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  • Question 1 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer: 5-HT2 agonist

      Correct Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation of the kneecaps. Choose the dermatome most likely compromised:

      Your Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      L4 dermatome distribution includes the kneecaps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:...

    Incorrect

    • The increased risk of oesophageal malignancy in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus is approximately:

      Your Answer: 5 times the risk

      Correct Answer: 50 - 100 times risk

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is the transformation of the normal squamous epithelium of the oesophagus to columnar, intestinal type epithelium. It is often seen in patients with reflux and there is a 50-100 fold increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma in patients with Barrett’s oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.

      Your Answer: Lymphedema

      Explanation:

      Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not been himself' and has been feeling 'out of sorts' for the past 3 weeks. There is no history of past mental health problems. Which of the following symptoms is highly suggestive of depression in this patient?

      Your Answer: Flash-backs to childhood problems

      Correct Answer: Early morning waking

      Explanation:

      Early morning waking is a highly suggestive feature of depression in this patient.

      NICE use the DSM-IV criteria to grade depression:
      1. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
      2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day
      3. Significant weight loss or weight gain when not dieting or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day
      4. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
      5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
      6. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
      7. Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day
      8. Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness nearly every day
      9. Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide

      Subthreshold depressive symptoms: Fewer than 5 symptoms
      Mild depression: Few, if any, symptoms over the 5 required to make the diagnosis, and symptoms result in only minor functional impairment
      Moderate depression: Symptoms or functional impairment are between ‘mild’ and ‘severe’
      Severe depression: Most symptoms and the symptoms markedly interfere with functioning. Can occur with or without psychotic symptoms.

      Treatment of depression:
      Psychotherapy (in the form of cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy) alone or in combination with medications such as:
      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
      – Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
      – Atypical antidepressants
      – Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators (SDAMs)
      – Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

      There is also empirical support for the ability of CBT to prevent relapse.

      Electroconvulsive therapy is a useful treatment option for patients with severe depression refractory to medication or those with psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindications is raised intracranial pressure.

      Side-effects:
      Headache
      Nausea
      Short term memory impairment
      Memory loss of events before ECT
      Cardiac arrhythmia
      Long-term side-effects: Impaired memory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather...

    Incorrect

    • In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?

      Your Answer: Combination therapy is less likely to result in long term toxicity

      Correct Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing

      Explanation:

      There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Deamination

      Correct Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
      Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.

      Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?

      Your Answer: Polio (Sabin)

      Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)

      Explanation:

      Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is the main mechanism of vitamin B12 absorption? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the main mechanism of vitamin B12 absorption?

      Your Answer: Passive absorption in the proximal ileum

      Correct Answer: Active absorption in the terminal ileum

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 is mostly used in the body for the development of red blood cells and maintenance of the nervous system. It is actively absorbed in the terminal ileum after binding to the intrinsic factor (IF) which is secreted from the parietal cells of stomach. Moreover, a small amount is also passively absorbed without being bound to IF.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency is characterised by sore tongue and mouth, mood disturbances, ataxia, and macrocytic anaemia. Its causes include poor diet, impaired absorption (due to disorders of terminal ileum), pernicious anaemia, and post-gastrectomy. While managing this condition, if the person is also deficient in folic acid, then it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first in order to avoid precipitating subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient shows reduced central vision upon visual acuity test. He is advised...

    Incorrect

    • A patient shows reduced central vision upon visual acuity test. He is advised to undergo a fundoscopy, which turns out to be normal. Which drug could be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are well known for their ocular complications such as glaucoma and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been treated for essential hypertension, with Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily and triamterene 150 mg once daily.   Routine investigations show: Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144) Serum potassium 5.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Serum urea 7.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum creatinine 100 μmol/L (60-110)   Her blood pressure is measured at 134/86 mmHg. Her electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today.   Which of these is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Give 10 ml 10% calcium gluconate IV

      Correct Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week

      Explanation:

      Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalaemia, therefore, it was stopped in this patient. With all other lab results returning normal values and a normal ECG, management will simply require repeating the U & E after one week since the Triamterene has already be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is investigated for hot flushes and night sweats. Her blood tests show a significantly raised FSH level and her symptoms are attributed to menopause. Following discussions with the patient, she elects to have hormone replacement treatment. What is the most significant risk of prescribing an oestrogen-only preparation rather than a combined oestrogen-progestogen preparation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      The use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) based on unopposed oestrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer, and uterine hyperplasia or cancer.
      Evidence from randomized controlled studies showed a definite association between HRT and uterine hyperplasia and cancer. HRT based on unopposed oestrogen is associated with this observed risk, which is unlike the increased risk of breast cancer linked with combined rather than unopposed HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality...

