00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - You see a 30-year-old woman who is concerned about a sudden and significant...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 30-year-old woman who is concerned about a sudden and significant amount of hair loss from her scalp in the past few weeks. She is typically healthy and has no medical history except for giving birth 2 months ago. On examination, there is no apparent focal loss of hair.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Telogen effluvium

      Correct Answer: Androgenetic alopecia

      Explanation:

      Types of Hair Loss

      Telogen effluvium is a sudden and severe shedding of hair that often occurs after significant events such as childbirth, severe illness, crash diets, or new medications. Androgenetic alopecia is the most common type of progressive hair loss, which presents in men with scalp hair loss or a receding hairline. In women, it often affects the crown of the scalp with preservation of the frontal hairline. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that typically presents with an itchy, scaly scalp with patchy hair loss. Traction alopecia is due to the traction applied to the hair in certain hairstyles such as ponytails. Trichotillomania is a psychiatric condition in which patients pull their hair out. Understanding the different types of hair loss can help individuals identify the cause of their hair loss and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old boy is being evaluated for his unilateral, throbbing headaches accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being evaluated for his unilateral, throbbing headaches accompanied by photophobia that have been occurring once every two weeks for the past year and a half. Despite taking paracetamol, which has had limited effect, he continues to experience these symptoms. His family has a history of migraines. According to NICE, what is the most appropriate treatment for an acute attack?

      Your Answer: Oral triptan + ibuprofen

      Correct Answer: Nasal triptan + paracetamol

      Explanation:

      For patients aged 12-17 with migraines, it is recommended to use a combination of nasal sumatriptan and an NSAID or nasal sumatriptan and paracetamol for acute treatment. Oral triptans are not approved for use in individuals under 18 years old. For prophylaxis, topiramate or propranolol are recommended.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 3-year-old boy had a seizure associated with a fever of 38.2°C. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy had a seizure associated with a fever of 38.2°C. He fully recovered and he was thought to have had a febrile convulsion. Now that he has had a seizure his parents are anxious about his future.

      Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: Further childhood immunisations are contraindicated

      Correct Answer: He has only a small increase in risk of developing epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Febrile Seizures: Risk Factors, Recurrence, Immunizations, and Management

      Febrile seizures are common in young children and can be a cause of concern for parents. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      Risk Factors: The likelihood of epilepsy increases if the child has a complex febrile seizure (prolonged seizure, multiple seizures or seizure with focal features), if there is a neurological abnormality, if there is a family history of epilepsy and if the duration of fever was less than one hour before the seizure. Without these features, there is only a small increase in risk compared with the general population.

      Recurrence: Recurrent febrile seizures occur in about 30% of cases. Risk factors for later recurrences of febrile seizures include onset before 18 months, a seizure with a lower temperature close to 38°C, a shorter duration of fever (less than one hour) before the seizure and a family history of febrile seizures.

      Immunizations: Childhood immunizations should continue even if the febrile seizure followed an immunization. Immunization doesn’t increase the risk of further seizures.

      Management: Antipyretic drugs may be given to reduce fever but there is no evidence they reduce the number of febrile seizures. Anticonvulsant drugs should not be routinely prescribed. There is no evidence that intellect is affected, even for children with complex febrile seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements regarding benign rolandic epilepsy is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding benign rolandic epilepsy is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Typically occurs between the age of 1 and 3 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Benign Rolandic Epilepsy

      Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that commonly affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that usually occur at night and are typically partial, affecting only certain parts of the body such as the face. However, in some cases, the seizures may progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.

      One of the key diagnostic features of benign rolandic epilepsy is the presence of centrotemporal spikes on an electroencephalogram (EEG). This test measures the electrical activity in the brain and can help doctors identify the specific type of epilepsy a child may have.

