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  • Question 1 - During a late-night shift at an urgent care centre, you encounter a 30-year-old...

    Correct

    • During a late-night shift at an urgent care centre, you encounter a 30-year-old woman who complains of experiencing pain and swelling in her right leg for the past three days. She denies having chest pain or difficulty breathing and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      Upon examination, you notice that her right leg is swollen and tender to the touch. Her heart rate and pulse oximetry are both normal. After calculating a Wells deep vein thrombosis (DVT) score of 2, you advise her to visit her GP surgery the next morning for urgent blood tests, including a d-dimer, and to be monitored by the duty GP at her practice. You also instruct her to stop taking her contraceptive pill in the meantime.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Prescribe apixaban

      Explanation:

      If there is suspicion of a DVT and it is not possible to obtain a D-dimer or scan result within four hours, NICE recommends initiating anticoagulation treatment with a DOAC such as apixaban. Low molecular weight heparin is no longer the preferred option. Clopidogrel is not effective in treating DVT. Warfarin, which was previously used, has been largely replaced by DOACs, but may still be used in some cases with low molecular weight heparin until the INR is within target range.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      18.3
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins. These have been present for a few years and do not cause any discomfort, but she is unhappy with their appearance.

      Upon examination, there are no skin changes, leg ulcers, or signs of thrombophlebitis.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE NEXT step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg OD

      Explanation:

      Conservative Management of Varicose Veins

      Conservative management is recommended for patients with asymptomatic varicose veins, meaning those that are not causing pain, skin changes, or ulcers. This approach includes lifestyle changes such as weight loss, light/moderate physical activity, leg elevation, and avoiding prolonged standing. Compression stockings are also recommended to alleviate symptoms.

      There is no medication available for varicose veins, and ultrasound is not necessary in the absence of thrombosis. Referral to secondary care may be necessary based on local guidelines, particularly if the patient is experiencing discomfort, swelling, heaviness, or itching, or if skin changes such as eczema are present due to chronic venous insufficiency. Urgent referral is required for venous leg ulcers and superficial vein thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the hospital three months ago following a cholecystectomy. He was started on several new medications due to hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Despite feeling well, he has noticed ankle swelling and suspects it may be a side effect of one of the new medications.

      During the examination, his blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, and his heart rate is 68/min irregularly irregular.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for the observed side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Felodipine

      Explanation:

      Felodipine is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil compared to dihydropyridines like amlodipine. Calcium channel blockers are commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in patients over 55 years old, but a common side effect is peripheral edema. Dihydropyridines, such as amlodipine, work by selectively targeting vascular smooth muscle receptors, causing vasodilation and increased capillary pressure, which can lead to ankle edema. On the other hand, non-dihydropyridines like verapamil are more selective for myocardial calcium receptors, resulting in reduced cardiac contraction and heart rate.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 4 - A patient with a history of heart failure experiences mild physical activity limitations....

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of heart failure experiences mild physical activity limitations. While at rest, she is comfortable, but everyday tasks like walking to nearby stores cause fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea. Which New York Heart Association class accurately characterizes the extent of her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NYHA Class II

      Explanation:

      NYHA Classification for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. The New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification is a widely used system to categorize the severity of heart failure. The NYHA classification has four classes, each with a different level of symptoms and limitations.

      NYHA Class I refers to patients who have no symptoms and no limitations in their physical activity. They can perform ordinary physical exercise without experiencing fatigue, dyspnea, or palpitations.

      NYHA Class II patients have mild symptoms and slight limitations in their physical activity. They are comfortable at rest, but ordinary activity can cause fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea.

      NYHA Class III patients have moderate symptoms and marked limitations in their physical activity. They are comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity can result in symptoms.

      NYHA Class IV patients have severe symptoms and are unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of heart failure are present even at rest, and any physical activity increases discomfort.

      In summary, the NYHA classification is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the severity of chronic heart failure and determine appropriate treatment plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 5 - You are requested to finalize a medical report for a patient who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to finalize a medical report for a patient who has applied for life insurance. Two years ago, he began treatment for hypertension but stopped taking medication eight months later due to adverse reactions. His latest blood pressure reading is 154/92 mmHg. During the patient's visit to your clinic, he requests that you omit any reference to hypertension as everything appears to be fine now. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact the insurance company stating that you cannot write a report and give no reason

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports

      When writing insurance reports, it is important for doctors to be familiar with the GMC Good Medical Practice and supplementary guidance documents. The Association of British Insurers (ABI) website provides helpful information on best practices for insurance reports. One key point to remember is that NHS referrals to clarify a patient’s condition are not appropriate for insurance reports. Instead, the ABI and BMA have developed a standard GP report (GPR) form that doctors can use. It is acceptable for GPs to charge the insurance company a fee for this work, and reports should be sent within 20 working days of receiving the request.

