-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is most likely affected in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?
Your Answer: Extensor pollicis longus
Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis
Explanation:De Quervain tenosynovitis is named after the Swiss surgeon, Fritz de Quervain, who first described it in 1895. It is a condition which involves tendon entrapment affecting the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. With this condition thickening of the tendon sheaths around the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis develops where the tendons pass in through the fibro-osseous tunnel located along the radial styloid at the distal wrist. Pain is exacerbated by thumb movement and radial and ulnar deviation of the wrist.The estimated prevalence of de Quervain tenosynovitis is about 0.5% in men and 1.3% in women with peak prevalence among those in their forties and fifties. It may be seen more commonly in individuals with a history of medial or lateral epicondylitis. Bilateral involvement is often reported in new mothers or child care providers in whom spontaneous resolution typically occurs once lifting of the child is less frequent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections:
Your Answer: Pili
Explanation:Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infection. Uropathic strains are characterised by pili with adhesion proteins that bind to specific receptors on the urinary tract epithelium. The motility of E. coli aids its ability to ascend the urethra into the bladder or ascend the ureter into the kidney.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:
Your Answer: Hepatic failure
Explanation:The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure is complaining of worsening oedema, bloating, and a loss of appetite. She has ascites and peripheral oedema on examination. Her oedema is being controlled by an oral diuretic, but it appears that this is no longer enough. You discuss her care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who believes she is very likely to have significant gut oedema that is interfering with her diuretic absorption and that she will need to change her medication.Which of the following oral diuretics is most likely to help you overcome this problem?
Your Answer: Bumetanide
Explanation:Bumetanide is primarily used in patients with heart failure who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency. In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. As a result, when it has a better bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.When taken alone, Bendroflumethiazide is a moderately potent diuretic that is unlikely to control her oedema.Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral oedema and high intracranial pressure.Acetazolamide is a weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase. It’s a rare occurrence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency room with a severe case of asthma. When she doesn't seem to be improving after initial treatment, you decide to start an aminophylline infusion.From the options below, which is Aminophylline's main mechanism of action?
Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase inhibition
Explanation:Theophylline and Ethylenediamine are combined in a 2:1 ratio to form Aminophylline. Its solubility is improved by the addition of Ethylenediamine. It has a lower potency and a shorter duration of action than Theophylline.It is used to treat the following conditions: Heart failureIt is used to treat the following conditions: COPDBradycardiasAminophylline has the following properties:Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that increases intracellular cAMP and relaxes smooth muscle in the bronchial airways and pulmonary blood vessels.Mast cell stabilization is achieved by using a non-selective adenosine receptor antagonist.It has slight positive inotropic and chronotropic effects, increasing cardiac output and decreasing systemic vascular resistance, lowering arterial blood pressure. It has been used historically in the treatment of refractory heart failure and is indicated by the current ALS guidelines as a substitute treatment for bradycardia. The daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, divided into 2-3 doses. For severe asthma or COPD, a loading dosage of 5 mg/kg over 10-20 minutes is given, followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. The therapeutic range is small (10-20 microgram/ml), hence assessments of aminophylline plasma concentrations are useful during long-term treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are considered true regarding L'Abbe plots, except:
Your Answer: They are a type of scatter-plot
Correct Answer: Treatment group results are plotted on the horizontal axis
Explanation:A L’Abbé plot is a scatter plot with the risk in the control group on the x-axis and the risk in the experimental group on the y-axis. It can be used to evaluate heterogeneity in meta-analysis. Furthermore, this plot can aid to choose a summary measure (odds ratio, risk ratio, risk difference) that will result in more consistent results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
The most important nerve for plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint is:
Your Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:Muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg, innervated by the tibial nerve, perform plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint. The fibularis longus (innervated by the superficial fibular nerve) assists in plantar flexion but is not the most important.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine. Most digestive enzymes in the small intestine are secreted by the pancreas and enter the small intestine through the pancreatic duct.Which of these digestive enzymes is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates into monosaccharides?