      Fortunately, the prognosis for children with benign rolandic epilepsy is excellent. Most children will outgrow their seizures by the time they reach adolescence. While the condition can be concerning for parents, it is important to remember that it is a relatively mild form of epilepsy and doesn’t typically cause any long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40-year-old male patient complains of a lump in his right scrotum that...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient complains of a lump in his right scrotum that has been present for the past 2 weeks. He denies any pain or urinary symptoms and reports stable weight. Upon examination, a smooth 4mm lump is palpated above and separate from the testicle, which is mobile and non-tender. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymph node

      Correct Answer: Epididymal cyst

      Explanation:

      Based on the description provided, it is probable that the lump is an epididymal cyst. The patient doesn’t appear to be experiencing any symptoms associated with the lump. It is not a teratoma as it is not located in the testicle. A hydrocoele is a swelling of one side of the scrotum, and there are no lymph nodes in this area. Varicoceles typically feel like a cluster of veins and are more commonly found on the left side. An ultrasound of the scrotum can be used to confirm the diagnosis of an epididymal cyst.

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood,...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood, and no energy. She has lost interest in all her usual activities and feels like giving up. Additionally, she has a history of stress incontinence. Which medication can effectively treat both her depression and stress incontinence?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression and Stress Incontinence

      Duloxetine is a medication that can be used to treat both depression and stress incontinence. It may be the best choice for patients who do not want or are not suitable for surgical treatment. However, before considering drug treatment, it is recommended that patients undertake at least three months of pelvic floor exercises. This can help improve symptoms and reduce the need for medication.

      It is important to counsel patients about the potential adverse effects of duloxetine, which may include nausea, dry mouth, and constipation. Patients should also be advised to report any unusual symptoms or side effects to their healthcare provider. With proper management and monitoring, duloxetine can be an effective treatment option for depression and stress incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor...

    Correct

    • A 14-month old infant presents with episodes of severe colic, associated with pallor and drawing of the legs upwards. This has been going on for several weeks.

      The mother has brought the child to see you because she noticed that there seemed to be blood and mucous in the stool yesterday.

      On examination there is a sausage-shaped mass palpable on the right side of the abdomen.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Intussusception: A Common Cause of Intestinal Obstruction in Infants

      Intussusception is a condition where a section of the bowel folds into itself, causing an obstruction. It is most commonly seen in infants over one month old, with the typical age of presentation being between two months to two years. The most common site of intussusception is the ileum passing into the caecum/colon through the ileocaecal valve.

      Symptoms of intussusception include severe colic, pallor, and drawing of legs upwards during episodes of pain. A sausage-shaped mass may be palpable in the abdomen, and parents may notice the passage of a redcurrant jelly stool (blood-stained mucous). In severe cases, children may present with abdominal distention and shock.

      The cause of intussusception is not always clear, but viral infections causing enlargement of Peyer’s patches have been implicated in forming a lead point for the development of intussusception. In children over the age of two, a specific lead point (such as a Meckel’s diverticulum or polyp) is more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and weight gain. She...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and weight gain. She has no significant medical history and currently weighs 52 kg. Laboratory results reveal:

      Free T4 6.9 pmol/l
      TSH 10.8 mu/l

      What is the best course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Start levothyroxine 75 mcg od

      Explanation:

      For this woman with symptomatic hypothyroidism requiring thyroxine replacement, the recommended starting dose according to BNF guidelines is 50-100 mcg once daily for patients under 50 years old. Additionally, clinical studies have demonstrated that an initial treatment dose of 1.6mcg/kg/day is appropriate for younger patients without heart disease. Therefore, the answer aligns with both the BNF recommendations and relevant research findings.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25 mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on delaying her menstrual...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic seeking advice on delaying her menstrual cycle for a week during her upcoming travels. She doesn't smoke, has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, and has no history of heart disease or breast cancer. She is currently using only barrier contraception.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Offer norethisterone to be taken 3 days before the onset of periods until her return, advising the patient it will not act as contraception

      Explanation:

      To delay their periods, women who are not on the combined hormonal contraceptive pill can take norethisterone 5 mg three times a day, starting three days before their expected period. It is important to note that this method doesn’t provide contraception, and additional contraception should be used. It is not necessary to take norethisterone seven days before the expected period. The progestogen-only pill, tranexamic acid, and copper intra-uterine device are not recommended for period delay. Tranexamic acid may be used for heavy periods.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization doesn’t occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucous thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucous becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man returns after he was found to have abnormal liver biochemistry....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man returns after he was found to have abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 98 iu/l and was Hep B surface-antigen positive.
      Select from the list the single statement that is true of chronic hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus.