    Incorrect

    • In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality for which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Barbiturates

      Correct Answer: Tricyclics

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic compounds can’t be cleared by haemodialysis.

      Drugs that can be cleared with haemodialysis include: (BLAST)
      – Barbiturate
      – Lithium
      – Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)
      – Salicylates
      – Theophyllines (charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable)

      Drugs which cannot be cleared with haemodialysis include:
      – Tricyclics
      – Benzodiazepines
      – Dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)
      – Digoxin
      – Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S?

      Your Answer: It has the effect of shifting the oxygen dissociation curve to the left

      Correct Answer: It is the result of a point mutation

      Explanation:

      Hb S is the most common type of abnormal haemoglobin and the basis of sickle cell trait and sickle cell anaemia. It differs from normal adult haemoglobin (called haemoglobin A—Hb A) only by a single amino acid substitution due to point mutation—a valine replacing a glutamine in the sixth position of the beta chain of globin. Hb S molecules polymerize in hypoxic and acidic environments, imparting a sickle shape to the RBCs. Hb S molecules are less negatively charged than Hb A (due to the loss of glutamine) and have a lower affinity for oxygen (right shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing beta thalassaemia...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is most helpful in distinguishing beta thalassaemia trait from iron deficiency anaemia?

      Your Answer: Target cells on peripheral blood film examination

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin A2 levels

      Explanation:

      Elevated haemoglobin A2 level is seen in beta thalassaemia trait, whereas, it is typically low in iron deficiency anaemia unless the patient has received a recent blood transfusion.

      Low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and reduced haematocrit (Ht) are encountered in both conditions. Peripheral blood smear is grossly abnormal in both beta thalassaemia and severe iron deficiency anaemia, showing bizarre morphology, target cells, and a small number of nucleated red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Lysosome

      Explanation:

      Lysosomal hydrolases are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and specifically transported through the Golgi apparatus to the trans-Golgi network, from which transport vesicles bud to deliver them to the endosomal/lysosomal compartment. The explanation of how the lysosomal enzymes are accurately recognized and selected over many other proteins in the trans-Golgi network relies on them being tagged with a unique marker: the mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) group, which is added exclusively to the N-linked oligosaccharides of lysosomal soluble hydrolases, as they pass through the cis-Golgi network. Generation of the M6P recognition marker depends on a reaction involving two different enzymes: UDP-N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphotransferase and α-N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphodiester α-N-acetylglucosaminidase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman is reviewed in clinic. She was previously treated with omeprazole,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is reviewed in clinic. She was previously treated with omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori). She remains on PPI therapy but continues to have epigastric discomfort. You suspect she has ongoing H. pylori infection and request a urea breath test to investigate this. How long would the patient need to stop her PPI therapy before the urea breath test?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      PPI will affect the accuracy of the test. In general, most recommend discontinuing PPI therapy for 2 weeks prior to a urea breath test. PPI’s have an anti-H. pylori effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What does Caplan's syndrome refer to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does Caplan's syndrome refer to?

      Your Answer: Bronchial cancer secondary to pneumoconiosis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis

      Explanation:

      Caplan’s syndrome is defined as the association between silicosis and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is rare and usually diagnosed in an advanced stage of RA. It generally affects patients with a prolonged exposure to silica.

      Caplan’s syndrome presents with rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis. Originally described in coal miners with progressive massive fibrosis, it may also occur in asbestosis, silicosis and other pneumoconiosis. Chest radiology shows multiple, round, well defined nodules, usually 0.5 – 2.0 cm in diameter, which may cavitate and resemble tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles? ...

    Correct

    • Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles?

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is a double-stranded molecule of 16.6 kb (Figure 1, lower panel). The two strands of mtDNA differ in their base composition, with one being rich in guanines, making it possible to separate a heavy (H) and a light (L) strand by density centrifugation in alkaline CsCl2 gradients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed: Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 2.9 mmol/L, Chloride 114 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 75 µmol/L, Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 4)

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Intracellular proteins tagged with ubiquitination are destined to which of the following organelles?...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular proteins tagged with ubiquitination are destined to which of the following organelles?

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Proteasome

      Explanation:

      Delivery of ubiquitinated substrates to the proteasome.
      Ubiquitinated proteins are delivered to the proteasome by various routes and the complete picture of how these pathways fit together has yet to emerge, reviewed in. Some substrates bind directly to the proteasome by interacting with the 19S regulatory particle subunits Rpn1028 or Rpn1329, and probably Rpt530. Alternatively, ubiquitinated substrates can be brought to the proteasome by adaptors that bind both the proteasome and the ubiquitin chain on the substrate to deliver it for degradation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: There is only one type and brand of combined pill

      Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.

      Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.

      The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.

      Other options:
      The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful.
      There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course.
      Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure.
      There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance....