Your Answer: Glucoamylase
Explanation:Majority of carbohydrates are broken down into monosaccharides (glucose, fructose galactose) and are absorbed by the small intestine. Enzymes released from the brush border break down carbohydrate. Some carbohydrates, such as cellulose, are not digested at all, despite being made of multiple glucose units. This is because the cellulose is made out of beta-glucose that makes the inter-monosaccharide bindings different from the ones present in starch, which consists of alpha-glucose. Humans lack the enzyme for splitting the beta-glucose-bond.The principal brush border enzymes are dextranase and glucoamylase. Other brush border enzymes are maltase, sucrase, and lactase.Pancreatic amylase breaks down some carbohydrates (notably starch) into oligosaccharides. Dextranase and glucoamylase, then further break down oligosaccharides.Trypsin aids in digestion of protein.Chymotrypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that digests proteinCarboxypeptidase hydrolyses the first peptide or amide bond at the carboxyl or C-terminal end of proteins and peptides
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, very much like skeletal myocytes. On the other hand, calcium-induced calcium release (CICR) is a mechanism that is unique to Cardiac myocytes. The influx of calcium ions (Ca 2+) into the cell causes a 'calcium spark,' which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm.In CICR, which membrane protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum is involved?
Your Answer: Ligand-gated calcium channel
Correct Answer: Ryanodine receptor
Explanation:Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, just like skeletal myocytes. Heart myocytes, on the other hand, utilise a calcium-induced calcium release mechanism that is unique to cardiac muscle (CICR). The influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cell causes a ‘calcium spark,’ which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm.An influx of sodium ions induces an initial depolarisation, much as it does in skeletal muscle; however, in cardiac muscle, the inflow of Ca2+ sustains the depolarisation, allowing it to remain longer. Due to potassium ion (K+) inflow, CICR causes a plateau phase in which the cells remain depolarized for a short time before repolarizing. Skeletal muscle, on the other hand, repolarizes almost instantly.The release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is required for calcium-induced calcium release (CICR). This is mostly accomplished by ryanodine receptors (RyR) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane; Ca2+ binds to RyR, causing additional Ca2+ to be released.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A patient presents with increased breathlessness and worsening of his chronic cough and. He has a chronic lung disorder and is on long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT).Which of these is an indication for LTOT?
Your Answer: A patient with severe chronic asthma with a PaO 2 of 8.0 kPa when stable
Correct Answer: A non-smoker with COPD and a PaO 2 of 7.5 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia
Explanation:Long-term administration of oxygen, usually at least 15 hours daily, improves survival in COPD patients who have severe hypoxaemia. Long-term oxygen therapy should be considered in:A non-smoker with COPD and a PaO2<7.3 kPa when stableA non-smoker with COPD and PaO27.3–8 kPa when stable and with secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or evidence of pulmonary hypertensionSevere chronic asthma with PaO2<7.3 kPa or persistent disabling breathlessnessA patient with Interstitial lung disease with PaO28 kPa with disabling dyspnoeaA patient with cystic fibrosis when PaO2<7.3 kPa or if PaO27.3–8 kPa in the presence of secondary polycythaemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral oedemaPulmonary hypertension, without parenchymal lung involvement when PaO2<8 kPaNeuromuscular or skeletal disorders, after specialist assessmentObstructive sleep apnoea despite continuous positive airways pressure therapy, after specialist assessmentPulmonary malignancy or other terminal disease with disabling dyspnoeaHeart failure with daytime PaO2<7.3 kPa when breathing air or with nocturnal hypoxaemia
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.Which of the following is a verapamil toxicity?
Your Answer: Positive dromotropy
Correct Answer: Negative inotropy
Explanation:Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium-channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.The following summarises the toxicity of calcium-channel blockers:Cardiac effectsVascular smooth muscle tone affectsMetabolic effectsExcessive negative inotropy: myocardial depressionNegative chronotropy: sinus bradycardiaNegative dromotropy: atrioventricular node blockadeDecreased afterloadSystemic hypotensionCoronary vasodilationHypoinsulinaemiaCalcium channel blocker-induced insulin resistance
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
What kind of function loss do you anticipate in a 22-year-old guy who had a laceration to his arm, resulting in nerve damage in the antecubital fossa?