      Your Answer: It is associated with positive hepatitis D serology

      Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Hepatitis B Infection

      Chronic hepatitis B infection occurs in up to 10% of adults who contract the virus. This means that the virus remains in the body long-term, with the surface antigen (HBsAg) persisting in the serum. However, up to two-thirds of people in the chronic phase remain well and do not experience any liver damage or other issues. This is known as the carrier state or chronic inactive hepatitis B, where HBeAg is absent, anti-HBe is present, and HBV DNA levels are low or undetectable. While carriers can still transmit the virus, their infectivity is lower than those with chronic active hepatitis.

      Around 20% of carriers will eventually clear the virus naturally, but this can take several years. However, some carriers may experience spontaneous reactivation of hepatitis B due to the emergence of the HBeAg-negative strain of the virus. The remaining individuals with chronic hepatitis B experience persistent liver inflammation, also known as chronic active hepatitis B. Symptoms can include muscle aches, fatigue, nausea, lack of appetite, intolerance to alcohol, liver pain, jaundice, and depression. HBeAg is usually still present, and the virus is still replicating, with raised HBV DNA levels and high infectivity. Transaminase levels may be elevated, but not always significantly.

      If left untreated, chronic active hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It’s important to note that hepatitis D is a separate virus that only infects individuals who are already infected with hepatitis B. Understanding the different phases and potential outcomes of chronic hepatitis B infection is crucial for proper management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver with a valid driving licence.

      He wants to know if he needs to inform the DVLA about his condition.

      Which patients with diabetes must by law inform the DVLA about their condition?

      Your Answer: Treated by diet alone

      Correct Answer: There are no requirements for patients with diabetes to inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Diabetic Drivers

      Drivers with diabetes do not need to inform the DVLA if their condition is managed by tablets or diet and they are free of complications such as visual impairment or hypoglycaemic attacks. However, if they are taking tablets that can induce hypoglycaemia, such as sulphonylureas, they must inform the DVLA. Additionally, if they have experienced more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months or are at high risk of developing it, they must also inform the DVLA.

      In January 2016, the DVLA updated their guidelines, which may be reflected in AKT exam questions. It is important for drivers with diabetes to familiarize themselves with any additions or amendments. One of the changes made was to revise the wording for Group 1 drivers who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, including sulphonylureas and glinides.

      It is important to note that drivers who are treated with insulin must inform the DVLA by law. Some people with diabetes may develop associated problems that could affect their ability to drive safely, and it is important to follow the guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up of tests for...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up of tests for hearing loss, which were arranged by another physician in the same practice. He works as a construction worker and attributes his hearing difficulties to years of exposure to loud machinery. He has no significant medical history.

      Upon further questioning, he reports that his hearing loss and tinnitus only affect his left ear, while his right ear seems normal. The problem has been gradually worsening over the past six months. The hearing test confirms no hearing loss affecting the right ear.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Contrast MRI brain

      Explanation:

      Consider Acoustic Neuroma in Patients with Unilateral Hearing Loss and Tinnitus

      Whilst acoustic neuroma is a rare condition, it should be considered in patients who present with unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus, especially if the other ear appears unaffected. A contrast MRI brain is the most appropriate next step to confirm or rule out the diagnosis.

      In contrast to Ménière’s disease, which is a possible differential diagnosis but usually not associated with unilateral signs, symptoms of vertigo are not prominent in acoustic neuroma. Therefore, trials of vestibular suppressants such as betahistine are ineffective, and prochlorperazine is not recommended.

      It is important to note that hearing loss in acoustic neuroma is progressive, and choosing a hearing aid option may delay intervention. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that is extremely itchy and evenly spread over his arms, legs, elbows, shoulders, and buttocks. He reports that the rash appears and disappears, with periods of a few weeks when it is almost gone. He also experiences intermittent diarrhea, which has been attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Possible Coeliac Disease and Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      The patient’s history of bowel symptoms suggests the possibility of undiagnosed coeliac disease, which may be linked to dermatitis herpetiformis. A gluten exclusion diet may help improve the rash, but dapsone may also be effective in treating it. Other potential causes of a vesicular rash include erythema multiforme, porphyria, and pemphigus/pemphigoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A father is worried about the possibility of his daughter contracting influenza. His...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried about the possibility of his daughter contracting influenza. His daughter is healthy and in good shape. As per the NHS immunisation recommendations, when should the child be offered the flu vaccine for the first time?

      Your Answer: 65 years

      Correct Answer: 2-3 years

      Explanation:

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are summoned to the passing of an 85-year-old female on the geriatric...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the passing of an 85-year-old female on the geriatric care ward. She has a lengthy record of dyspnea linked to congestive heart failure and the nursing staff report that she experienced a sudden collapse and expired. No resuscitation was attempted. What is the most suitable single cause of death that you can record on the death certificate?

      Your Answer: Cardiac arrest

      Correct Answer: Heart failure

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Filling Out Death Certificates

      When filling out a death certificate, it is important to accurately identify the underlying cause of death. Cardiac arrest, syncope, apnoea, respiratory arrest, heart, liver or kidney failure are not acceptable as modes of death. Instead, the cause of death should be a specific pathological condition, such as ischaemic heart disease or myocardial infarction.

      In rare cases, old age or frailty may be listed as the sole cause of death, but only if the healthcare provider has personally cared for the patient over a long period of time, observed a gradual decline in their health, and is certain that there is no identifiable disease or injury that contributed to the death. Even then, it is important to note that coroners, crematorium referees, registrars, and healthcare organizations may request additional information to support this statement.

      If a death is certified as due to old age or senility alone, it will usually be referred to the coroner unless the deceased was 80 or older, all the conditions listed above are fulfilled, and there is no other reason for the death to be referred. It is important to be thorough and accurate when filling out death certificates to ensure that the cause of death is properly recorded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You receive a call from the Coroner's officer regarding the sudden death of...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from the Coroner's officer regarding the sudden death of a patient you were treating. Upon reviewing your written report on the patient's care, you are summoned to appear in person at the Coroner's court to provide evidence, along with other healthcare professionals who also treated the patient. What is the purpose of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Prosecution

      Correct Answer: Inquest

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inquests

      An inquest is a public investigation into the circumstances surrounding a person’s death. It is held at a Coroner’s Court and aims to determine the who, where, when, and how of the death. As a healthcare professional, you may be required to attend an inquest to provide evidence about your involvement in the care of a patient who has died. It is important to note that an inquest is a legal proceeding, but it is not a criminal one. This means that it cannot assign blame or responsibility to a person or organization. Instead, its purpose is to gather information and establish facts. During an inquest, you may be questioned by a lawyer representing the patient, and there may be a jury and members of the press present. It is essential to be prepared and understand the process to ensure that you can provide accurate and helpful information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      66
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 51-year-old teacher comes to her General Practitioner complaining of tiredness and fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old teacher comes to her General Practitioner complaining of tiredness and fatigue that has been persisting for 10 months. She is unable to perform even minimal activities due to extreme fatigue and has been absent from work. She reports experiencing difficulty swallowing, frequent headaches, and sore throats with myalgia. She has been researching chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) and believes her symptoms are consistent with this condition.
      What is the most pressing investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain

      Correct Answer: Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome: When to Consider Urgent Investigation

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, requiring the presence of unexplained chronic fatigue for more than six months, along with other symptoms such as impaired memory or concentration, sore throats, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, and post-exertion malaise. However, certain symptoms may indicate the need for urgent investigation to rule out underlying organic or psychiatric problems.

