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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of frequent falls, difficulty with walking, and bladder control problems. After a thorough evaluation and tests, a diagnosis of normal-pressure hydrocephalus is made.
What is the most common underlying factor leading to NPH?Your Answer: Idiopathic – no cause found
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms that are characteristic of normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a type of communicating hydrocephalus where the pressure inside the skull, as measured through a lumbar puncture, is either normal or occasionally elevated. It primarily affects elderly individuals, and the likelihood of developing NPH increases with age.
Around 50% of NPH cases are considered idiopathic, meaning there is no identifiable cause. The remaining cases are secondary to various conditions such as head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, central nervous system tumors, and radiotherapy.
The typical presentation of NPH includes a classic triad of symptoms: gait disturbance (often characterized by a broad-based and shuffling gait), sphincter disturbance leading to incontinence (usually urinary incontinence), and progressive dementia with memory loss, inattention, inertia, and bradyphrenia.
Diagnosing NPH primarily relies on identifying the classic clinical triad mentioned above. Additional investigations can provide supportive evidence, including CT and MRI scans that reveal enlarged ventricles and periventricular lucency. Lumbar puncture may also be performed, with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) typically appearing normal or intermittently elevated. Intraventricular monitoring may show beta waves for more than 5% of a 24-hour period.
NPH is one of the few reversible causes of dementia, making early recognition and treatment crucial. Medical treatment options such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g., acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar punctures can provide temporary relief. However, the definitive treatment for NPH involves surgically inserting a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) shunt. This procedure has shown lasting clinical benefits in 70% to 90% of patients compared to their pre-operative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. She has recently returned from a vacation in Brazil. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.2°C, oxygen saturation 93% on room air, heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate 24, blood pressure 122/63 mmHg. On examination, she has a tender, swollen left calf. Her chest X-ray shows no apparent abnormalities.
Which of the following tests should be ordered?Your Answer: Doppler ultrasound scan of leg
Explanation:Based on the clinical history and examination, it strongly indicates that the patient may have a pulmonary embolism caused by a deep vein thrombosis in his right leg. To confirm this, it is recommended that he undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram and doppler ultrasound scan of his right leg.
The typical symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, coughing, and/or coughing up blood. Additionally, there may be symptoms suggesting the presence of a deep vein thrombosis. Other signs to look out for are rapid breathing and heart rate, fever, and in severe cases, signs of systemic shock, a gallop heart rhythm, and increased jugular venous pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 21 year old college student comes to the emergency department complaining of feeling unwell, having a fever, and experiencing a severe sore throat. After evaluating the patient, you inform them that you suspect they may have contracted infectious mononucleosis. The patient inquires if it is possible to have caught this by kissing someone a week ago.
What is the usual duration of the incubation period for infectious mononucleosis?Your Answer: 2-3 weeks
Correct Answer: 4-8 weeks
Explanation:Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which her thoughts are heard as if they are being spoken aloud. She states that it feels almost as though her thoughts are ‘being echoed by a voice in her mind’.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she displaying?Your Answer: Thought echo
Explanation:Thought echo is a phenomenon where a patient perceives their own thoughts as if they are being spoken out loud. When there is a slight delay in this perception, it is referred to as echo de la pensée. On the other hand, when the thoughts are heard simultaneously, it is known as Gedankenlautwerden.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
Which ONE of the following is acknowledged as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?Your Answer: Blunted affect
Explanation:The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia, as described by Kurt Schneider, include auditory hallucinations such as hearing 3rd person voices discussing the patient, experiencing thought echo, and receiving commentary on one’s actions. Additionally, passivity phenomena may occur, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are also common in schizophrenia.
On the other hand, chronic schizophrenia is characterized by negative symptoms. These include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, and poverty of thought and speech. These symptoms are often present in individuals with chronic schizophrenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The right of capable individuals to make well-informed choices regarding their personal healthcare pertains to which of the subsequent principles?
Your Answer: Capacity
Correct Answer: Autonomy
Explanation:The principle of autonomy pertains to the right of capable individuals to make well-informed choices regarding their personal healthcare. Autonomy emphasizes the importance of respecting an individual’s ability to make decisions about their own health, based on their own values, beliefs, and preferences. It recognizes that individuals have the right to be informed about their healthcare options, to give informed consent, and to have their choices respected by healthcare providers. Autonomy is a fundamental principle in medical ethics that promotes patient-centered care and respects the individual’s right to self-determination.