    Incorrect

    • An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. He is eager to know its relation to his future health. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: 40% of patients with MGUS go on to develop myeloma over 10 years

      Correct Answer: 10% of patients with MGUS go on to develop myeloma over 10 years

      Explanation:

      Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS, also known as benign paraproteinemia and monoclonal gammopathy) is a pre-malignant condition not necessarily leading to its malignant form—multiple myeloma. Around 10% of patients eventually develop myeloma over 10 years, with 50% at 15 years. MGUS causes paraproteinemia and is usually asymptomatic. It is not associated with ostealgia or increased risk of infections. It is often mistaken for multiple myeloma, differing from the latter in, no immunosuppression, normal levels of beta-2 microglobulin, and stable lower levels of paraproteinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepato-splenomegaly. Investigations reveal: Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22), Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 – 105), ALT 198 iu/l (5 – 35), AST 158 iu/l (1 – 31), Albumin 25 g/L (37 – 49), Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive, Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative, Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune chronic active hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario describes a man in liver failure. Given the serological results, he is most likely to have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, +IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. in immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. While he could have a superimposed hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B, there is no mention of hepatitis D serology, make this an incorrect answer. The other choices do not involve hepatitis serologies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old man having sickle cell anaemia presents with headache, lethargy, and pallor....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man having sickle cell anaemia presents with headache, lethargy, and pallor. His blood count shows: Haemoglobin: 4.6 g/dL, Reticulocytes: 3%. Infection with parvovirus is suspected. Out of the following, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic crisis

      Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises. One of the main types is aplastic crisis characterised by a sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis (3%—in this case—is just above the normal range). It usually occurs secondary to parvovirus infection.

      The other main types of sickle cell crises are thrombotic crisis (painful or vaso-occlusive crisis), sequestration crisis, and haemolytic crisis. Thrombotic crisis is precipitated by infection, dehydration, alcohol, change in temperature, and deoxygenation. Sequestration crisis is characterised by acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates). In haemolytic crisis, fall in haemoglobin occurs secondary to haemolysis. It is a rare type of sickle cell crises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Limited lumbar spine motion on physical examination

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60 yr. old patient with hypertension attended his regular clinic. His compliance...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old patient with hypertension attended his regular clinic. His compliance was poor. His blood pressure was 180/100 mmHg. His pulse rate was 85 bpm which was irregularly irregular. On examination there was bibasal crepitation. No murmurs were heard. What is the most likely cause for these findings?

      Your Answer: Occlusive coronary atherosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Left ventricular hypertrophy due to long standing hypertension is the most probable cause. The irregularly irregular pulse was suggestive of atrial fibrillation, which is due to diastolic dysfunction. Poor ventricular filling causes pulmonary congestion which manifests as bibasal crepitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.   What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression....

    Correct

    • A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression. She has no past medical history of interest but is known to smoke Cannabis. She had similar episodes in the past winter. Which condition does this signify?

      Your Answer: Seasonal affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that’s related to changes in seasons. SAD begins and ends at about the same time every year. For most people with SAD, the symptoms start in the fall and continue into the winter months, sapping the person’s energy and making him feel moody. Less often, SAD causes depression in the spring or early summer.

      Treatment for SAD may include light therapy (phototherapy), medications and psychotherapy.

      Signs and symptoms of SAD may include:
      Feeling depressed most of the day, nearly every day
      Losing interest in activities you once enjoyed
      Having low energy
      Having problems with sleeping
      Experiencing changes in your appetite or weight
      Feeling sluggish or agitated
      Having difficulty concentrating
      Feeling hopeless, worthless or guilty
      Having frequent thoughts of death or suicide.

      Seasonal affective disorder is diagnosed more often in women than in men. And SAD occurs more frequently in younger adults than in older adults.

      Factors that may increase your risk of seasonal affective disorder include:
      Family history. People with SAD may be more likely to have blood relatives with SAD or another form of depression.
      Having major depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms of depression may worsen seasonally if you have one of these conditions.
      Living far from the equator. SAD appears to be more common among people who live far north or south of the equator. This may be due to decreased sunlight during the winter and longer days during the summer months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He is hypertensive, for which he takes amlodipine. There is shortness of breath on exercise. His alcohol history is two cans of stout per day.   ECG is normal, and CXR reveals normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Serum albumin is 23 g/dl; urinary albumin excretion is 7 g/24 h, with no haematuria. He has mild anaemia with a normal MCV. Total cholesterol is elevated.   What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome usually presents with the symptoms in this patient: low albumin, abnormal cholesterol, increased urinary albumin excretion, oedema, and as a consequence, hypertension as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      25.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (0/4) 0%
Clinical Sciences (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/3) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Haematology & Oncology (0/6) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (2/4) 50%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed