following a car accident.
Which of the cranial nerves is MOST likely to be unaffected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial nerve II
Explanation:The superior orbital fissure is a gap in the back wall of the orbit, created by the space between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. Several structures pass through it to enter the orbit, starting from the top and going downwards. These include the lacrimal nerve (a branch of CN V1), the frontal nerve (another branch of CN V1), the superior ophthalmic vein, the trochlear nerve (CN IV), the superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the nasociliary nerve (a branch of CN V1), the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the abducens nerve (CN VI), and the inferior ophthalmic vein.
Adjacent to the superior orbital fissure, on the back wall of the orbit and towards the middle, is the optic canal. The optic nerve (CN II) exits the orbit through this canal, along with the ophthalmic artery.
Superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) is a condition characterized by a combination of symptoms and signs that occur when cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and VI are compressed or injured as they pass through the superior orbital fissure. This condition also leads to swelling and protrusion of the eye due to impaired drainage and congestion. The main causes of SOFS are trauma, tumors, and inflammation. It is important to note that CN II is not affected by this syndrome, as it follows a separate path through the optic canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who is currently using a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). What impact would you anticipate NSAID treatment to have on renal measurements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction, decreased GFR
Explanation:NSAIDs have been found to have a relatively high occurrence of renal adverse drug reactions (ADRs). These ADRs primarily occur due to changes in renal haemodynamics caused by alterations in prostaglandin levels.
Normally, prostaglandins play a role in dilating the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus. This dilation helps maintain normal glomerular perfusion and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
However, NSAIDs work by reducing prostaglandin levels. This reduction leads to unopposed vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole, resulting in decreased renal plasma flow. Consequently, this decrease in renal plasma flow leads to a decrease in GFR. It is important to note that NSAIDs do not have any impact on the filtration fraction itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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