Further Reading:
Principles of Medical Ethics:
1. Autonomy: Competent adults have the right to make informed decisions about their own medical care.
2. Beneficence: Healthcare professionals should take actions that serve the best interests of patients.
3. Non-maleficence: Healthcare professionals should not take actions that may injure or harm patients.
4. Justice: Healthcare professionals should take actions that are fair and equitable to both the individual and society as a whole.Confidentiality:
1. Use minimum necessary personal information and consider anonymizing information if possible.
2. Manage and protect personal information to prevent improper access, disclosure, or loss.
3. Understand and adhere to information governance appropriate to your role.
4. Comply with the law when handling personal information.
5. Share relevant information for direct care unless the patient objects.
6. Obtain explicit consent to disclose identifiable information for purposes other than care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or justified in the public interest.
7. Inform patients about disclosures of personal information they would not reasonably expect, unless not practicable or undermines the purpose of the disclosure.
8. Support patients in accessing their information and respecting their legal rights.Obtaining Patient’s Consent for Disclosure:
– Consent should be obtained for disclosing personal information for purposes other than direct care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or not appropriate or practicable.
Situations Where Patient Consent is Not Required for Disclosure:
– Adults at risk of or suffering abuse or neglect, as required by law.
– Adults lacking capacity, if neglect or harm is suspected, unless not overall beneficial to the patient.
– When required by law or approved through a statutory process.
– When justified in the public interest, such as for the prevention, detection, or prosecution of serious crime, patient’s fitness to drive, serious communicable disease, or posing a serious risk to others through being unfit for work.Confidentiality Following a Patient’s Death:
– Respect the patient’s confidentiality even after their death.
– If the patient previously requested not to share personal information with those close to them, abide by their wishes.
– Be considerate, sensitive, and responsive to those close to the patient, providing as much information as possible.The Law & Caldicott Guardians:
Data Protection Act:
– Sets rules and standards for the use and handling of personal data by organizations.
– Personal data must be used fairly, lawfully, transparently, and for specified purposes.
– Individuals have rights -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital signs reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and has not had an alcoholic beverage since the previous evening.
Which ONE of the following medications, not belonging to the benzodiazepine class, is commonly prescribed in the UK for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the UK to manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been authorized for this purpose. Other benzodiazepines like alprazolam, clobazam, and lorazepam do not currently have authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the UK.
Carbamazepine is also used in the UK to manage alcohol-related withdrawal symptoms, but it does not have official authorization for this use.
Clomethiazole, on the other hand, does have UK marketing authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms, but it is only recommended for use in a hospital setting with close supervision. The product information for clomethiazole advises caution when prescribing it to individuals with a history of addiction or outpatient alcoholics. It is also not recommended for patients who continue to drink or abuse alcohol. Combining alcohol with clomethiazole, especially in alcoholics with cirrhosis, can lead to fatal respiratory depression even with short-term use. Therefore, clomethiazole should only be used in a hospital under close supervision or, in rare cases, by specialist units on an outpatient basis with careful monitoring of the daily dosage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 3-year-old toddler is brought to the Emergency Department after ingesting a few of his mother's ibuprofen tablets 30 minutes ago. The child is currently showing no symptoms and is stable. The attending physician recommends giving a dose of activated charcoal. The child weighs 15 kg.
What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer in this case?Your Answer: 20 g orally
Explanation:Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.
Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.
The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 9
Correct
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You evaluate a teenager with tetralogy of Fallot in a pediatric cardiology clinic.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tetralogy of Fallot?Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy
Explanation:Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is the most prevalent cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease. It is characterized by four distinct features: pulmonary infundibular stenosis, overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect, and right ventricular hypertrophy. TOF is often associated with various congenital syndromes, including DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 microdeletion syndrome), Trisomy 21, Foetal alcohol syndrome, and Maternal phenylketonuria.
Nowadays, many cases of TOF are identified during antenatal screening or early postnatal assessment due to the presence of a heart murmur. Initially, severe cyanosis is uncommon shortly after birth because the patent ductus arteriosus provides additional blood flow to the lungs. However, once the ductus arteriosus closes, typically a few days after birth, cyanosis can develop.
In cases where TOF goes undetected, the clinical manifestations may include severe cyanosis, poor feeding, breathlessness, dyspnea on exertion (such as prolonged crying), hypercyanotic spells triggered by activity, agitation, developmental delay, and failure to thrive. A cardiac examination may reveal a loud, long ejection systolic murmur caused by pulmonary stenosis, a systolic thrill at the lower left sternal edge, an aortic ejection click, and digital clubbing. Radiologically, a characteristic finding in TOF is a ‘boot-shaped’ heart (Coeur en sabot).
Treatment for TOF often involves two stages. Initially, a palliative procedure is performed to alleviate symptoms, followed by a total repair at a later stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 10
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals the presence of macrocytic anemia.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Myeloproliferative disease
Explanation:Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).
On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.
Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.
It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Correct
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You are overseeing a patient who has been administered ketamine. You have concerns about restlessness and emergence phenomena during the recovery process. Which class of medication is commonly employed to manage emergence phenomena?
Your Answer: Benzodiazepines
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are medications that are utilized to address emergence phenomena, which are characterized by restlessness and distressing hallucinations experienced upon awakening from ketamine sedation or induction. These phenomena are more frequently observed in older children and adults, affecting approximately one out of every three adults. To manage emergence phenomena, benzodiazepines may be administered. It is important to note that the RCEM does not recommend preventive treatment and suggests addressing emergence phenomena as they arise.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a car crash. There is significant bruising on the right side of the chest. You suspect the patient has a haemothorax. What are the two main objectives in managing this condition?
Your Answer: Replace lost circulating blood volume and decompression of the pleural space
Explanation:The main objectives in managing haemothorax are to restore the lost blood volume and relieve pressure in the pleural space. These actions are crucial for improving the patient’s oxygen levels.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 13
Correct
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A 70-year-old man has loss of motivation, difficulties with concentration and behavioral changes that have been ongoing for the past few years. Over the past couple of months, he has also exhibited signs of memory loss. His family is extremely worried and states that his behavior has been very different from his usual self for the past few months. His language has become vulgar, and he has been somewhat lacking in inhibition. Occasionally, he has also been excessively active and prone to pacing and wandering.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pick’s disease
Explanation:Pick’s disease is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that leads to a gradual decline in cognitive function known as frontotemporal dementia. One of the key features of this condition is the accumulation of tau proteins in neurons, forming silver-staining, spherical aggregations called ‘Pick bodies.’
Typically, Pick’s disease manifests between the ages of 40 and 60. Initially, individuals may experience changes in their personality, such as disinhibition, tactlessness, and vulgarity. They may also exhibit alterations in their moral values and attempt to distance themselves from their family. Difficulties with concentration, increased activity levels, pacing, and wandering are also common during this stage.
What sets Pick’s disease apart from Alzheimer’s disease is that the changes in personality occur before memory loss becomes apparent. As the disease progresses, patients will experience deficits in intellect, memory, and language.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 42-year-old woman in the ER after a fall. During the examination, you observe multiple clinical manifestations consistent with Cushing syndrome. What is the most probable underlying cause of Cushing syndrome in this case?
Your Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:Cushing syndrome is most commonly caused by the use of external glucocorticoids. However, when it comes to endogenous causes, pituitary adenoma, also known as Cushing’s disease, is the leading culprit.
Further Reading:
Cushing’s syndrome is a clinical syndrome caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of glucocorticoids. The severity of symptoms can vary depending on the level of steroid exposure. There are two main classifications of Cushing’s syndrome: ACTH-dependent disease and non-ACTH-dependent disease. ACTH-dependent disease is caused by excessive ACTH production from the pituitary gland or ACTH-secreting tumors, which stimulate excessive cortisol production. Non-ACTH-dependent disease is characterized by excess glucocorticoid production independent of ACTH stimulation.
The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is exogenous steroid use. Pituitary adenoma is the second most common cause and the most common endogenous cause. Cushing’s disease refers specifically to Cushing’s syndrome caused by an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor.
Clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome include truncal obesity, supraclavicular fat pads, buffalo hump, weight gain, moon facies, muscle wasting and weakness, diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance, gonadal dysfunction, hypertension, nephrolithiasis, skin changes (such as skin atrophy, striae, easy bruising, hirsutism, acne, and hyperpigmentation in ACTH-dependent causes), depression and emotional lability, osteopenia or osteoporosis, edema, irregular menstrual cycles or amenorrhea, polydipsia and polyuria, poor wound healing, and signs related to the underlying cause, such as headaches and visual problems.
Diagnostic tests for Cushing’s syndrome include 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, and late-night salivary cortisol. Other investigations aim to assess metabolic disturbances and identify the underlying cause, such as plasma ACTH, full blood count (raised white cell count), electrolytes, and arterial blood gas analysis. Imaging, such as CT or MRI of the abdomen, chest, and/or pituitary, may be required to assess suspected adrenal tumors, ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors, and pituitary tumors. The choice of imaging is guided by the ACTH result, with undetectable ACTH and elevated serum cortisol levels indicating ACTH-independent Cushing’s syndrome and raised ACTH suggesting an ACTH-secreting tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought in by an emergency ambulance after being involved in a car accident. A trauma alert is activated, and you are tasked with obtaining intravenous access and administering a fluid bolus. However, you are unable to successfully establish intravenous access and decide to prepare for intraosseous access instead.
Which of the following anatomical sites would be the most appropriate for insertion?Your Answer: Proximal humerus
Explanation:Intraosseous access is recommended in trauma, burns, or resuscitation situations when other attempts at venous access fail or would take longer than one minute. It is particularly recommended for circulatory access in pediatric cardiac arrest cases. This technique can also be used when urgent blood sampling or intravenous access is needed and traditional cannulation is difficult and time-consuming. It serves as a temporary measure to stabilize the patient and facilitate long-term intravenous access.
Potential complications of intraosseous access include compartment syndrome, infection, and fracture. Therefore, it is contraindicated to use this method on the side of definitively fractured bones or limbs with possible proximal fractures. It should also not be used at sites of previous attempts or in patients with conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta or osteopetrosis.
There are several possible sites for intraosseous access insertion. These include the proximal humerus, approximately 1 cm above the surgical neck; the proximal tibia, on the anterior surface, 2-3 cm below the tibial tuberosity; the distal tibia, 3 cm proximal to the most prominent aspect of the medial malleolus; the femoral region, on the anterolateral surface, 3 cm above the lateral condyle; the iliac crest; and the sternum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department with a head injury associated with alcohol intoxication. The patient has a history of being unreliable when providing information. After reviewing the patient's medical records, you discover that the patient has a pre-existing diagnosis of chronic hepatitis B infection.
Which of the following suggests the presence of chronic hepatitis B infection?Your Answer: Presence of IgG anti-HBc for for greater than 6 months
Correct Answer: Presence of HBsAg for for greater than 6 months
Explanation:Chronic hepatitis B infection is characterized by the persistence of serum HbsAg for a duration exceeding six months.
Further Reading:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.
Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.
Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.
In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.
Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy has been seen by one of your colleagues a few days earlier due to a persistent cough and fever that he has had for the past 10 days. The cough is a harsh, hacking cough and tends to occur in short bursts. Your colleague suspected a diagnosis of whooping cough and organized for a nasopharyngeal swab to be sent for culture.
You review the child today with his parents having received notification from the lab that the child has a confirmed diagnosis of whooping cough. He lives with his parents and has a younger sister who is 2 years old. The mother is currently 36 weeks pregnant. The sister is up-to-date with all of her vaccinations as per the current US vaccination schedule.
Which members of the household should receive chemoprophylaxis?Your Answer: The mother, father, and brother
Explanation:Whooping cough is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is highly contagious and spreads to about 90% of close household contacts. Public Health England (PHE) has identified two priority groups for managing whooping cough contacts. Group 1 includes infants under one year who have received less than three doses of the pertussis vaccine and are at risk of severe infection. Group 2 includes pregnant women at 32 weeks or more, healthcare workers dealing with infants and pregnant women, individuals working with unvaccinated infants under 4 months old, and individuals living with unvaccinated infants under 4 months old.
According to current guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis with a macrolide antibiotic like erythromycin should only be given to close contacts if the following criteria are met: the index case has had symptoms within the past 21 days and there is a close contact in one of the priority groups. If both criteria are met, all contacts, regardless of age and vaccination status, should be offered chemoprophylaxis. In this case, the mother falls into group 2, so the recommended action is to provide chemoprophylaxis to all household contacts, including the mother, father, and brother. Additionally, those who receive chemoprophylaxis should also consider immunization or a booster dose based on their current vaccination status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, excessive sweating at night, and easy bruising. During the examination, splenomegaly is observed. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 8.9 g/dl (normal range: 11.5-15.5 g/dl)
- Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 87 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
- White Cell Count (WCC): 134.6 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
- Neutrophils: 107 x 109/l (normal range: 2-7.5 x 109/l)
- Platelets: 223 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
- Philadelphia chromosome: positive
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of blood disorder that arises from an abnormal pluripotent haemopoietic stem cell. The majority of CML cases, more than 80%, are caused by a cytogenetic abnormality called the Philadelphia chromosome. This abnormality occurs when there is a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of chromosomes 9 and 22.