Your Answer: Opposition of thumb
Explanation:The symptoms of median nerve injury include tingling or numbness in the forearm, thumb, and three adjacent fingers, as well as gripping weakness and the inability to move the thumb across the palm. Because the thenar muscles and the flexor pollicis longus are paralyzed, flexion, abduction, and opposition of the thumb at the MCPJ and IPJ are gone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A man presents to the emergency department with a hand laceration that has damaged the opponens digiti minimi muscle.All of the following statements regarding the opponens digiti minimi muscle is considered correct, except:
Your Answer: It forms part of the hypothenar eminence
Correct Answer: It is innervated by the superficial branch of the ulnar nerve
Explanation:Opponens digiti minimi (ODM) is an intrinsic muscle of the hand. It’s a triangular muscle that extends between the hamate bone (carpal bone) and the 5th metacarpal bone. It forms the hypothenar muscle group together with the abductor digiti minimi and flexor digiti minimi brevis, based on the medial side of the palm (hypothenar eminence). These muscles act together in moving the little finger. The opponens digiti minimi is responsible for flexion, lateral rotation and opposition of the little finger.Its origin is the hook of hamate and flexor retinaculum. It inserts into the medial border of 5th metacarpal bone. It is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, which stems from the brachial plexus (C8, T1 spinal nerves).Its blood supply is by the deep palmar branch of ulnar artery and deep palmar arch, which is the terminal branch of the radial artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 70-year-old patient diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome, has a history of weight gain, hypertension, and easy bruising.Which of the following statements about Cushing's syndrome is NOT true?
Your Answer: Menorrhagia is a common feature
Explanation:Cushing’s syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs brought on by long-term exposure to high amounts of endogenous or exogenous glucocorticoids.Iatrogenic corticosteroid injection is the most prevalent cause of Cushing’s syndrome.Cortisol levels fluctuate throughout the day, with the greatest levels occurring around 0900 hours and the lowest occurring at 2400 hrs during sleep. The diurnal swing of cortisol levels is lost in Cushing’s syndrome, and levels are greater throughout the 24-hour period. In the morning, levels may be normal, but they may be high at night-time, when they are generally repressed.Insulin resistance causes hyperglycaemia, which is a frequent symptom. Insulin resistance can produce acanthosis nigricans in the axilla and around the neck, as well as other skin abnormalities.In contrast to menorrhagia, elevated testosterone levels are more likely to produce amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea. Infertility in women of reproductive age can also be caused by high androgen levels.A dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine free cortisol collection can both be used to establish the existence of Cushing’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Na+/K+ATPase pump?
Your Answer: The Na + /K + ATPase pump moves ions against their concentration gradients.
Correct Answer: The Na + /K + ATPase pump moves 3 Na + ions into the cell for every 2 K + ions out.
Explanation:In order for primary active transport to pump ions against their electrochemical gradient, chemical energy is used in the form of ATP. The Na+/K+-ATPase antiporter pump uses metabolic energy to move 3 Na+ions out of the cell for every 2 K+ions in, against their respective electrochemical gradients. As a result, the cell the maintains a high intracellular concentration of K+ions and a low concentration of Na+ions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old with a longstanding history of asthma presents to the ED with worsening symptoms of cough and wheeze and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurement is taken.Which statement concerning PEFR is true?
Your Answer: PEFR is a useful measure in restrictive airways disease
Correct Answer: PEFR is dependent upon the patient's height
Explanation:The maximum flow rate generated during a forceful exhalation, after maximal inspiration is the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR).PEFR is dependent upon initial lung volume. It is, therefore, dependant on patient’s age, sex and height.PEFR is dependent on voluntary effort and muscular strength of the patient.PEFR is decreased with increasing airway resistance, e.g. in asthma, and it correlates well with the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) value measured in spirometry. This correlation decreases in patients with asthma as airflow decreases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Regarding pressures and airflow during the normal breathing cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer: In quiet breathing, intrapleural pressure remains negative for the whole cycle.
Correct Answer: Negative intrapleural pressure causes dynamic compression of the airways.