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is a red flag symptom that may indicate an underlying oesophageal cancer and should be investigated urgently with an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) under the 2-week wait rule. Thyroid function tests should also be carried out to rule out hypothyroidism, which can present similarly to CFS, but the presence of dysphagia is atypical and prompts urgent investigation for underlying malignancy.

      Myalgia, or muscle pain, is a commonly reported symptom of CFS, but it can also be a feature of rhabdomyolysis, which would cause high creatine kinase levels. However, this is a rarer diagnosis and would usually be associated with a history of trauma or long lie causing muscle damage.

      Headache and chronic pain are recognised associations of CFS, although they are not exclusive. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is not usually indicated unless there are neurological signs or signs that may indicate raised intracranial pressure.

      Flu-like symptoms, including sore throat, tender glands, nausea, chills, or muscle aches, are often reported as a feature of CFS. However, Group A streptococcus can cause an acute sore throat rather than the recurrent symptoms described in this patient, so swabbing should be considered if there is diagnostic uncertainty or if there is a history of immunocompromise putting the patient at increased risk of complications.

      In summary, while CFS is a diagnosis of exclusion, certain symptoms such as dysphagia may indicate the need for urgent investigation to rule out underlying organic or psychiatric problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      87.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a relationship for 3 years, and this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.

      After conducting a thorough psychosexual history, which findings from the following list would indicate an organic cause rather than a psychogenic cause for his issue?

      Your Answer: Premature ejaculation

      Correct Answer: A normal libido

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, mixed, or drug-induced.

      Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset of the condition, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems, major life events, and psychological issues.

      On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset of the condition, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history such as cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological conditions, previous operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Therefore, having a normal libido is indicative of an organic cause of ED.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with Graves' disease presents for follow-up. She has recently been diagnosed with thyroid eye disease and is being evaluated for radiotherapy. In the last few days, she has experienced redness and pain in her left eye. Upon examination, there is erythema and proptosis of the left eye. Her visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. What is the most probable complication she has developed?

      Your Answer: Sjogren's Syndrome

      Correct Answer: Exposure keratopathy

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      2424.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal bloating and discomfort after meals that has been going on for three months. She reports feeling nauseated at times but denies vomiting. She has lost more than 1 stone in weight. She has not experienced any changes in bowel habits and has not passed any blood in her stools. She has no significant medical history.

      During the physical examination, there is no evidence of jaundice or anemia, but she has diffuse upper abdominal tenderness, and her gallbladder is palpable on inspiration. A previous abdominal ultrasound scan conducted ten years ago revealed the presence of an incidental gallstone, but she did not undergo surgery as she was asymptomatic at the time. There is a strong family history of gallstones.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a specialist in upper GI cancer

      Correct Answer: Routine referral for consideration of cholecystectomy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gallbladder Cancer and its Risk Factors

      Gallbladder cancer is a rare form of cancer that often goes undiagnosed until it has reached an advanced stage. It is more common in women, especially those with a history of gallstones, and those who have a family history of the disease. Other risk factors include smoking, obesity, and diabetes. Native Americans, black, and Hispanic populations are also at a higher risk of developing Gallbladder cancer.

      Symptoms of Gallbladder cancer can be vague and mimic benign disease, making it difficult to diagnose. However, unintentional weight loss is a red flag and should be taken seriously. Most Gallbladder tumors are adenocarcinomas and can spread to the liver and lungs. By the time symptoms appear, the cancer has often metastasized, and more than half of patients present with jaundice.