      When writing the report, it is important to only include relevant information and not send a full print-out of the patient’s medical records. Written consent is required before releasing any information, and patients have the right to see the report before it is sent. However, doctors cannot comply with requests to leave out relevant information from the report. If an applicant or insured person refuses to give permission for certain relevant information to be included, the doctor should indicate to the insurance company that they cannot write a report. It is also important to note that insurance companies may have access to a patient’s medical records after they have died. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that their insurance reports are accurate and ethical.

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports:
      – Use the standard GP report (GPR) form developed by the ABI and BMA
      – Only include relevant information and do not send a full print-out of medical records
      – Obtain written consent before releasing any information
      – Patients have the right to see the report before it is sent
      – Insurance companies may have access to medical records after a patient has died

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman is visiting the clinic several months after experiencing a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is visiting the clinic several months after experiencing a heart attack. She has been prescribed medications to lower her risk of cardiovascular disease and has made dietary changes to promote healthy living. However, she has recently reported experiencing muscle aches and pains and her CK levels are elevated. Which of the following foods or substances may have contributed to the increased risk of statin-related myotoxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranberry juice

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Fruit Juices and Supplements

      Grapefruit juice can significantly increase the serum concentrations of certain statins by reducing their first-pass metabolism in the small intestine through the inhibition of CYP3A4. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid consuming large amounts of grapefruit juice while taking atorvastatin or to adjust the dosage accordingly. CYP3A4 is a member of the cytochrome P450 system.

      On the other hand, while an interaction between cranberry juice and warfarin has been recognized, there have been no reported interactions with other drugs metabolized via the P450 system. Additionally, there have been no known interactions between statins, carrot juice, garlic, or omega-3 fish oils. However, it is important to note that according to NICE CG172, patients should no longer be advised to take omega-3 supplements to prevent another MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has a medical history of hypothyroidism, asthma, and high cholesterol. He reports feeling well, and his QRISK score is calculated at 11%.

      The patient is currently taking levothyroxine, atorvastatin, lercanidipine, beclomethasone, and salbutamol. He has no known allergies.

      After taking three readings, his blood pressure averages at 146/92 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addition of losartan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s current therapy doesn’t affect the treatment decision, but an additional medication from either the ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker class is recommended to control their blood pressure. According to updated guidelines from 2019, a thiazide-like diuretic may also be used. As losartan is the only medication from these classes, it is the correct choice. Bisoprolol, doxazosin, and spironolactone are typically reserved for cases of resistant hypertension that do not respond to combinations of a calcium channel blocker, a thiazide-like diuretic, and an ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Since the patient is only on a single therapy, adding any of these options is not currently indicated. Choosing to make no changes to the medication is incorrect, as the patient’s blood pressure remains above the target range of 140/90 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - Mr. Johnson is brought into the clinic by his son, Mark, who is...

    Incorrect

    • Mr. Johnson is brought into the clinic by his son, Mark, who is concerned about his father's uncontrolled blood pressure (BP). Mr. Johnson has mild vascular dementia and Mark understands the importance of managing cardiovascular risk factors in this condition.

      They have brought some home BP readings which are consistently around 155/85 mmHg. You review Mr. Johnson's medication list and see that he is prescribed ramipril 10 mg and indapamide 2.5mg. He had previously experienced ankle swelling with amlodipine, so it was discontinued. You consider the possibility of non-compliance, but Mark assures you that he reminds his father to take his medications every day.

      You measure Mr. Johnson's BP in both arms and find it to be 160/90 mmHg. A standing BP is lower, at 138/80 mmHg, and Mr. Johnson reports no symptoms of dizziness or fainting. His pulse is 84 and regular. You review his recent blood tests and note that his potassium level is 3.7mmol/L.

      What is the appropriate treatment for Mr. Johnson's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not increase antihypertensive medication

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s significant postural drop in blood pressure or symptoms of postural hypotension, treatment should be determined by their standing blood pressure. Therefore, no further increase in antihypertensive medication is necessary for this patient. However, if it were indicated, a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker may be a suitable option as it is less likely to cause ankle swelling than amlodipine. Additionally, spironolactone may be considered. It is important to note that standing blood pressure should be checked in patients with resistant hypertension. Lastly, increasing the dose of ramipril is not recommended as the patient is already taking the maximum dose.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 9 - Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short-acting formulations of nifedipine should not be used for angina or hypertension

      Explanation:

      The BNF cautions that the use of short-acting versions of nifedipine can result in significant fluctuations in blood pressure and trigger reflex tachycardia.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with hypertension and has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with hypertension and has a history of chronic heart failure due to alcoholic cardiomyopathy (NYHA class I). Which medication should be avoided due to contraindication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure

      Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - You are assessing a 67-year-old woman with longstanding varicose veins. A couple of...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 67-year-old woman with longstanding varicose veins. A couple of weeks ago, she experienced pain and redness around one of them, which resolved after using ibuprofen gel for a few weeks. Upon examination, her legs appear normal except for the varicose veins, and she has normal distal pulses. Based on current NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to vascular services

      Explanation:

      Patients with varicose veins and a history of superficial thrombophlebitis should be referred for routine referral to vascular services according to NICE guidance. This condition is usually self-limiting but has a high likelihood of recurrence without treatment. Dermatology is not involved in this condition, and ABPI is usually used in the context of peripheral arterial disease or compression bandaging. Class 2 compression stockings are used in the treatment of varicose veins without complications in primary care.

      Understanding Varicose Veins

      Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.

      To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.

      In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy

      NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man presents for follow-up at the hypertension clinic. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for follow-up at the hypertension clinic. He is currently on a regimen of amlodipine and ramipril and has no significant medical history. He regularly checks his blood pressure at home and brings in a printed spreadsheet of his readings. What is the recommended target blood pressure for these home measurements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The threshold for stage 1 hypertension, as measured by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM), is a reading of 135/85 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - The use of beta-blockers in treating hypertension has decreased significantly over the last...

    Incorrect

    • The use of beta-blockers in treating hypertension has decreased significantly over the last half-decade. What are the primary factors contributing to this decline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less likely to prevent stroke + potential impairment of glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      The ASCOT-BPLA study showcased this phenomenon.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

    He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

      He has been known to have ischaemic heart disease for many years and has recently seen the cardiologists for outpatient review. Following this assessment he opted for medical management and they have optimised his bisoprolol dose. His current medications consist of:

      Aspirin 75 mg daily

      Ramipril 10 mg daily

      Bisoprolol 10 mg daily

      Simvastatin 40 mg daily, and

      Tadalafil 5 mg daily.

      He reports ongoing angina at least twice a week when out walking which dissipates quickly when he stops exerting himself. You discuss adding in further treatment to try and reduce his anginal symptoms.

      Assuming that his current medication remains unchanged, which of the following is contraindicated in this gentleman as an add-on regular medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Contraindication of Co-Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors and Nitrates

      Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors and nitrates should not be co-prescribed due to the potential risk of life-threatening hypotension caused by excessive vasodilation. It is important to consider whether nitrates are administered regularly or as needed (PRN) when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors. Patients who take regular daily nitrates, such as oral isosorbide mononitrate twice daily, should avoid phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors altogether.

      For patients who use sublingual GTN spray as a PRN nitrate medication, it is recommended to wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil and at least 48 hours after taking tadalafil before using GTN spray. This precaution helps to prevent the risk of hypotension and ensures patient safety. Overall, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of co-prescribing these medications and to follow appropriate guidelines to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is concerned about experiencing palpitations. He reports that they occur twice a day and are fast and irregular, with a possible association with alcohol consumption. He denies any chest pain or fainting episodes. On examination, his cardiovascular symptoms are normal, with a pulse of 72/min and a blood pressure of 116/78 mmHg. Blood tests and a 12-lead ECG are unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a Holter monitor

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences palpitations, the first step in investigating the issue should be to conduct a Holter monitor test after conducting initial blood tests and an ECG. Palpitations are often indicative of an arrhythmia, such as atrial fibrillation, and it is important to conduct further investigations to rule out this possibility.

      Holter monitoring is the recommended first-line investigation to capture any episodes of arrhythmia. Since the patient experiences these episodes daily, a 24-hour monitoring period is appropriate. However, a troponin test is not necessary as there is no chest pain, and an echocardiogram is not warranted as there are no indications of heart failure.