Explanation:Dynamic compression occurs during forced expiration, when as the expiratory muscles contract, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 39-year-old man who is suffering from a bacterial infection require antibiotic treatment. You need to figure out which antibiotic is most suitable. Listed below are antimicrobial drugs. Which one is a nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin and other quinolone antibiotics work by blocking DNA gyrase, an enzyme that compresses bacterial DNA into supercoils, as well as a type II topoisomerase, which is required for bacterial DNA separation. As a result, they prevent nucleic acid synthesis.The following is a summary of the many modes of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:Action Mechanisms- Examples:Cell wall production is inhibitedVancomycinVancomycinCephalosporinsThe function of the cell membrane is disrupted NystatinPolymyxinsAmphotericin B Inhibition of protein synthesisChloramphenicolMacrolidesAminoglycosidesTetracyclinesNucleic acid synthesis inhibitionQuinolonesTrimethoprimRifampicin5-nitroimidazolesSulphonamidesAnti-metabolic activityIsoniazid
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.At the moment, he is completely symptom-free. When it comes to this type of overdose, how long does it usually take for symptoms to appear?
Your Answer: 8-12 hours
Correct Answer: 1-2 hours
Explanation:Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.>10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem can cause serious toxicity (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules)In children, 1-2 tablets of verapamil or diltiazem (immediate or sustained-release)Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of ingestion with standard preparations. However, with slow-release preparations, significant toxicity may take 12-16 hours to manifest, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.The following are the main clinical features of calcium-channel blocker overdose:Nausea and vomitingHypotensionBradycardia and first-degree heart blockMyocardial ischaemia and strokeRenal failurePulmonary oedemaHyperglycaemiaThe following are some of the most important bedside investigations to conduct:Blood glucoseECGArterial blood gasOther investigations that can be helpful includeUrea & electrolytesChest X-ray (pulmonary oedema)Echocardiography
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man complains of severe vertigo, nausea, and tinnitus. Upon presenting himself to the emergency room, it was observed that he is exhibiting ataxia, right-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the face, and left-sided sensory loss to the body. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and the results showed that he is suffering from a right-sided stroke. Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?
Your Answer: Basilar artery
Explanation:The lateral pontine syndrome occurs due to occlusion of perforating branches of the basilar and anterior inferior cerebellar (AICA) arteries. It is also known as Marie-Foix syndrome or Marie-Foix-Alajouanine syndrome. It is considered one of the brainstem stroke syndromes of the lateral aspect of the pons.It is characterized by ipsilateral limb ataxia, loss of pain and temperature sensation of the face, facial weakness, hearing loss, vertigo and nystagmus, hemiplegia/hemiparesis, and loss of pain and temperature sensation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
The results from the study investigating the accuracy of a new diagnostic test can be displayed in the following format. How is the negative predictive value calculated:Those with diseaseThose without diseaseTotalTest positiveaba+bTest negativecdc+dTotala+cb+dn=a+b+c+d
Your Answer: (a+c)/a
Correct Answer: d/(c+d)
Explanation:Negative predictive value (NPV) is the proportion of individuals with a negative test result who do not have the disease.NPV = d/(c+d)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man with trauma to his cervical spine suffers from damage to the ansa cervicalis, resulting to paresis of his infrahyoid muscles.All of the following are considered infrahyoid muscles, except:
Your Answer: Omohyoid
Correct Answer: Mylohyoid
Explanation:Infrahyoid muscles are also known as “strap muscles” which connect the hyoid, sternum, clavicle and scapula. They are located below the hyoid bone on the anterolateral surface of the thyroid gland and are involved in movements of the hyoid bone and thyroid cartilage during vocalization, swallowing and mastication. They are composed of four paired muscles, organized into two layers.Superficial layer consists of the sternohyoid and omohyoidDeep layer consists of the sternothyroid and thyrohyoid.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is the effect of activated vitamin D on the renal handling of calcium:
Your Answer: Decreases calcium reabsorption in the proximal tubule
Correct Answer: Increases calcium reabsorption in the distal tubule
Explanation:Activated vitamin D acts to:GUT:increase calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine (the main action)KIDNEYS:increase renal calcium reabsorption (in the distal tubule via activation of a basolateral Ca2+ATPase pump), increase renal phosphate reabsorption, inhibit 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity in the kidneys (negative feedback)PARATHYROID GLANDS:inhibit PTH secretion from the parathyroid glands
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
The renal corpuscle, consisting of the Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus is found where in the kidney:
Your Answer: The cortex
Explanation:All nephrons have their renal corpuscles in the renal cortex. Cortical nephrons have their renal corpuscles in the outer part of the cortex and relatively short loops of Henle. Juxtamedullary nephrons have their corpuscles in the inner third of the cortex, close to the corticomedullary junction, with long loops of Henle extending into the renal medulla.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
Which of the following is NOT a typical side effect of opioid analgesics:
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:All opioids have the potential to cause:Gastrointestinal effects – Nausea, vomiting, constipation, difficulty with micturition (urinary retention), biliary spasmCentral nervous system effects – Sedation, euphoria, respiratory depression, miosisCardiovascular effects – Peripheral vasodilation, postural hypotensionDependence and tolerance
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
The fluid in contact with a tube is dragged by frictional forces to the tube's sidewalls. This creates a velocity gradient in which the fluid flow is greatest in the tube's centre.Which of the following terms most accurately characterizes this flow pattern?