      It is important to have a high index of suspicion for Gallbladder cancer, especially in patients with risk factors. Even if the abdominal examination is normal, significant weight loss should prompt urgent referral for investigation under the two week wait system. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of Gallbladder cancer, healthcare professionals can help ensure early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old woman with symptoms of anxiety presents to the clinic with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with symptoms of anxiety presents to the clinic with complaints of intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She reports experiencing the pain particularly when she is stressed at work or unexpectedly exercising. On one occasion, she has fainted, and she sometimes experiences pins and needles around her mouth and in both hands. She has a history of mild asthma and uses PRN salbutamol. All tests, including ECG, peak flow rate, full blood count, thyroid function, and pulse oximetry, are normal. What is the most appropriate plan for her?

      Your Answer: Trial of SSRI

      Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Therapy and Breathing Exercises for Hyperventilation Syndrome

      Two studies have shown that cognitive therapy and breathing exercises can effectively treat hyperventilation syndrome. This condition often leads to pleuritic chest pain without any apparent cause. During therapy sessions, specific anxiety triggers can be identified and addressed. However, for those with chronic hyperventilation syndrome, cognitive therapy and breathing exercises can provide relief and improve overall quality of life. With these treatments, patients can learn to control their breathing and reduce symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be recommended for a teenager with eczema...

    Correct

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be recommended for a teenager with eczema on both legs for a two-week treatment with once daily application?

      Your Answer: 100 g

      Explanation:

      Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. The cream or ointment should be spread thinly on the affected area, but enough should be used to cover it completely. To determine the appropriate amount, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.

      For example, treating both legs for two weeks requires 14 ftus or 7 g per daily dose. This means that a prescription for 100 g is needed. It is important to know the correct quantity of cream to be prescribed and the volumes used for various parts of the body, as these have been tested in past examinations. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using topical corticosteroids safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 6-year-old girl is brought in to the surgery having become progressively more...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought in to the surgery having become progressively more ill over a few hours. She is febrile, looks unwell, is pale with cold extremities, tachypnoeic and complains of leg pain. She keeps asking for water but drinks very little. She has had some diarrhoea and vomited once.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: influenza

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal disease

      Explanation:

      Early Diagnosis of Meningococcal Disease: Importance of nonspecific Features

      Meningococcal disease is a severe bacterial infection caused by Neisseria meningitidis. Although it is a common commensal of the nasopharynx, it is also the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood. The disease can present as bacterial meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.

      A recent study of children with meningococcal disease found that classical signs such as haemorrhagic rash, meningism, and impaired consciousness did not appear until 13-22 hours after onset. However, nonspecific features such as leg pain, cold hands and feet, abnormal skin colour, breathing difficulty, and thirst appeared much earlier, with a median onset of 7-12 hours.

      These nonspecific features are crucial for early diagnosis and may allow for earlier initiation of life-saving treatment. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be aware of these early symptoms and consider meningococcal disease as a potential diagnosis in children presenting with these features. Early recognition and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for children with meningococcal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      67.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother after suddenly developing a cough and wheeze. His symptoms seem to have started suddenly at a birthday party. On examination, he is irritable, afebrile, with a raised respiratory rate and cough. He has a wheeze heard on the right side and breath sounds are more prominent on the left.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Foreign Body Aspiration, Peanut Allergy, and Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Signs

      Unilateral wheeze in a child should always prompt the search for an inhaled foreign body, especially if symptoms started acutely in an otherwise healthy child. Large foreign bodies can cause complete airway obstruction and are rapidly fatal, while smaller ones, like peanuts, usually lodge in the right main bronchus and cause hyperinflation of the unaffected side, reduced air entry on the affected side, and a unilateral monophonic wheeze. Symptoms of foreign body aspiration may not always include the classic triad of coughing, wheezing, and decreased breathing sounds, and patients with chronic symptoms may have been misdiagnosed as having asthma or bronchitis. Peanut allergy symptoms can include itching, urticaria, facial swelling, bronchospasm, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and collapse with anaphylactic shock. Spontaneous pneumothorax presents with sudden onset of pain and dyspnea, hyper-resonance, and reduced breath sounds on the affected side. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of these conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 48-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with bothersome vasomotor symptoms. She is experiencing frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with bothersome vasomotor symptoms. She is experiencing frequent hot flashes and is seeking relief. She is hesitant to take hormone replacement therapy but is open to trying other medications. What options are supported by evidence for the management of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants for Vasomotor Symptoms