      If the Holter monitoring results are normal and the patient continues to experience symptoms, an external loop recorder may be considered.

      Investigating Palpitations: Identifying Possible Causes and Capturing Episodic Arrhythmias

      Palpitations are a common symptom that can be caused by various factors such as arrhythmias, stress, and increased awareness of normal heartbeats. To investigate the underlying cause of palpitations, first-line investigations include a 12-lead ECG, thyroid function tests, urea and electrolytes, and a full blood count. However, these investigations may not capture episodic arrhythmias, which are often missed during a short ECG recording.

      To capture episodic arrhythmias, the most common investigation is Holter monitoring. This portable battery-operated device continuously records ECG from 2-3 leads for 24 hours or longer if symptoms are less than daily. Patients are asked to keep a diary to record any symptomatic palpitations, which can later be compared to the rhythm strip at the time of the symptoms. At the end of the monitoring, a report is generated summarizing heart rate, arrhythmias, and changes in ECG waveform.

      If no abnormality is found on the Holter monitor and symptoms persist, other options include an external loop recorder or an implantable loop recorder. These investigations can help identify the underlying cause of palpitations and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - You are examining the results of an ambulatory blood pressure monitor (ABPM) for...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the results of an ambulatory blood pressure monitor (ABPM) for a 65-year-old man with suspected hypertension. You have also arranged an ECG, blood tests and a urine dipstick, all of which have been normal. According to QRISK, his 10-year cardiovascular risk is 7%. The ABPM results reveal an average daytime reading of 148/94 mmHg. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnose stage 1 hypertension and advise about lifestyle changes

      Explanation:

      This pertains to the utilization of statins for initial prevention, as opposed to the present NICE guidelines for hypertension.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with hypertension wants to know...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with hypertension wants to know your opinion on salt consumption. What would be the most suitable answer based on the latest available evidence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lowering salt intake significantly reduces blood pressure, the target should be less than 6g per day

      Explanation:

      Studies conducted recently have highlighted the noteworthy and swift decrease in blood pressure that can be attained through the reduction of salt consumption.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a medication review. He has a history...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a medication review. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, and heart failure. Which of the following medications should be prescribed using brand names only?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modified-release verapamil

      Explanation:

      To ensure effective symptom control, it is important to prescribe modified release calcium channel blockers by their specific brand names, as their release characteristics can vary. Therefore, it is necessary to maintain consistency in the brand prescribed.

      Prescribing Guidance for Healthcare Professionals

      Prescribing medication is a crucial aspect of healthcare practice, and it is essential to follow good practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidance on prescribing medication, including the recommendation to prescribe drugs by their generic name, except for specific preparations where the clinical effect may differ. It is also important to avoid unnecessary decimal points when writing numbers, such as prescribing 250 ml instead of 0.25 l. Additionally, it is a legal requirement to specify the age of children under 12 on their prescription.

      However, there are certain drugs that should be prescribed by their brand name, including modified release calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics, ciclosporin and tacrolimus, mesalazine, lithium, aminophylline and theophylline, methylphenidate, CFC-free formulations of beclomethasone, and dry powder inhaler devices. By following these prescribing guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective medication management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition where the left ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged, often affecting the interventricular septum and causing a blockage in the left ventricular outflow tract. Patients with HCM typically experience shortness of breath, but may also have angina or fainting spells. Physical examination may reveal a prominent presystolic S4 gallop, a harsh systolic ejection murmur, and a left ventricular apical impulse. The Valsalva manoeuvre and standing up from a squatting position can increase the intensity of the murmur. An echocardiogram is the preferred diagnostic test for HCM. Syncope occurs in 15-25% of HCM patients, and recurrent syncope in young patients may indicate an increased risk of sudden death. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, typically affects older patients and causes exertional syncope. The ejection systolic murmur associated with aortic stenosis is loudest at the upper right sternal border and radiates to the carotids. It increases with squatting and decreases with standing and isometric muscular contraction. Atrial fibrillation can also cause syncope, but if it is associated with HCM, the underlying cause is still HCM. Vasovagal syncope is usually triggered by prolonged standing or exposure to hot, crowded environments. The term syncope excludes other conditions that cause altered consciousness, such as seizures or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - You are contemplating prescribing enalapril for a patient with recently diagnosed heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing enalapril for a patient with recently diagnosed heart failure. What are the most typical side-effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cough + anaphylactoid reactions + hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man who rarely visits the clinic is brought in by his daughter with complaints of orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea and swollen ankles that have been present for a few weeks. On examination, he has bilateral basal crepitations and a resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram reveals a reduced ejection fraction. He responds well to treatment with optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor and furosemide. What is the most accurate statement regarding his future management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be started on a ß-blocker

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. One of the recommended treatment options is the prescription of a cardioselective β-blocker such as carvedilol. However, it should not be taken at the same time as an ACE inhibitor. While diuretics can help control oedema, the mainstay of treatment for chronic heart failure is ACE inhibitors and β-blockade. Although digoxin and spironolactone may have a place in treatment, they are not first or second line options. For severe cases of heart failure, biventricular pacing with an implantable defibrillator can be useful. Overall, a combination of these treatment options can help manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision that have been present for two days. He has been taking amlodipine 5 mg, which was prescribed at the same clinic two weeks ago. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 190/115 mmHg. Although his cardiovascular examination is unremarkable, retinal hemorrhages are observed during fundoscopy, but no papilledema is present. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent specialist care on the same day

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral to Specialist Care for Hypertension

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with accelerated hypertension or suspected phaeochromocytoma should be referred to specialist care on the same day. Accelerated hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure usually higher than 180/120 mmHg with signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage. Suspected phaeochromocytoma is characterized by labile or postural hypotension, headache, palpitations, pallor, and diaphoresis.

      It is important to note that if a patient presents with a blood pressure higher than 180/120 mmHg, it is crucial to examine their fundi and check for the presence or absence of papilloedema or retinal haemorrhages. Additionally, healthcare professionals should consider the need for specialist investigations in patients with signs and symptoms suggesting a secondary cause of hypertension. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with exertional chest pain and a positive exercise tolerance test. He refuses to undergo an angiogram and is discharged with a medication regimen consisting of aspirin 75 mg od, simvastatin 40 mg on, atenolol 50 mg od, and a GTN spray prn. Upon examination, his pulse is 72 bpm and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. During follow-up, he continues to frequently use his GTN spray. What is the most appropriate course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase atenolol to 100 mg od

      Explanation:

      If a patient with angina doesn’t respond well to the first-line drug (such as a beta-blocker), the dose should be increased before adding another drug. The recommended dose of atenolol for angina is 100 mg daily, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm indicates inadequate beta-blockade. The starting dose of isosorbide mononitrate is 10 mg bd.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - You assess a 79-year-old male patient's hypertensive treatment and find that his current...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 79-year-old male patient's hypertensive treatment and find that his current medication regimen of losartan and amlodipine is not effectively controlling his blood pressure. What would be the most suitable course of action, assuming there are no relevant contraindications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add indapamide MR 1.5mg od

      Explanation:

      For poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, it is recommended to add a thiazide-like diuretic. However, NICE advises against using bendroflumethiazide and suggests alternative options. It is important to note that patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide should not be switched to another thiazide-type diuretic. In this case, the patient is currently taking losartan, which is an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker. This may be due to previous issues with ACE inhibitor therapy, such as a dry cough. It is generally not recommended for patients to take both an ACE inhibitor and an A2RB simultaneously.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs may...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Pharmaceutical Treatments for Heart Failure: A Summary

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. There are several pharmaceutical treatments available, each with its own benefits and limitations. Here is a summary of some of the most commonly used drugs:

      Enalapril: This drug blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to improved cardiac output and reduced hospitalization rates.

      Digoxin: While this drug doesn’t improve mortality rates, it can be useful in managing symptoms.

      Amlodipine: This drug has not been shown to improve survival rates, but may be used in conjunction with other medications.

      Aspirin: This drug is only useful in cases of coronary occlusion or myocardial infarction.

      Furosemide: This drug can relieve congestive symptoms, but is not relevant for all heart failure patients.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man has suffered an extensive anterior myocardial infarction (MI) but has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has suffered an extensive anterior myocardial infarction (MI) but has recovered well in the hospital. His pre-discharge echocardiogram shows him to have a reduced ejection fraction of 35%. He has no dyspnoea, residual chest pain or significant oedema.
      Which is the single correct combination of drugs that he should be taking on discharge from the hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin, clopidogrel, bisoprolol, ramipril and a statin

      Explanation:

      Optimum Treatments for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients

      After a myocardial infarction, it is crucial for patients to receive the appropriate medications to prevent further complications. The following are some of the optimum treatments for post-MI patients:

      1. Aspirin, clopidogrel, bisoprolol, ramipril, and a statin: Beta-blockers like bisoprolol are essential for patients with left ventricular dysfunction. ACE inhibitors like ramipril are also recommended for post-MI and asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction. Aspirin, another antiplatelet drug, and a statin are also widely used.

      2. Aspirin, ticagrelor, losartan, and a statin: Ticagrelor can be used instead of clopidogrel for certain patients. Losartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker, can replace an ACE inhibitor if the latter is not tolerated.

      3. Aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, amlodipine, and a statin: Amlodipine can be added for hypertensive control if needed. However, other calcium blockers can increase mortality in patients with poor left ventricular function post-MI.

      4. Aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, furosemide, and a statin: Furosemide is only added for the treatment of symptomatic congestive cardiac failure.

      5. Aspirin, isosorbide mononitrate, ramipril, and a statin: Isosorbide mononitrate may be used for symptomatic relief of angina symptoms but is not routinely prescribed after an MI. The absence of a beta-blocker and second antiplatelet also makes this choice suboptimal.

      In conclusion, post-MI patients should receive a combination of medications tailored to their individual needs to prevent further complications and improve their quality of life.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine for her consistently high blood pressure. She appears distressed and informs you that she is already taking 10 mg of ramipril daily. You discontinue nifedipine and record her intolerance in her medical history. Upon further inquiry, you discover that she had previously experienced leg swelling with amlodipine and a rash with verapamil. Unfortunately, her blood pressure rises again after discontinuing amlodipine. What alternative medication can be prescribed next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers, the next line of therapy is a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide. It is important to note that drug intolerance refers to the inability to tolerate adverse effects of a medication, while tolerance refers to the ability to tolerate adverse effects and continue taking the medication. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line intervention depending on the patient’s potassium levels, but they are no longer part of initial hypertension management. Candesartan should not be co-prescribed with an ACE inhibitor like ramipril unless directed by a specialist. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is also not recommended as the patient has been found to be intolerant to this class of medication.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now asking which foods he should avoid.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kippers

      Explanation:

      Diet Recommendations Following a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important for patients to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. One of the key recommendations is to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, patients should switch to a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, and aim to consume five portions of fresh fruits and vegetables daily, as well as oily fish.

      However, it is important to note that NICE guidance on Acute Coronary Syndromes (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another heart attack. While oily fish is still recommended as a source of omega-3, patients should not rely on supplements as a substitute for a healthy diet. By making these dietary changes, patients can improve their heart health and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 76-year-old female, recently diagnosed with hypertension, presents to the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old female, recently diagnosed with hypertension, presents to the emergency department after collapsing. She reports feeling dizzy just before the incident and had recently begun a new medication prescribed by her GP. Her medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, glaucoma, and diverticular disease.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      First-dose hypotension is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors like ramipril, which is commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients. If a patient experiences dizziness or lightheadedness, it may be a warning sign of impending syncope.

      Prochlorperazine is not indicated for any of the patient’s medical conditions and is unlikely to cause syncope. Fludrocortisone, on the other hand, can increase blood pressure and is therefore not a likely cause of syncope.

      Metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia frequently, so it is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s collapse. While beta-blockers can cause syncope, it is unlikely to occur after the application of eye drops.

      ACE inhibitors are a type of medication that can have side-effects. One common side-effect is a cough, which can occur in around 15% of patients and may happen up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased levels of bradykinin. Another potential side-effect is angioedema, which may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are also possible side-effects, especially in patients taking diuretics.

      There are certain cautions and contraindications to be aware of when taking ACE inhibitors. Pregnant or breastfeeding women should avoid these medications. Patients with renovascular disease may experience significant renal impairment if they have undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis. Aortic stenosis may result in hypotension, and patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at increased risk of hypotension. Individuals with hereditary or idiopathic angioedema should also avoid ACE inhibitors.

      Monitoring is important when taking ACE inhibitors. Urea and electrolytes should be checked before treatment is initiated and after increasing the dose. A rise in creatinine and potassium levels may be expected after starting treatment, but acceptable changes are an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. It is important to note that different guidelines may have slightly different acceptable ranges for these changes.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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