Your Answer: Turbulent flow
Correct Answer: Laminar flow
Explanation:The fluid in contact with a tube is dragged by frictional forces at the tube’s sidewalls. This creates a velocity gradient in which the fluid flow is greatest in the tube’s centre.This is known as laminar flow, and it characterizes the flow in most circulatory and respiratory systems when they are at rest.The velocity of the fluid flow can fluctuate erratically at high velocities, particularly within big arteries and airways, disrupting laminar flow. As a result, resistance increases significantly.This is known as turbulent flow, and symptoms include heart murmurs and asthmatic wheeze.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular Physiology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A patient is found to be anaemic. Which one of the following blood results would favour a diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease rather than iron deficiency:
Your Answer: Low total iron binding capacity (TIBC)
Explanation:Anaemia of chronic disease is one of the most common causes of normocytic anaemia. The anaemia is usually mild (Hb > 90 g/L) and non-progressive. Anaemia of chronic disease is usually associated with low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and a low total iron binding capacity (TIBC) with normal or raised ferritin which differentiates it from iron deficiency anaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
Which of the following immunoglobulins is most important for mast cell degranulation:
Your Answer: IgE
Explanation:IgA is the major Ig in secretions, particularly from the gastrointestinal tract (but also in saliva, tears, sweat and breast milk).IgE is important for mast cell degranulation in allergic and antiparasitic response. In the allergic response, the plasma cell produces IgE-antibodies, which, like antibodies of other immunoglobulin isotypes, are capable of binding a specific allergen via its Fab portion.IgG is the most abundant in plasma (comprising 80% of normal serum immunoglobulin) and the main circulatory Ig for the secondary immune response.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
For which of the following infections is phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) primarily used?
Your Answer: Streptococcal tonsillitis
Explanation:Phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) is less active than benzylpenicillin but both have similar antibacterial spectrum. Because penicillin V is gastric-acid stable, it is suitable for oral administration, but should not be used for serious infections as absorption can be unpredictable and plasma concentrations can be variable. Its uses are:1. mainly for respiratory tract infections in children2. for streptococcal tonsillitis 3. for continuing treatment after one or more injections of benzylpenicillin when clinical response has begun. 4. for prophylaxis against streptococcal infections following rheumatic fever and against pneumococcal infections following splenectomy or in sickle-cell disease. It should not be used for meningococcal or gonococcal infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
The following statements are not true of the flexor digiti minimi brevis, except?
Your Answer: It is innervated by the superficial branch of the ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: It is situated on the radial border of abductor digiti minimi
Explanation:Flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle is located on the ulnar side of the palm, lying on the radial border of the abductor digiti minimi. Together with the abductor digiti minimi and opponens digiti minimi muscles, it forms the hypothenar eminence. The muscle is situated inferior and lateral to adductor digiti minimi muscle and superior and medial to opponens digiti minimi muscle. The proximal parts of flexor digiti minimi brevis and abductor digiti minimi muscles form a gap through which deep branches of the ulnar artery and ulnar nerve pass.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