CML typically develops slowly over a period of several years, known as the chronic stage. During this stage, patients usually do not experience any symptoms, and it is often discovered incidentally through routine blood tests. Around 90% of CML cases are diagnosed during this stage. In the bone marrow, less than 10% of the white cells are immature blasts.
Symptoms start to appear when the CML cells begin to expand, which is known as the accelerated stage. Approximately 10% of cases are diagnosed during this stage. Between 10 and 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are blasts at this point. Common clinical features during this stage include tiredness, fatigue, fever, night sweats, abdominal distension, left upper quadrant pain (splenic infarction), splenomegaly (enlarged spleen), hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), easy bruising, gout (due to rapid cell turnover), and hyperviscosity (which can lead to complications like stroke, priapism, etc.).
In some cases, a small number of patients may present with a blast crisis, also known as the blast stage. During this stage, more than 30% of the blood cells in the bone marrow are immature blast cells. Patients in this stage are generally very ill, experiencing severe constitutional symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and bone pain, as well as infections and bleeding tendencies.
Laboratory findings in CML include a significantly elevated white cell count (often greater than 100 x 109/l), a left shift with an increased number of immature leukocytes, mild to moderate normochromic, normocytic anaemia, variable platelet counts (low, normal, or elevated), presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 80% of cases, and elevated levels of serum uric acid and alkaline phosphatase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 50-year-old carpenter comes in with a chief complaint of shoulder pain that worsens with repetitive overhead tasks. Additionally, he reports experiencing nighttime pain and difficulty in raising his arm. There is no history of any injuries.
Which muscle is most likely to be affected in this scenario?Your Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The supraspinatus tendon passes through a narrow space located between the underside of the acromion and acromioclavicular joint, as well as the head of the humerus. When the tendon becomes trapped in this space, it can cause pain and restrict movement, especially during overhead activities. This condition is known as subacromial impingement.
Impingement can occur due to various factors, such as thickening of the tendon caused by partial tears, inflammation, or degeneration. It can also be a result of the space narrowing due to osteoarthritis of the acromioclavicular joint or the presence of bone spurs. Some individuals may have a naturally downward sloping acromion, which makes them more susceptible to impingement.
Certain professions that involve a significant amount of overhead work, like plasterers, builders, and decorators, are particularly prone to developing subacromial impingement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl comes in with a significant haemarthrosis in her left knee after falling while trying to stand up using a side table. Her mother mentions that her older sister has a bleeding disorder and has also had haemarthrosis before.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease
Correct Answer: Haemophilia A
Explanation:Haemophilia is a collection of genetic disorders that are inherited and lead to impaired blood clotting. Haemophilia A specifically occurs when there is a deficiency of factor VIII and is typically passed down as a recessive trait on the X chromosome.
The initial signs of haemophilia A usually appear around 6 months of age when infants start crawling, although it can manifest later. Bleeding can occur either spontaneously or as a result of trauma. One key indicator of haemophilia is bleeding into muscles and joints, known as haemarthrosis. While gastrointestinal and cerebral bleeding can also happen, they are less common occurrences.
Based on the symptoms described, the most likely diagnosis from the given options would be Haemophilia A, especially when there is a combination of haemarthrosis and an older brother with the same disorder.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system causes a decrease in platelet count. Antibodies target the glycoprotein IIb-IIIa or Ib complex. Acute ITP is more prevalent in children and affects both sexes equally. Chronic ITP, on the other hand, is more common in young to middle-aged women. Unlike haemophilia, ITP typically presents with symptoms such as nosebleeds, oral bleeding, purpura, or petechiae, rather than haemarthrosis. Additionally, ITP is not an inherited disorder.
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an inherited disorder that follows an X-linked recessive pattern. It is characterized by a defect in the G6PD enzyme, which plays a crucial role in red blood cell metabolism. Most individuals with G6PD deficiency do not experience symptoms. However, haemolytic crisis can occur in response to factors like illness (especially infection and diabetic ketoacidosis), certain medications (such as specific antibiotics, antimalarials, sulphonamides, and aspirin), or certain foods (notably fava beans).
Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is the most common hereditary coagulation disorder, affecting approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It arises from a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which leads to reduced levels of factor VIII. vWF is responsible for protecting factor VIII from rapid breakdown in the blood and is also necessary for platelet adhesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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