      Antidepressants in the SSRI and SNRI classes have been found to reduce vasomotor symptoms, such as hot flashes and night sweats, in studies. This is thought to be due to the involvement of serotonin in the pathogenesis of these symptoms. While there is some evidence for SSRIs like fluoxetine and paroxetine, the most convincing data is for the SNRI venlafaxine at a dose of 37.5 mg twice daily. However, the studies are short, lasting only a few weeks.

      Despite their potential benefits, the main drawback of these medications is the high incidence of nausea. Patients should be monitored closely for side effects and may need to try different medications or doses to find the most effective and tolerable option. Overall, antidepressants may be a useful option for women experiencing vasomotor symptoms, but careful consideration of the risks and benefits is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering her for a week. She reports experiencing a burning sensation and itchiness around her mouth. Despite using hydrocortisone cream, the rash has not improved significantly. On examination, you observe a bilateral perioral papular eruption consisting of 4-5 clusters of 1-2 mm papules with sparing of the vermillion border. What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Hydrocortisone is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s perioral dermatitis, as it is a milder steroid compared to other options. Stronger steroids can worsen the condition with prolonged use. While using only emollients is not unreasonable, it may not provide complete relief within a reasonable timeframe. It is also recommended to minimize the use of skin products. Fusidic acid is typically used for localized impetigo, but it is not suitable for this patient as there are no signs of golden-crusted lesions.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a patient with atrial fibrillation for rhythm control (cardioversion) if they were elderly.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Longstanding atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation: NICE Guidelines and Considerations

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends referral to a cardiologist for rhythm-control treatment (cardioversion) in certain cases of atrial fibrillation. These include atrial fibrillation with a reversible cause, heart failure primarily caused or worsened by atrial fibrillation, and new-onset atrial fibrillation. If onset is known to be within 48 hours, referral to an acute medical unit is recommended for immediate cardioversion without anticoagulation treatment. Pharmacological cardioversion is often used as a first-line therapy, with electrical cardioversion reserved for non-responders. However, cardioversion may be less successful or not recommended in cases of long-standing atrial fibrillation, significant valve problems, cardiomegaly, or multiple recurrences of atrial fibrillation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the...

    Incorrect

    • When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the total quantity in both words and figures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      In January 2008, midazolam was reclassified as a controlled drug under Schedule 3.

      Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.

      Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and a swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and a swelling on the left side of her neck. She mentions that she is struggling to keep up with her studies as a 4th year medical student and is considering dropping down a year. She has no significant medical history and is only taking the progesterone only pill.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse is 85 and regular, and she appears pale. The only notable finding is a large left supraclavicular swelling that is several centimeters across and has a slightly rubbery consistency. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2.

      After conducting some investigations, the following results were obtained:
      - Hb 92 g/L (115-160)
      - WCC 8.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      - PLT 162 ×109/L (150-450)
      - Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Cr 88 µmol/L (70-110)
      - ESR 75 mm/hr (<10)

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent haematology referral

      Explanation:

      Suspicious Symptoms for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Lower cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, along with an insidious presentation of anaemia and raised ESR, is a cause for concern in this age group. Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a possible diagnosis, and determining lymph node architecture is crucial for evaluating prognosis. Therefore, an excision biopsy is the next step for disease staging, accompanied by chest x-ray and CT.

      EBV is associated with lymphadenopathy and acute pharyngitis, but there is no indication of acute infection in this case. Endoscopy would be necessary if the patient reported upper GI symptoms, but there is no mention of indigestion.

      Although a surgical team will perform the excision biopsy, it is the haematologists who will provide the initial assessment. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are essential for effective treatment and management of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain has been persistent for the last four weeks and is most severe approximately 4-5cm distal to the lateral aspect of the elbow joint. The pain is exacerbated by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/2) 50%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed